1. COMPETITION

2. Utilization of a large focal spot will result in: a.greater concentration of heat on the anode b.decreased concentration of heat on the anode c.decreased electron emission d.increased energy of the x-rays produced

3. 5.Which of the following pathological conditions would require a decrease in mAs or kVp to maintain an acceptable density? 1.Paget's disease 2.pulmonary emphysema 3.osteoporosis a.1 b.2 c.2 and 3 e.1, 2 and 3

4. 6.The crushing of a stone or calculus in the kidney is called: a.lithotomy b.nephrolithiasis c.pyelonephritis d.lithotripsy

5. 8.Which of the following structures is located most anterior in the abdomen? a.spleen b.kidney c.transverse colon d.inferior vena cava

6. 10. The medical term that refers to the condition of dead tissue is: a.necrosis b.necropsy c.noctihistosis d.nyctohistosis

7. 14. On a correctly positioned AP projection of the pelvis, which structure should NOT be visualized? a.greater trochanter b.lesser trochanter c.femoral neck d.femoral head

8. 22.The majority of damage to the DNA molecule results from the _____ effect of radiation. a.direct b.indirect c.both occur equally

9. 32. A radiograph of wire mesh is obtained utilizing 5 mAs, 50 kVp, a 40" SID and 200 film screen speed. A localized area of unsharpness is detected in one corner of the radiograph. This area of unsharpness is most likely due to: a.difference in intensification factor in that area of the screen b.variation in focal spot size c.quantum mottle effect d.poor screen film contact

10. Radiographic ____ is random fluctuation in the optical density of a radiograph. A.a.detail B.b.contrast C.c.noise D.d.resolution

11. 33.In order to utilize the anode heel effect, the body area being radiographed with the greatest thickness should be positioned: a.at the anode side of the x-ray beam b.at the cathode side of the x-ray beam c.in the central portion of the x-ray beam

12. 36. When adjusted, which of the following factors provides a direct proportional relationship with the number of x-rays produced? a.mA b.SID c.kVp d.intensifying screen speed e.grid ratio

13. 37. Which of the following phosphors is not used in intensifying screens? a.calcium tungstate b.gadolinium c.thorium d. d. lanthanum

14. 41. A deficiency of oxygen in the blood is termed: a.anosmia b.hypoxemia c.tachypnea d.apnea

15. 50. To demonstrate the coccyx with the patient prone, the central ray should be directed: a.perpendicular to the film b.10 degrees cephalad c.20 degrees cephalal d.10 degrees caudad e.40 degrees caudad

16. 62. A film badge reading of 70 mrem is equal to how many rem? a.70,000 b.7,000 c..70 d..07

17. 64.An increase in filtration of the x-ray beam would result in an: a.increase in output in mR/second b.increased skin dose to the patient c.increase in the half value layer d.increase in radiographic contrast

18. Which of these body parts has the highest subject contrast? a.abdomen b.skull c.chest d.pelvis

19. 197. Compared with an 8:1 grid, a 16:1 grid exhibits which of the following characteristics? a.greater cleanup, less positioning latitude b.less cleanup, greater positioning latitude c.greater patient does, greater positioning latitude d.greater selectivity, less patient dose

20. 66.What is the maximum permissible dose for a radiation worker? a..5 rem per year b.5 rems per year c.5 mrems per year d.the least amount possible

21. The resultant effect of an increase in voltage to the x- ray tube is production of x-rays with: a.longer wavelengths and higher frequencies b.shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies c.longer wavelengths and lower frequencies d.shorter wavelengths and lower frequencies

22. 182A patient arrives via ambulance to the emergency room on a backboard and in a cervical collar following a motor vehicle accident. The most likely examination to be ordered first is: a.portable chest b.lateral skull c.rib series d.portable cross-table lateral cervical spine

23. 80. The sensing material in a thermoluminescent dosimeter badge is: a.yttrium b.lanthanum c.zinc cadmium d.lithium fluoride

24. 165. What is the maximum amount of time that can elapse before the fluoroscopic cumulative timer must be reset? a.5 minutes b.10 minutes c.15 minutes d.20 minutes

25. 82. A device that stores an electrical charge is a: a.generator b.solenoid c.capacitor d.rectifier

26. 86. Which of the following phases in the cycle of the cell would possess the highest radiosensitivity? a.ANAPHASE b.METAPHASE c.PROPHASE d.TELOPHASE

27. 2. Cyanosis is an indication of: a.osteoporosis b.end-stage renal disease c.lack of oxygen to the tissues d.hypovolemia

28. 89. When a barium enema is being administrated, the barium bag should be: a.30 inches above the patient's hips b.4 feet, above the patient's hip c.as high as possible d.50 inches above the patient's hips

29. 91. Static artifacts can be prevented by: a.maintaining darkroom humidity at 40 - 60% b.cleaning the intensifying screens with anti- static cleaner c.handling film gently to reduce or prevent friction d.all of the above e.a. and b.

30. 92.Reduction of a 14 x 17 inch field to an 8 x 10 inch field with all other factors remaining the same would result in: a.increased density and decreased scattered radiation b.increased density and increased scattered radiation c.decreased density and decreased scattered radiation d.decreased density and increased scattered radiation

31. 172. A vascular tumors treated with radiotherapy are sometimes also treated with hyperbaric therapy because: a.oxygen helps repair radiation burns b.tumors are more sensitive in oxygenated conditions c.tumors are less sensitive in oxygenated conditions d.hyperbaric therapy aids patient comfort level

32. 173. The difference between gamma rays and x-rays is: a.size b.source c.penetrating ability d.charge

33. 179Which of the following are beam restriction devices? a.grids, cones, collimator b.collimator, cone, diaphragm c.grid, AEC, collimator d.cone, AEC, radiolucent sponge

34. 99. The medical term for the structure that prevents choking is: a.hyoid bone b.thyroid cartilage c.larynx e.epiglottis

35. 110. The most common television camera tube used for fluoroscopy is a: a.grid pulsed b.vidicon c.opticon d.orthochromatic

36. 163. A one-time, 200-R dose directly to the hair follicles would most likely result in: a.moist desquamation b.epilation c.hirsutism d.hematopoietic syndrome

37. 111.The number of solid state rectifiers utilized for three phase- twelve pulse generation would be: a.2 b.4 c.8 d.12

38. 13. A nosocomial infection is one that: a.is acquired from a friend or loved one b.is non-communicable c.is acquired in the hospital setting d.presents no danger to the patient

39. 198. The AEC accounts for all of the following exposure factor variables except: a.distance b.part thickness c.pathology d.positioning

40. 200.The 10-day rule is a guide concerning which of the following time periods? a.ten days past the first trimester b.ten days following the onset of menstruation c.the first 10 days of gestation ten days following a childbirth

41. 118. The slipping of one part of an intestine into another part of the intestine just below it is called: a.peristalsis b.enteritis c.bullimia d.intussusception

42. 121. Which of the following is a method of radiation protection also resulting in improved contrast? a.use of grids b.collimation c.use of low kVp, high mAs factors d.all of the above

43. 45. Which type of waveform is associated with an approximate 13% voltage ripple? a.three-phase, twelve-pulse b.three-phase, six-pulse c.single-phase d.half-wave rectified

44. 4. HIV may be transmitted in all of the following ways except: a.transfusions b.giving birth c.sharing drinking water d.sharing needles

45. 123. Which of the following types of interactions would occur in the diagnostic x-ray range, (50 to 150 KV)? 1.photoelectric effect 2.Compton effect 3.pair production a.1 b.1 and 2 c.1 and 3 d.2 and 3 e.1, 2 and 3

46. 67. In order to correctly center a PA view of the hand, the CR should be directed: a.5 degrees cephalic at the third metacarpal head b.perpendicular to the third metacarpal c.parallel to the base of the third metacarpal d.5 degrees caudad at the third metacarpal head

47. 68. Of the following, which view(s) of the cervical spine will demonstrate the interveretebral formamina closest to the film? a.lateral b.AP c.RAO d.LPO

48. 74. Which of the following facial and skull landmarks describes the junction of the nose with the upper lip? a.Glabella b.Acanthion c.Nasion d.Outer canthus

49. 77. The vermiform appendix hangs from the inferior surface of which subdivision of the colon? a.rectum b.cecum c.ascending d.descending

50. Which medical condition may require a lower technique? A.atelectasis B.emphysema C.pneumonia D.pleural effusion

51. 125. A type of personnel monitoring device that is based on the measurement of light emitted from a heated material is in: a.ion chamber b.film badge c.Geiger counter d.Thermoluminescent dosimeter

52. 81.All of the following are attributes of short-scale contrast except: a.high contrast b.wide film latitude c.produced by high mAs, low kVp d.few number of density differences

53. 167Which of the following will provide an immediate reading for a one-time, high-level exposure? a.TLD b.film badge c.lithium fluoride crystal d.pocket dosimeter

54. 187. A double-focus x-ray tube has two: a.filters b.windows c.filaments d.rectifiers

55. 8. What is the most important action a technologist should take regarding a patient who is vomiting and unresponsive? a.provide an emesis basin b.call the nurse c.turn the patient into a prone position d.turn the patient into a lateral recumbent position

56. 189. As intensifying screen speed increases, density: a.increases b.decreases c.is unchanged d.becomes upredictable

57. Which sinus is located immediately below the sella turcica? A.frontal B.maxillary C.ethmoidal D.sphenoidal

58. 191. If all other exposure factors are stable, then of the following factors, which is MOST important concerning recorded detail? a.grid ratio b.exposure time c.screen speed d.kVp

59. 193. The single best method the technologist can use to decrease voluntary motion is: a.short exposure times b.long exposure times c.good communication d.fast screens

60. 169. A patient with profound mental retardation arrives in the radiology department for flat and upright abdomen examination fail; it is apparent that the patient must be held if the examination is to be successful. Of the following the best individual to hold the patient is: a.another technologist b.the patient's mother c.an orderly d.a nurse

61. There is complete absorption of the incident x-ray photon with a.photoelectric effect. b.Compton interaction. c.pair production. d.coherent scatter

62. When only optical density needs to changed, then only the ____ should be adjusted. A.mAs B.kVp C.SID D.Both a and b

63. 126. Which of the following pieces of equipment would be used for testing the focal spot size? a.pinhole camera b.wire mesh c.penetrometer d.sensitometer

64. The use of ____ reduces the risk of a drug reaction during angiographic procedures. A.hydrophilic catheters B.ionic contrast C.nonionic contrast D.heparin coating

65. 56. When performing a radiographic examination of the stomach, which position/projection demonstrates barium in the fundus? a.RAO b.erect c.AP d.right lateral

66. 63. Where should the technologist wear his/her film badge during the lumbar spine exam : a.on the waist level b.on the collar level c.on the abdomen level Be.d below the waist level

67. 65. In a double-contrast barium enema examination, the primary area of interest for a 45 dergree RAO projection is the: a.rectum b.splenic flexure c.hepatic flexure d.sigmoid colon

68. An outer-shell electron is ejected and the atom is ionized with a. photoelectric interactions. b. Compton interactions. c. coherent scattering. d. pair production

69. 88. Improper stacking of film boxes in the film storage is is likely to cause: a.static artifact b.tree artifact c.pressure artifact d.fingernail artifact

70. 129. The term used to describe the statistical variation in the number of x-ray photons absorbed by the intensifying screen is: a.noise b.latent image c.latitude d.artifact

71. 14. The radiologic technologist can facilitate a lumbar spine examination by increasing the patient's comfort level by: a.requesting pain medicine for the patient b.placing a pad or sponge under the patient's knees c.limiting the examination to anteroposterior (AP) and lateral views d.performing the examination as rapidly as possible

72. 91. How much time is required for an exposure equaling 70 mAs when using the 200-mA small focal spot station? a.0.50 sec b.1 sec c.0.35 sec d.0.55 sec

73. 56. The term base plus fog describes: a.unwanted exposure of film to light b.unwanted exposure of film from scatter radiation c.inherent manufacturing and processing density d.contributing environmental exposure factors, such a radon

74. 78. Radiographic evaluation of the uterus and fallopian tubes by injection of iodinated contrast material via uterine cannulation is called: a.Uterography b.Pelvic pneumography c.Hysterogram d.Hysterosalpingography

75. 23. A type of shielding that attaches to the x-ray tube is: a.contour b.flat c.shadow d.flat

76. 130. The amount of exposure produced at a 40" SID is 80 mR per exposure. If all other factors remain the same, what would be the exposure in mR, if the SID is increased to 80"? a.320 mR b.40 mR c.160 mR d.20 mR e.200 mR

77. One of the most radiosensitive tissues in the body is ____ tissue. a.spinal b.muscle c.lymphatic d.thyroid

78. 137.Which of the following projections of the foot would best demonstrate the articulation between the cuboid and the calcaneus? a.dorsoplantar projection b.medial oblique projection c.lateral oblique projection d.lateral medial projection

79. 30. According to the laws of Bergonie and Tribondeau, which of the following cell types would be least radiosensitive? a.muscle cells b.nerve cells c.liver cells d.bone marrow cells

80. 95. Which of the following formulas is used to determine HU output of a three- phase, twelve-pulse radiographic unit? a.HU = mA x s x kVp b.HU = mA x s x kVp x 1.35 c.HU = mA x s x kVp x 1.41 d.HU = mA x s x kVp x 2

81. 41.The device that selects kVp is a: a.rheostat b.capacitor c.autotransformer d.resistor

82. 79. In double-contrast-enhanced UGI series, which view demonstrates the lesser and greater curvatures? a.LPO b.AP c.Lateral d.PA

83. 31. What device would be used to measure B+F? a.photometer b.wire mesh c.densitometer d.photocathode

84. 141. A lateral projection of the ankle will demonstrate the talus: a.superimposing the navicular b.lateral to the calcaneus c.superior to the calcaneus d.anterior to the navicular

85. 12. Forms of patient communication include which of the following? a.verbal b.facial expressions c.appearance d.all of the aforementioned

86. 86.The ratio of the height of the lead strips to the width of the interspace material in a grid is known as: a.grid radius b.grid ratio c.grid cutoff d.lines per inch

87. The dose limit for the general public is ____ the dose limit for occupational exposure. A.1/10 B.1/5 C.1/2 D.3/4

88. The act of swallowing is termed: a.mastication. b.digestion. c.deglutition. d.aphasia

89. 18. The complete removal of all microorganisms and their spores is referred to as: a.asepsis b.sterile field c.surgical asepsis d.medical asepsis

90. 64. Which of the following examinations would best demonstrate the presence of free air under the right hemidiaphragm? a.KUB b.UGI c.left lateral decubitus d.right lateral decubitus abdomen

91. Roentgens (or grays) is the measurement for x-ray ____. a.quantity b.exposure c.intensity d.All of the above.

92. The swimmer’s technique lateral projection is performed to demonstrate the: a.cervical vertebrae b.thoracic vertebrae c.atlas and axis d.cervicothoracic region vertebrae

93. 81. A step-down transformer would be utilized: a.in the production of high voltage to the x- ray tube b.in the production of tube current c.to compensate line voltage d.to adjust kVp

94. Humans are most radiosensitive during a.fetal stages. b.infancy. c.adulthood. d.old age.

95. Which two vessels deliver blood to the heart muscle? a.Right and left pulmonary arteries b.Right and left pulmonary veins c.Right and left coronary arteries d.Right and left cardiac arteries

96. Radioactive material is measured in ____. a.rads b.rems c.seiverts d.curies

97. 145. Which of the following types of precautions usually requires more than one person to perform the exam? a.airbome b.droplet c.contact d.standard

98. The two primary forms of x-ray interaction in the diagnostic range are A.Compton scattering and photoelectric absorption. B.Compton scattering and pair production. C.photoelectric absorption and coherent scattering. D.coherent scattering and Thompson scattering

99. 66. The functional unit of the kidney is known as the: a.nephron b.axon c.glomerulus d.renal tubule

100. 146. Which of the following causes hypovolemic shock? a.abnormal dilatation of the peripheral blood vessels b.sever systemic infections c.low volume of plasma in the body d.sensitivity to contrast agents

101. 10. The rapid onset of severe cardiovascular and respiratory symptoms following non-ionic contrast-media injection, including cessation of heartbeat and respiration, is best described by which term? a.diaphoresis b.DVT c.anaphylactic shock d.prn

102. 164. Protective apparel such as lead aprons and gloves should be _____ at least once every ____. a.worn, week b.imaged, month c.worn, day d.imaged, year

103. Approximately ____ of the kinetic energy of the projectile electrons is converted to x-rays at the target. a.1% b.10% c.50% d.99%

104. 157. Which of the letters in the diagram refers to a navicular bone? a.a b.b c.c d. d d

105. ____ is a late effect of radiation exposure. a.Erythema b.Epilation c.Cancer d.Nausea

106. Photons with the highest frequencies have the a.highest velocity. b.lowest energy. c.longest wavelengths. d.shortest wavelengths

107. 12.The ileocecal valve is located in the: a.right upper quadrant b.right lower quadrant c.left upper quadrant d.left lower quadrant

108. 42. Which type of rectification eliminates the negative alternation of alternating current? a.half-wave b.full-wave c.three-phase d.inverse

109. To demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints of the lumbar spine, the patient angle is: a.30 degrees b.45 degrees c.50 degrees d.55 degrees

110. If the wavelength of a beam of electromagnetic radiation increases by a factor of 2, then its frequency must a.double. b.increase four times. c.decrease by half. d.remain constant

111. WhWhich of the following projection would demonstrate all of the sinuses? a.SMV b.lateral c. c. AP Caldwell PA d. Waters

112. What is the classification of barium sulfate as a contrast media? a.Radiopaque b.Radiolucent c.Isodense d.Negative contrast media

113. 100. What device is used to test accuracy of the x-ray timer? a.aluminum step wedge b.spinning top c.star pattern d.densitometer

114. wIn what hat position was this radiograph obtained? RAO LPO lateral. AP erect

115. The theory of radiation hormesis suggests that radiation doses below 10 rads are ____. a.carcinogenic b.beneficial c.lethal d.harmful

116. 15. The highest incidence of infection transmission can be attributed to which of the following? a.hands b.improper sterilization c.droplet contact d.improper linen disposal

117. 34.If after processing the films come out hot and brittle, the probable cause is: a.fixer over-replenishment b.inadequate developer replenishment c.dryer temperature too high Ded. developer temperature too high

118. 32. Which of the following measurements requires multiplication by the QF in order to attain it? a.rem b.rad c.R d.Gy

119. 147. An indirect means of spreading microorganisms in the OR is: a.by instruments b.by hand to hand contact c.by ventilation d.a. and b. e.a. and c.

120. The most commonly performed oblique projection of the foot is the: A.AP oblique in medial rotation B.AP oblique in lateral rotation C.PA oblique in medial rotation D.PA oblique Grashey method

121. 150. The navicular articulates anteriorly with which tarsal bone? a.talus b.bases of the 1st and 2nd metatarsals c.heads of the 1st and 2n metatarsals d.cuneiforms e.cuboid

122. 151. In order to measure potential difference, the voltmeter should be wired in a: a.series circuit b.parallel circuit c.series or parallel circuit

123. . LLetter “A” is pointing to: a. a. lateral mass b. b. zygoapophyseal joint c. c.superior articular process d. d. C2

124. The best way to hold patients who are unable to support themselves is to use a.restraining devices. b.family members. c.other hospital staff. d.technologists

125. 25. The greatest threat of occupational exposure arises from: a.Compton scatter b.Primary beam c.Thompson scatter d.photoelectric effect

126. 17. Which blood pressure indicates shock? a.110/80 b.160/110 c.80/60 d.none of the aforementioned

127. The term antrum of Highmore refers to the: a.frontal sinuses. b.ethmoid sinuses. c.maxillary sinuses. d.nasal cavity.

128. Which of the following is prominently shown "in profile" on an AP projection of the shoulder with the humerus in external rotation? A.lesser tubercle B.greater tubercle C.scapulohumeral joint D.acromioclavicular joint

129. 3. Decubitus ulcers: a.may be minimized by frequent turning b.are commonly called bedsores c.are caused by lack of oxygen to tissue d.are all of the aforementioned

130. 19. Elevated BUN and creatinine levels are markers of which of the following? a.patient age b.renal function c.small bowel obstruction d.all of the aforementioned

131. What is the milliamperage used during fluoroscopy? a.100 mA b.b. 50 mA c.c. 5 mA d.d. 1 mA

132. What is the difference, in degrees, between the infraorbitomeatal and orbitomeatal lines? a.10 degrees b.15 to 2 degrees c.7 to 8 degrees d.20 to 25 degrees

133. If a technologist is receiving 200 mR/hr standing 1 foot from the patient during fluoroscopy, what is his rate of exposure when he steps back to a distance of 2 feet from the patient? a.50 mR/hr b.74 mR/hr c.100 mR/hr d.175 mR/hr

134. 16. To demonstrate the sacroiliac joint with the patient supine, the affected side should be elevated: a.15 degrees b.25 degrees c.45 degrees d.60 degrees

135. Which of the following kV ranges should be used for an upper GI series using barium sulfate (single contrast study)? a.80 to 90 kV b.90 to 100 kV c.100 to 110 kV d.125 to 140 kV

136. An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is termed: A.scoliosis B.kyphosis C.lordosis D.scoliokyphosis

137. Bremsstrahlung x-rays are produced by ____ at the target. A.outer shell excitation. B.slowing electrons. C.K-shell interactions. D.L-shell interactions

138. Which term describes the leakage of contrast media from a vein into the surrounding tissues of the arm? a.Extravasation b.Filtration c.Exudation d.Micturition

139. A.The data on the personnel radiation monitoring report must always include the B.current exposure. C.cumulative annual exposure. D.skin dose. E.Both a and b

140. The fluoroscopic exposure control switch is always a(n) ____ type. A.rheostat B.automatic C.deadman D.on-off

141. Film is made with double emulsion to enhance film ____. a.sensitivity b.latitude c.contrast d.speed

142. What is another term for the pancreatic duct? a.Duct of Wirsung b.Hepatopancreatic duct c.Duct of Langerhans d.Ampulla of Vater

143. 15The medical term hematuria can be defined as: a.blood in the urine b.blood in the the stool c.blood in the spinal canal d.blood in the renal pelvis e.urine constituents in the blood

144. Which kVp selection would result in the most scattered x-rays in the image- forming beam? a.90 kVp b.75 kVp c.60 kVp d.50 kVp

145. The first component to receive power in the x-ray circuit is the ____. A..mA meter B.high voltage transformer C.rectifier D.autotransformer

146. 160. According to NCRP guidelines, at least how much filtration is required of an exposure room used primarily for examination of the GI tract? a.2.5 mm A1 b.0.0025 mm A1 c.1.5 mm Mo d.0.5 mm A1

147. The Mnemonic ABC is a shorthand expression for which of the following emergency procedures? a.Heimlich maneuver b.CPR c.Hemostasis d.Mouth-to-mouth resuscitation

148. Modern radiographic film base is made of ____. a.cellulose nitrate b.silver halide c.gelatin d.polyester

149. 161. Which of the following are examples of inherent filtration elements? a.collimator b.oil coolant c.aluminum inserts d.mirror

150. Dose in ____ is used to identify irradiation of patients. a.rems b.rads c.R d.Sv

151. The purpose of a grid is to achieve a.reduction of patient dose. b.extended tube life. c.improved image contrast. d.All of the above.

152. The normal creatinine level (diagnostic indication of kidney function) for an adult is: a.0.1 to 0.5 mg/dl. b.0.6 to 1.5 mg/dl. c.3 to 4.5 mg/dl. d.6 to 7.5 mg/dl

153. A transformer has 100 coils on the primary side and 300 coils on the secondary side. What will the voltage be on the secondary side if the primary side is supplied with 120 volts? A.100 V B.300 V C.360 V D.3600 V

154. How is the water-soluble contrast media eliminated following a myelogram? a.Withdrawn through a needle/syringe b.Remains in the spinal canal c.Excreted by the kidneys d.Excreted by the lungs

155. The process of the ethmoid bone containing many foramina is the: a.crista galli b.pterygoid process c.cribriform plate d.superior conchae

156. 42. Which of the following carpal bones is the most frequently fractured? a.hamate b.scaphoid c.trapezium d.pisiform

157. The reduction of radiation intensity due to scattering and absorption is called ____. A.reflection B.refraction C.attenuation D.dispersion

158. Which of the following techniques is most effective in preventing lung markings from obscuring the sternum? a.Use a high kV. b.Oblique as much as needed to not superimpose the sternum over the hilum region. c.Decrease the SID to magnify the sternum. d.Use a breathing technique

159. There is usually a ____ before the symptoms of acute radiation syndromes appear. A.latent period B.recovery period C.prolonged illness D.loss of hair

160. Which term describes the leakage of contrast media from a vein into the surrounding tissues of the arm? A.Extravasation B.Filtration C.Micturition D.Exudation

161. Which level of severity is the reaction of giant hives? a.Normal side effect b.Mild reaction c.Moderate reaction d.Severe reaction

162. A loss of consciousness due to reduced cerebral blood flow is termed: a.syncope. b.brachycardia. c.hypotension. d.angioedema.

163. A twisting of the intestine on its own mesentery is termed: A.intussusception. B.volvulus C.diverticulosis. D.enteritis

164. The principal radiation interactions within the human body are assumed to be A.indirect effects. B.direct effects. C.DNA damage. D.cell destruction.

165. The production of heat at the anode is directly proportional to A.rotor speed. B.filament current C.kVp. D.tube current.

166. The total destruction of microorganisms is accomplished through the use of: a.disinfectants b.sterilization c.germicides d.antiseptics

167. Which basic projection of the elbow best demonstrates the olecranon process in profile? a.AP b.Lateral c.Medial rotation oblique d.Lateral rotation oblique

168. What is the recommended treatment for extravasation? a.Give the patient diphenhydramine (Benadryl). b.Lay the patient down and elevate lower limbs. c.Increase IV fluids. d.Place a warm towel over the injection site

169. The fluoroscopic exposure control switch is always a(n) ____ type. a.rheostat b.automatic c.deadman d.on-off

170. What CR angulation is required for the AP oblique projection of the foot? a.CR is perpendicular to the image receptor b.10 degrees posterior c.15 to 20 degrees posterior d.5 to 7 degrees posterior

171. Where is bile formed? a.Gallbladder b.Duodenal mucosa c.Liver d.Pancreas

172. Where is the contrast media instilled during a myelogram? a.Subarachnoid space b.Epidural space c.Subdural space d.Spinal cord

173. In which of the four major quadrants of the abdomen would the cecum be found? a.Right upper quadrant b.Left upper quadrant c.Right lower quadrant d.Left lower quadrant

174. Which is the most commonly fractured carpal bone? a.Lunate b.Trapezium c.Scaphoid d.Hamate

175. Select the imaging system that provides the highest beam quality. a.single-phase, half-wave rectified b.high frequency c.three-phase, twelve-pulse d.single-phase, full-wave rectified