1. Airports, Airspace & ATC

2. Runway & Taxi Markings
What color are all runway markings?

3. Runway & Taxi Markings
What color are all runway markings?
White

4. Runway & Taxi Markings
What color are all taxiways, closed areas, hazardous areas and holding positions?

5. Runway & Taxi Markings
What color are all taxiways, closed areas, hazardous areas and holding positions?
Yellow

6. Taxiway Marking
Provides a visual cue to permit taxiing along a designated path. Marking may be enhanced on light-colored pavement by outlining with a black border.

7. Runway & Taxi Markings
What are the three types of usage that determine how a runway will be marked?

8. Runway & Taxi Markings
What are the three types of usage that determine how a runway will be marked?
Visual Runway
Nonprecision instrument runway
Precision instrument runway

9. Runway & Taxi Markings
How is a visual runway marked?

10. VISUAL RUNWAY Designation marking Centerline marking Optional marking
International commercial transport require threshold marking

11. VISUAL RUNWAY Optional Marking
4,000 ft or longer used by jet aircraft require aiming point marking
Side stripes may be added if necessary

12. Runway & Taxi Markings
How is a nonprecision instrument runway marked?

13. Runway & Taxi Markings How is a nonprecision instrument runway marked?
Designation marking
Centerline marking
Threshold markings
Aim point marker

14. Runway & Taxi Markings
How is a precision instrument runway marked?

15. Runway & Taxi Markings Designation marking Centerline marking
Threshold markings
Aim point marker
Touchdown zone marker

16. Runway & Taxi Markings
What is a displaced threshold?

17. Runway & Taxi Markings What is a displaced threshold?
A threshold that is not at the beginning of the paved runway

18. Runway & Taxi Markings
For what purposes can you use the paved area before a displaced threshold that is marked by arrows?

19. Runway & Taxi Markings
Available for taxi, takeoff and a landing rollout from the opposite direction but not for landing

20. Runway & Taxi Markings
For what are chevrons used?

21. Runway & Taxi Markings For what are chevrons used?
To show pavement areas aligned with the runway that are unusable for landing, takeoff and taxiing

22. Runway & Taxi Markings
What is the name of the bar that separates a runway that has a displaced threshold from a taxiway or an area marked by chevrons that precedes the runway

23. Runway & Taxi Markings
What is the name of the bar that separates a runway that has a displaced threshold from a taxiway or an area marked by cheverons that precedes the runway
Demarcation Bar

24. Runway & Taxi Markings
What color are surface painted location signs?

25. Runway & Taxi Markings What color are surface painted location signs?
Black background with yellow inscription

26. Runway & Taxi Markings
What color are mandatory instruction signs?

27. Runway & Taxi Markings What color are mandatory instruction signs?
White characters on a red background

28. 4-22 AIRPORT SIGNS HOLDING POSITIONS SIGNS
At runway / runway intersections
Do not cross unless clearance has been received.
4-22

29. AIRPORT SIGNS

30. AIRPORT SIGNS Edge of Protected Area for Runway
Identifies the boundary of the runway protected area
Used to judge when the aircraft is clear of the protected area.

31. AIRPORT SIGNS

32. AIRPORT SIGNS Edge of ILS Critical Area
Identifies the boundary of the ILS critical area.
Use this sign as a guide to judge when the aircraft is clear of the ILS critical area.

33. Airport Lighting
What type of Approach Light System are use on visual runway

34. Airport Lighting
None
ALS provide the basic means to transition from instrument flight to visual flight for landing. They will be used with precision and nonprecision runways.

35. Lighting
What color are taxiway centerline lights installed at some airports and used during low visibility conditions?

36. Taxiway Centerline Lights
Green in-pavement lights to assist taxiing aircraft in darkness and in low visibility conditions.
They emit a steady green light.
Taxiway Centerline Lights guide ground traffic under low visibility conditions and during darkness.
They are located along the taxiway centerline in a straight line on straight portions, on the centerline of curved portions, and along designated taxiing paths in portions of runways, tamp, and apron areas.

37. Lights
Describe Runway End Identifier Lights and when they are effective?

38. Description
Consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights located laterally on each side of the runway threshold to provide rapid and positive identification of the approach end of a particular runway

39. Effective Effective for
Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting
Identification of a runway which lacks contrast with surrounding terrain

40. Effective
Identification of a runway during reduced visibility

41. Lights
Describe land and hold short lights.

42. Land and Hold Short Lights
In-pavement white, pulsating lights installed across the runway at the hold short point.
They consist of three in-pavement steady yellow burning lights.
They are installed at holding positions on taxiways in order to increase the conspicuity of the holding position in low visibility conditions.
They may also be installed to indicate the locatiof an intersecting taxiway during periods of darkness.
When used for hold points, they are co-located with geographic position markings.

43. Lights
When ON departing pilots and pilots cleared to land using the full length of the runway should ignore the lights

44. Lights
How can you identify a rotating beacon at a military airport?

45. Lights How can you identify a rotating beacon at a military airport?
Two whites and a green indicate a military airport

46. Lights
What color do you see when above the glide slope on a tri-colored approach slope indicator?

47. Lights
What color do you see when above the glide slope on a tri-colored approach slope indicator?
Amber

48. Wake Turbulance
In what configuration does an aircraft produce the most wake turbulence?

49. Wake Turbulence
In what configuration does an aircraft produce the most wake turbulence?
Clean, Slow and Heavy

50. Wake Turbulence
When departing behind a large aircraft, what wind condition required the maximum amount of caution?

51. Wake Turbulence
When departing behind a large aircraft, what wind condition required the maximum amount of caution?
A light quartering tailwind

52. Wake Turbulence
When a small aircraft makes an intersection take off on the same runway behind a large aircraft, how long an interval is ATC required to apply?

53. Wake Turbulence
When a small aircraft makes an intersection take off on the same runway behind a large aircraft, how long an interval is ATC required to apply?
3 minutes
Can this be waived?

54. Wake Turbulence
Can this be waived?
Yes, with a specific pilot request

55. Airports
What is the difference between Unicom and Multicom?

56. Airports
Unicom is a nongovernment air/ground radio communication station which provides airport advisories.

57. Airports
Multicom is a self-announced procedure at airports without operating control towers that are not served by an FSS or Unicom

58. Airports
What frequencies are usually used for Unicom?

59. Airports What frequencies are usually used for Unicom?
and 123.0
What is the Multicom frequency?

60. Airports
What is the Multicom frequency?
122.9

61. Transponder
Above what altitude must you have Mode C unless you are within 2,500 feet of the surface?

62. Transponder
Above what altitude must you have Mode C unless you are within 2,500 feet of the surface?
10,000 feet

63. Airspace
What is the minimum ceiling and visibility for operating within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, C, D and E airspace designated for an airport?

64. Airspace
1000 feet and 3 miles visibility

65. Class A
What are the upper and lower limits of Class A Airspace?

66. Class A
Fl 180 to FL 600

67. Class C
What is the normal upper limit of Class C airspace?

68. Class C
4000 feet AGL

69. Class D
What is the normal upper limit of Class D airspace?

70. Class D
2500 feet AGL

71. Class E
On a sectional chart, how is class E airspace to the surface depicted?

72. Class E
Broken Magenta line

73. Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?
A. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).
B. Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules.
C. Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder.

74. Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?
B. Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules.

75. Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?
A. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).

76. B. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
C. May conduct operations under visual flight rules.

77. Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?
B. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

78. Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?
A. The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

79. B. The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating.
C. The pilot in command must hold at least a student pilot certificate.

80. Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?
A. The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

81. What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within Class B airspace? A transponder
A. with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability.

82. B. is required for airplane operations when visibility is less than 3 miles.
C. with 4096 code capability is required except when operating at or below 1,000 feet AGL under the terms of a letter of agreement.

83. What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within Class B airspace? A transponder
A. with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability.

84. What is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?
A knots.
B knots.
C knots.

85. What is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?
A knots.

86. Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport within Class C or D airspace is
A knots.
B knots.
C knots.

87. Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport within Class C or D airspace is
B knots.

88. If the minimum safe speed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed prescribed in 14 CFR part 91, the
A. aircraft may be operated at that speed.

89. B. operator must have a Letter of Agreement with ATC.
C. operator must have a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) with the controlling agency.

90. If the minimum safe speed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed prescribed in 14 CFR part 91, the
A. aircraft may be operated at that speed.

91. Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?
A. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

92. B. Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility.
C. Prior to landing, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with an ATC facility.

93. Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?
A. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

94. Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?
A. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder.

95. B. Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility.
C. Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility.

96. Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?
C. Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility

97. At some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings under special VFR are
A. authorized only if the ground visibility is observed to be at least 3 SM.

98. B. not authorized.
C. authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.

99. At some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings under special VFR are
C. authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.

100. When operating an airplane for the purpose of takeoff or landing within Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required?
A feet beneath clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.

101. B. Remain clear of clouds, and the flight visibility must be at least 1 NM.
C. Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.

102. When operating an airplane for the purpose of takeoff or landing within Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required?
C. Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.

103. To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required?
A. The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.

104. B. The Class D airspace must be specifically designated as a night SVFR area.
C. The pilot must hold an instrument rating, but the airplane need not be equipped for instrument flight, as long as the weather will remain at or above SVFR minimums.

105. To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required?
A. The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.

106. What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the control tower at that airport is not in operation?
A. Class D, which then becomes Class E.
B. Class D, which then becomes Class C.
C. Class B.

107. What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the control tower at that airport is not in operation?
A. Class D, which then becomes Class E.

108. When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to
A. 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

109. B. 30 SM, and be transponder equipped.
C NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.

110. When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to
A. 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

111. Excluding Hawaii, the vertical limits of the Federal Low Altitude airways extend from
A. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL.
B. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL.
C feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL.

112. Excluding Hawaii, the vertical limits of the Federal Low Altitude airways extend from
A. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL.

113. To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating your position, you must have an operative VHF
A. transmitter and receiver, and an operative VOR receiver.
B. transmitter and receiver.
C. transmitter and receiver, and an operative ADF receiver.

114. To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating your position, you must have an operative VHF
B. transmitter and receiver.

115. (Refer to figure 51.) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft
A. passes the red symbol shown at the top of the figure.

116. B. is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol.
C. is on the dashed-line side of the middle symbol.

117. (Refer to figure 51.) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft
B. is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol.

118. (Refer to figure 51.) The red symbol at the top would most likely be found
A. at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.
B. near the approach end of ILS runways.
C. upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control.

119. (Refer to figure 51.) The red symbol at the top would most likely be found
A. at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.

120. (Refer to figure 51.) While clearing an active runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which symbol?
A. Top red.
B. Bottom yellow.
C. Middle yellow.

121. (Refer to figure 51.) While clearing an active runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which symbol?
B. Bottom yellow.

122. (Refer to figure 51.) Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft?
A. Top red.
B. Bottom yellow.
C. Middle yellow.

123. (Refer to figure 51.) Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft?
A. Top red.

124. How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
A. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.

125. B. The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.
C. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

126. How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
C. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

127. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft if during a night flight you observe a steady white light and a rotating red light ahead and at your altitude? The other aircraft is
A. approaching you head-on.
B. headed away from you.
C. crossing to your left.

128. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft if during a night flight you observe a steady white light and a rotating red light ahead and at your altitude? The other aircraft is
B. headed away from you.

129. When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being used for navigation on VFR flights, it is important to
A. exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR from other directions.

130. B. make 90° left and right turns to scan for other traffic.
C. pass the VOR on the right side of the radial to allow room for aircraft flying in the opposite direction on the same radial.

131. When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being used for navigation on VFR flights, it is important to
A. exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR from other directions.

132. Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence.
A. The greatest vortex strength is produced when the generating airplane is heavy, clean, and fast.

133. B. The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll.
C. Vortex generation begins with the initiation of the takeoff roll.

134. Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence.
B. The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll.

135. During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by
A. maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout.

136. B. being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.
C. extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point.

137. During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by
B. being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.

138. Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?
A. Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.

139. B. Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course.
C. Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.

140. Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?
A. Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.

141. To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?
A. At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point.

142. B. Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down.
C. Past the point where the jet touched down.

143. To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?
C. Past the point where the jet touched down.

144. With respect to vortex circulation, which is true?
A. Helicopters generate downwash turbulence, not vortex circulation.

145. B. Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip vortices generated by airplanes.
C. The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is flying fast.

146. With respect to vortex circulation, which is true?
B. Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip vortices generated by airplanes.

147. Which is true with respect to vortex circulation?
A. When vortex circulation sinks into ground effect, it tends to dissipate rapidly and offer little danger.

148. B. The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.
C. Helicopters generate downwash turbulence only, not vortex circulation.

149. Which is true with respect to vortex circulation?
B. The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.