1. Who Wants to Pass Biology?
Chapter 13
Biotechnology

2. True or False?
DNA fingerprinting can be used to identify the father of a child, but not the mother.

3. True or False?
PCR is often used in forensic (crime-related) identification work because the samples found are usually contaminated.

4. True or False?
Microarray analysis of gene expression in a cell involves extracting the proteins from that cell.

5. True or False?
The human genome is made up of 32 chromosomes.

6. True or False?
Gene expression profiles between normal cells and cancer cells can be compared using microarray technology.

7. True or False?
In the electrophoresis gel shown in Figure 13-1, the DNA located in the band labeled C is longer than the DNA located in the band labeled A.

8. A. Transgenic organism B. Plasmid C. DNA fingerprint D. Clone
In 1974, Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer inserted a gene from an African clawed frog into a bacterium. The bacterium produced the protein coded for by the inserted frog gene. The bacterium containing functional frog DNA would be classified as a _________.
A. Transgenic organism
B. Plasmid
C. DNA fingerprint
D. Clone

9. A. Rr x Rr B. RR x rr C . RR x Rr D. RR x RR
In pea plants, inflated pods (R) are dominant to constricted pods (r). Which of the following is a cross between inflated pods and constricted pods?
A. Rr x Rr
B. RR x rr
C . RR x Rr
D. RR x RR

10. B. A, B, C The segments are in the C. F, E, D following order (ADBCEF)
A virus isolated from monkeys contains a circular double strand of DNA. The virus, called Simian Virus 40, interests scientists because it causes cancer in laboratory animals. Using a restriction enzyme, the strand is separated into six unequal segments. A scientists hypothesizes that the segment of the DNA causing cancer can contain no fewer than 600 base pairs. Which segment of the virus has the highest chance of containing the segment of interest? Identify the DESCENDING order, from the HIGHEST chance to the LOWEST.
A. D, E, F
B. A, B, C The segments are in the
C. F, E, D following order (ADBCEF)
D. C, B, A A (1768 base pairs)
B (1169 base pairs)
C (1100 base pairs)
D (520 base pairs)
E (447 base pairs)
F (215 base pairs)

11. C. Homozygous short ears D. Homozygous long ears
What is the genotype of the unknown rabbit (long ears) crossed with short ears if long ears are dominant and the genotypic and phenotypic ratios of the offspring are 1:1?
A. Recessive
B. Heterozygous
C. Homozygous short ears
D. Homozygous long ears

12. A. ¼ of the offspring would have short ears
What would be the result of the test cross of the rabbits in the previous question if the unknown were homozygous long ears?
A. ¼ of the offspring would have short ears
B. All of the offspring would have short ears
C. All of the offspring would have long ears
D. ½ of the offspring would have long ears

13. What must be on either end of any genetic material that is inserted into the cleaved DNA in Figure 13-4?
A. 5’CCGG3’
B. 5’CGCG3’
C. 5’ATAT3’ 3’G AATTC5’
D. 5’AATT3’ 5’CTTAA G3’
Figure 13.4

14. What genotypes are produced by a program of inbreeding?
A. Only homozygous
B. Only heterozygous
C. Only dominant homozygous
D. Only recessive homozygous

15. According to Figure 13-6, which parents might give a false positive if only the longer DNA fragments were analyzed?
A. D
B. C
C. B
D. A

16. According to Figure 13-6, which are the parents of the child?
A. D
B. C
C. B
D. A

17. Which DNA sequence in Figure 13-5 will be cleaved by EcoRI, which cuts AATT/TTAA?
A. D A. CAGGATCCCATG
B. C CTCCTAGGGTAC
C. B B. GACTAGGTACCAA
D. A CTGATCCATGGTT
C. GCAGAATTCGATC
CGTCTTAAGCTAG
D. AAGCTTGACTA
TTCGAACTGAT
Figure 13.5

18. In a test cross, if one parent’s genotype is homozygous dominant
A. 1/4 of the offspring will have the dominant phenotype
B. ½ of the offspring will have the dominant phenotype
C. ¾ of the offspring will have the dominant phenotype
D. All of the offspring will have the dominant phenotype

19. What is the purpose of producing a line by inbreeding?
A. Eliminating hidden variations
B. Eliminating recessive traits
C. Reducing dominant traits
D. Reducing the number of genes

20. What is the name of the method whereby developing pure lines, breeders preserve desirable traits?
A. Mass selection
B. Cross pollination
C. Inbreeding
D. Hybridization

21. A. Selective breeding B . Polyploid planting C. Hybridization
What is the name used to describe a cross between two varieties of a plant used in an attempt to create a new variety with traits form both parents?
A. Selective breeding
B . Polyploid planting
C. Hybridization
D. Cloning

22. The process by which plants are bred to produce larger fruits and a longer growing time is called
A. Selective breeding
B. Recessive breeding
C. Offspring breeding
D. Dominant breeding

23. The offspring of the cross-fertilization of pea plants with purple flowers and pea plants with white flowers are called
A. Recessive breeds
B. Pure breeds
C. Hybrids
D. Gametes

24. Characteristics of Corn Strains % Oil %Protein Strain 1 5.0 2.0
A researcher has been asked to develop a new strain of corn that has high oil content and low protein content. Given that the lab has five pure-breeding varieties of corn with the desired characteristics, be able to tell which strains the researcher should cross to begin to reach the desired goal of the program.
Characteristics of Corn Strains % Oil %Protein
Strain
Strain
Strain
Strain
Strain
A. Strain 4 x Strain 2 B. Strain 2 x Strain 5
C. Strain 3 x Strain 4 D. Strain 1 x Strain 2

25. A genetically engineered organism that contains a gene from another organism is called a
A. Cloned organism
B. Transgenic organism
C. Genetic organism
D. Bacterial organism

26. A. Inbreeding B. Hybridization C. Genetic engineering D. Cloning
Santa Gertrudis cattle were developed by mating shorthorn beef cattle, who produce high quality beef with heat- and insect- resistant Brahman cattle from India. The result of this cross are cattle that are resistant to heat and insects and also produce high-quality beef. This process is an example of
A. Inbreeding
B. Hybridization
C. Genetic engineering
D. Cloning

27. Researchers can determine the difference between normal and disease states of the human body by analyzing the structure and function of
A. Single proteins
B. Singe phosphate groups
C. Large numbers of proteins
D. Large numbers of phosphate groups

28. Regions of linked variations in the genome that can be associated with human diseases are known as
A. Non-coding regions
B. Coding regions
C. Plasmids
D. Haplotypes

29. Why have viruses been used in gene therapy in humans?
A. They contain restriction endonucleases
B. They are disease-causing factors
C. They are passed from one person to another
D. They inject DNA into cells

30. The regions of DNA that are unique to each individual are the
A. Protein-coding regions
B. Non-coding regions
C. Phosphate regions
D. Nucleotide regions

31. What is the term used to describe the complete genetic information of a cell or organism?
A. Nulceotide
B. Haplotype
C. Genome
D. Clone

32. In which of these processes do scientists use restriction enzymes?
A. Selective breeding
B. Inbreeding
C. Hybridization
D. Genetic engineering

33. Which outcome is possible using genetic engineering, but not using selective breeding?
A. A hairless variety of cow
B. A bacterium that produces human insulin
C. Corn that produces one large corn cob per plant
D. A sheep with wool longer than wool produced by any other sheep

34. A DNA molecule containing regions from different sources is called?
A. Template DNA
B. Restriction DNA
C. Recombinant DNA
D. DNA ligase

35. Matching An identical copy of an organism ______
A. Restriction enzyme H. Gene therapy
B. Clone I. Selective breeding
C. Genetic engineering J. Haplotypes
D. Test cross K. Hybrid
E. Transgenic organism
F. Gel electrophoresis
G. Genome

36. Matching
Genetic variation that are closely linked together _____________
A. Restriction enzyme H. Gene therapy
B. Clone I. Selective breeding
C. Genetic engineering J. Haplotypes
D. Test cross K. Hybrid
E. Transgenic organism
F. Gel electrophoresis
G. Genome

37. Matching
A technique aimed at correcting mutated genes that cause human diseases __________
A. Restriction enzyme H. Gene therapy
B. Clone I. Selective breeding
C. Genetic engineering J. Haplotypes
D. Test cross K. Hybrid
E. Transgenic organism
F. Gel electrophoresis
G. Genome

38. Matching
A genetically engineered organism that contains a gene from another organism _________
A. Restriction enzyme H. Gene therapy
B. Clone I. Selective breeding
C. Genetic engineering J. Haplotypes
D. Test cross K. Hybrid
E. Transgenic organism
F. Gel electrophoresis
G. Genome

39. Matching Technique that separates DNA fragments by size ________
A. Restriction enzyme H. Gene therapy
B. Clone I. Selective breeding
C. Genetic engineering J. Haplotypes
D. Test cross K. Hybrid
E. Transgenic organism
F. Gel electrophoresis
G. Genome

40. Matching
The total DNA present in the nucleus of each cell ____________
A. Restriction enzyme H. Gene therapy
B. Clone I. Selective breeding
C. Genetic engineering J. Haplotypes
D. Test cross K. Hybrid
E. Transgenic organism
F. Gel electrophoresis
G. Genome

41. Matching
Inserting the DNA of one organism into the DNA of another organism ____________
A. Restriction enzyme H. Gene therapy
B. Clone I. Selective breeding
C. Genetic engineering J. Haplotypes
D. Test cross K. Hybrid
E. Transgenic organism
F. Gel electrophoresis
G. Genome

42. Matching A method of determining an exact genotype ____
A. Restriction enzyme H. Gene therapy
B. Clone I. Selective breeding
C. Genetic engineering J. Haplotypes
D. Test cross K. Hybrid
E. Transgenic organism
F. Gel electrophoresis
G. Genome

43. Problem
A breeder does a test cross with an individual with a dominant phenotype to determine whether that individual is heterozygous or homozygous. Ten offspring are produced and they are all of the dominant phenotype. Has the researcher proved that the unknown parent is homozygous dominant ? Explain.