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Who Wants to be a Genius? Final Exam Review. _________ are the longest subdivisions of geologic time. 1.Eons 2.Periods 3.Eras 4.Epochs.

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Presentation on theme: "Who Wants to be a Genius? Final Exam Review. _________ are the longest subdivisions of geologic time. 1.Eons 2.Periods 3.Eras 4.Epochs."— Presentation transcript:

1 Who Wants to be a Genius? Final Exam Review

2 _________ are the longest subdivisions of geologic time. 1.Eons 2.Periods 3.Eras 4.Epochs

3 Which mountain range formed during the Paleozoic Era?. 1.Alps 2.Appalachians 3.Himalayans 4.Rocky Mountains

4 How do species adapt to a changing environment? 1.By staying the same 2.By dying off 3.By evolving 4.By natural selection

5 In which Era did dinosaurs evolve? 1.Paleozoic 2.Precambrian 3.Cenozoic 4.Mesozoic

6 What is the process by which organisms with characteristics suited to their environments will survive and reproduce? 1.Organic evolution 2.Natural selection 3.Artificial selection 4.Transformation

7 What may have caused the Ice Age that occurred at the end of the Paleozoic Era? 1.Plate tectonics 2.Mass extinction 3.Asteroid impact 4.Global warming

8 In which Era did the Alps form? 1.Mesozoic 2.Precambrian 3.Cenozoic 4.Paleozoic

9 Changes in trilobite exoskeletons occurred because of: 1.changing environments 2.artificial selection 3.competition for survival 4.both 1 and 3

10 Reptiles evolved to withstand the dryer climate of the _________ Era. 1.Mesozoic 2.Precambrian 3.Cenozoic 4.Paleozoic

11 ________ are marked by major, striking, and worldwide changes in the types of fossils present. 1.Eons 2.Periods 3.Eras 4.Epochs

12 Humans, marine mammals, and reptiles were all present during this Era. 1.Mesozoic 2.Paleozoic 3.Precambrian 4.Cenozoic

13 Pangaea formed at the end of the __________ Era. 1.Mesozoic 2.Paleozoic 3.Cenozoic 4.Precambrian

14 In which era did angiosperms first exist? 1.Paleozoic 2.Cenozoic 3.Mesozoic 4.Precambrian

15 Plates move apart at ______ boundaries 1.Convergent 2.Stable 3.Divergent 4.Transform

16 Scientists have observed that the plates move at rates ranging from 1 cm to 12 cm per ______. 1.Century 2.Decade 3.Day 4.Year

17 In order to complete a convection current, the rising material must eventually __________ Earth. 1.Stop inside 2.Cool 3.Sink back into 4.Warm

18 Continental drift states that continents have moved ______to their current location. 1.Vertically 2.Slowly 3.Quickly 4.Very little

19 The Glomar Challenger provided support for the theory of plate tectonics by providing___. 1.High-altitude photos of existing continents 2.Samples of plant life from mid-ocean ridges 3.Samples of older rock found far from mid-ocean ridges 4.Direct measurements of the movement of continents

20 _______ currents inside Earth might drive plate motion. 1.Vertical 2.Convection 3.Horizontal 4.None of the above

21 A ______ forms where two oceanic plates collide. 1.Hot spot 2.Subduction zone 3.Transform boundary 4.Rift valley

22 The Andes mountain range of South America was formed at a _________. 1.Convergent boundary 2.Divergent boundary 3.Hot spot 4.Transform boundary

23 The boundary between two plates moving together is called a _____________. 1.Divergent boundary 2.Convergent boundary 3.Transform boundary 4.Lithosphere

24 The youngest rocks on the ocean floor are located ____. 1.Near continents 2.At mid-ocean ridges 3.Far from mid-ocean ridges 4.Near Asia

25 The result of plate movement can be seen at _______. 1.Abyssal plains 2.Ocean margins 3.Plate centers 4.Plate boundaries

26 _____ are formed when two continental plates collide. 1.Volcanoes 2.Strike-slip faults 3.Mountain ranges 4.Rift valleys

27 The Great Rift Valley in Africa is a ________. 1.Mid-ocean ridge 2.Divergent boundary 3.Convergent boundary 4.Transform boundary

28 Matching ____ on different continents are evidence for continental drift. 1.River systems 2.Rock structures 3.Weather patterns 4.Wind systems

29 The crust and upper mantle make up Earth’s _______. 1.Lithosphere 2.Asthenosphere 3.Core 4.Continents

30 The presence of the same ___ on several continents supports the hypothesis of continental drift. 1.Fossils 2.Rocks 3.Neither 1 nor 2 4.Both 1 and 2

31 Plates of the lithosphere float on the ______. 1.Crust 2.Asthenosphere 3.Core 4.Atmosphere

32 The hypothesis that continents have slowly moved to their current locations is called_____. 1.Continental drift 2.Continental slope 3.Magnetic reversal 4.Convection

33 A lack of explanation for continental drift prevented many scientists from accepting that a single supercontinent called ___ once existed. 1.Glomar 2.Glossopteris 3.Pangaea 4.Wegener

34 Plates slide past one another at ________. 1.Subduction zones 2.Transform boundaries 3.Convection currents 4.Divergent boundaries

35 Seafloor spreading occurs because ____________. 1.New material is being added to the asthenosphere 2.Earthquakes break apart the ocean floor 3.Sediments accumulate at the area of spreading 4.Molten material beneath Earth’s crust rises to the surface

36 Scientists believe that differences in ____ cause hot, plastic-like rock in the asthenosphere to rise toward Earth’s surface. 1.Density 2.Magnetism 3.Weight 4.Composition

37 Wegener believed that the continents originally broke apart about _____ years ago million million million million

38 Active volcanoes are most likely to form at _________. 1.Transform boundaries 2.Divergent boundaries 3.The center of continents 4.Convergent oceanic- continental boundaries

39 The ____ is (are) an example of a transform boundary. 1.Appalachian Mountains 2.Himalaya 3.Mid-Atlantic Ridge 4.San Andreas Fault

40 One plate is forced under another in a(n) _________. 1.Convergent boundary 2.Subduction zone 3.Mid-ocean ridge 4.Asthenosphere

41 A(n) _______ is an underwater mountain chain. 1.Continental drift 2.Subduction zone 3.Convergent boundary 4.Mid-ocean ridge

42 How many seismographs are needed to accurately locate an earthquake epicenter? 1.One 2.Two 3.Three 4.It doesn’t matter

43 ______ is the force that squeezes rocks together. 1.Elastic limit 2.Shear 3.Tension 4.Compression

44 When the force on rocks is great enough, they break, producing vibrations called ___. 1.Faults 2.Earthquakes 3.Strains 4.Stresses

45 Secondary waves ____ when they hit the liquid outer core. 1.Slow down 2.Stay the same 3.Stop 4.Speed up

46 _____ faults are caused by tensional forces. 1.Normal 2.Strike-slip 3.Reverse 4.Elastic

47 The most destructive seismic wave are _____. 1.Primary waves 2.Secondary waves 3.P-waves 4.Surface waves

48 The amount of energy an earthquake releases is its ____. 1.Seismology 2.S-wave 3.Magnitude 4.Focus

49 The name of the instrument that records seismic activity is the ______. 1.Seismograph 2.Seismogram 3.Seismologist 4.Seismoperameter

50 Which type of fault is least likely to form mountains? 1.Normal fault 2.Reverse fault 3.Shear fault 4.Strike-slip fault

51 Scientists discovered changes in Earth’s interior by studying ___. 1.Tsunamis 2.Tides 3.Changes in seismic waves 4.All of the above

52 People who study earthquakes and seismic waves. 1.Oceanographers 2.Seismologists 3.Shakologist 4.Seismographer

53 The slowest seismic waves are _____. 1.Surface waves 2.Secondary waves 3.Primary waves 4.They all travel the same speed

54 Most earthquakes happen ____. 1.Without warning 2.In areas where earthquakes have occurred in the past 3.Along plate boundaries 4.All of the above

55 ____ is the force that causes plates to move sideways past each other. 1.Tension 2.Shear 3.Elastic limit 4.Compression

56 Once the elastic limit of rocks is passed, they break and move along surfaces called _____. 1.Faults 2.Earthquakes 3.Strains 4.Stresses

57 _____ faults are caused by compressional forces. 1.Normal 2.Strike-slip 3.Reverse 4.Elastic

58 As a person moves further from the epicenter of an earthquake, the difference in arrival times of P and S waves ________. 1.Stays the same 2.Becomes larger 3.Is reduced 4.Is unnoticeable

59 Along a(n) ____ fault, rock above the fault surface moves downward in relation to rock below the fault surface. 1.Normal 2.Reverse 3.Elastic 4.Strike-slip

60 The _____ waves are the first to reach a seismograph after an earthquake. 1.Surface 2.Secondary 3.Primary 4.Tsunami

61 At a(n) ___ fault, rocks on either side of the fault surface move past each other. 1.Normal 2.Elastic 3.Reverse 4.Strike-slip

62 ____ faults are caused by shear forces. 1.Normal 2.Strike-slip 3.Reverse 4.Elastic

63 All of the following will improve safety factors during an earthquake EXCEPT to _____. 1.Study an area’s earthquake history 2.Stand next to a window 3.Make sure hot-water heater is held securely in place 4.Take heavy objects down from high shelves

64 The point in Earth’s interior where the energy release of an earthquake occurs is the ___. 1.Focus 2.Epicenter 3.Fault 4.Inner core

65 Primary waves ____ when they hit the liquid outer core. 1.Slow down 2.Stay the same 3.Stop 4.Speed up

66 ___ is the force that pulls rocks apart. 1.Tension 2.Shear 3.Elastic limit 4.Compression

67 Along a(n) ___ fault, rock above the fault surface moves upward in relation to rock below the fault surface. 1.Normal 2.Reverse 3.Elastic 4.Strike-slip

68 The _____ is the largest layer of Earth. 1.Crust 2.Mantle 3.Outer core 4.Inner core

69 The _____ is the outermost layer of Earth. 1.Crust 2.Mantle 3.Outer core 4.Inner core

70 The San Andreas Fault in California is an example of a(n) ____ fault 1.Normal 2.Reverse 3.Strike-slip 4.Compression

71 Most of the destruction during an earthquake is caused by _____. 1.Primary waves 2.Secondary waves 3.Surface waves 4.Tsunamis

72 Which statement best describes how rocks are classified as igneous, sedimentary, or metamorphic? 1.By their color 2.By how old they are 3.By how they were formed 4.By where they are found

73 The word metamorphic means _________. 1.“produced by heat” 2.“changed under extreme pressure” 3.“change of form” 4.All of the above

74 Rocks that are produced when magma or lava cools and hardens are called ________. 1.igneous rocks 2.metamorphic rocks 3.sedimentary rocks 4.all of the above

75 The process that removes unwanted elements from metals. 1.Recycling 2.Mining 3.Smelting 4.Fission

76 ________ types of minerals have been identified. 1.Over one million 2.Over 10,000 3.Less than 50 4.More than 4000

77 Rocks are foliated or nonfoliated depending on their ________ 1.hardness 2.streak 3.layers or lack of layers 4.cleavage or fracture

78 The rock cycle shows each rock ___________. 1.on a continuing journey it was originally formed it is in recent times it was millions of years ago

79 Which can occur in the rock cycle? 1.Sedimentary rock is heated and squeezed to form metamorphic rock. 2.Igneous rock is eroded to form metamorphic rock. 3.Metamorphic rock melts to form sedimentary rock. 4.None of the above

80 Fossil fuels include ________. 1.natural gas 2.coal 3.oil 4.all of the above

81 Broken pieces of what types of rock are deposited into layers and cemented together to form sedimentary rock? 1.igneous 2.sedimentary 3.metamorphic 4.all of the above

82 A mineral that contains something that can be useful and sold after processing. 1.ore 2.gem 3.rock 4.mineral

83 Classified as igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic 1.mineral 2.rock cycle 3.gem 4.rock

84 A model that shows how rocks are recycled from one type to another. 1.ore 2.gem 3.rock cycle 4.mineral

85 A naturally occurring, inorganic solid with a definite structure and composition. 1.rock cycle 2.mineral 3.rock 4.ore

86 The most abundant fossil fuel is _____________. 1.natural gas 2.oil 3.coal 4.all of the above

87 A rare mineral that can be cut and polished, giving it a beautiful appearance. 1.gem 2.mineral 3.rock 4.ore

88 Remains or trace of a once-living plant or animal 1.crystals 2.sedimentary rock 3.metamorphic rock 4.fossil

89 Rocks that form when magma or lava cools. 1.sedimentary rocks 2.igneous rocks 3.crystals 4.metamorphic rocks

90 Rocks formed when older rocks are heated and/or squeezed. 1.metamorphic rocks 2.sedimentary rocks 3.crystals 4.igneous rocks

91 Rocks formed when pieces of rocks, plant and animal matter, or dissolved minerals gather into layers. 1.fossils 2.metamorphic rocks 3.sedimentary rocks 4.crystals

92 Solid that has a repeating pattern of atoms 1.rock 2.crystal 3.fossil 4.foliate

93 The amount of a fossil fuel that can be extracted at a profit using current technology. 1.Renewable resource 2.Reserve 3.Inexhaustible resource 4.Ore

94 Which mineral has a hardness of 1? 1.talc 3.calcite 4.pyrite

95 Which mineral has a hardness of 10? 1.marble 2.amethyst 3.diamond 4.slate

96 Which statement applies to minerals? 1.More than 4000 have been identified 2.You can find them in your salt shaker 3.Each has a unique arrangement of atoms 4.All of the above

97 Which properties are not commonly used to identify minerals? 1.Reaction with acid 2.Mass and size 3.Specific gravity 4.Cleavage and fracture

98 A thick, black liquid formed from the buried remains of microscopic marine organisms. 1.Alcohol 2.Oil 3.Gangue 4.None of the above

99 The size of mineral crystals in igneous rocks _________. 1.helps classify the rocks 2.depends on the temperature at which magma forms 3.depends on the mineral content of magma 4.all of the above

100 This is usually formed of two or more minerals. 1.gem 2.rock 3.ore 4.crystal

101 This shows how rocks change from one type to another. 1.Rock cycle 2.Crystal growth 3.Mohs scale 4.Cleavage and fracture

102 Solids that have a repeating pattern of atoms are called _________. 2.intrusive 3.coal 4.crystals

103 Igneous rocks that form when magma cools below the crust inside Earth are called_______. 1.Organic rock 2.Chemical rock 3.Intrusive rock 4.Extrusive rock

104 Igneous rocks that form when magma cools on Earth’s surface are called_______. 1.Organic rock 2.Chemical rock 3.Intrusive rock 4.Extrusive rock

105 When the Sun, Moon, and Earth are in a line, the tidal range is 1. unpredictable 2. unchanged 3. least 4. greatest

106 This occurs when the Moon moves directly between the Sun and Earth and throws a shadow on Earth. 1. Lunar eclipse 2. Solar eclipse 3. Waxing gibbous 4. Waning gibbous

107 The phase of the moon that immediately precedes the new Moon is the 1. first quarter 2. waxing crescent 3. third quarter 4. waning crescent

108 What causes the water to go back into the sea after a wave breaks onto the shore? 1. gravity 2. friction 3. density 4. Coriolis effect

109 The yearly orbit of Earth around the Sun is called its 1. tilt 2. ellipse 3. rotation 4. revolution

110 Dark-colored, relatively flat regions of the Moon’s surface that were formed when interior lava filled large basins are called 1. volcanoes 2. craters 3. maria 4. sedimentary rock

111 The presence of maria on the Moon indicates that 1. few meteorites have hit the Moon 2. the moon has a dense atmosphere 3. the Moon contains lava beneath its surface 4. many meteorites have hit the Moon recently

112 This is the tide we have when the Sun, Moon, and Earth form a 90° angle. 1. Neap 2. Normal 3. Fall 4. Spring

113 This is when the Sun’s rays strike Earth at their northernmost and southernmost positions. 1. Winter and summer solstices 2. Spring and fall equinoxes 3. Lunar eclipses 4. Solar eclipses

114 Summer occurs on the hemisphere of Earth that is 1. tilted away from the Sun 2. tilted toward the Sun 3. turned toward the Sun 4. turned away from the sun

115 Earth’s yearly orbit around the Sun 1. axis 2. revolution 3. rotation 4. ellipse

116 A round, three-dimensional object and model of Earth 1. ellipse 2. sphere 3. waxing 4. revolution

117 The changing appearances of the Moon from Earth 1. Moon phases 2. waning 3. ellipse 4. rotation

118 Moon phase in which none of the lighted surface of the Moon can be seen from Earth 1. New moon 2. Full moon 3. First quarter 4. Third quarter

119 When the Sun’s rays strike Earth directly at the equator 1. Solstice 2. Equinox 3. Neap tide 4. Spring tide

120 The turning of Earth on its axis 1. sphere 2. revolution 3. rotation 4. Moon phases

121 1. New moon 2. Full moon 3. First quarter 4. Third quarter

122 1. Waning gibbous 2. Waning crescent 3. Waxing crescent 4. Waxing gibbous

123 1. Waxing gibbous 2. Waxing crescent 3. Waning gibbous 4. Waning crescent

124 1. Third quarter 2. First quarter 3. Full moon 4. New moon

125 1. Waxing crescent 2. First quarter 3. Waning crescent 4. Waxing gibbous

126 Venus and Earth both experience this because of heat trapped by their atmospheres. 1. Slow rotation 2. Cloud cover 3. Cooling effect 4. Greenhouse effect

127 These are pieces of rock that strike the surface of a moon or planet. 1. Meteor showers 2. Meteorites 3. Meteors 4. Meteoroids

128 This took place in the center of the cloud of dust and gas to create energy that formed the sun. 1. Solar wind 2. Evaporation 3. Gravity 4. Nuclear fusion

129 Most asteroids are located in an area between the orbits of these two planets. 1. Mars and Jupiter 2. Mercury and Venus 3. Jupiter and Saturn 4. Earth and Mars

130 The Great Red Spot, a continuous storm, is located on this planet. 1. Uranus 2. Saturn 3. Neptune 4. Jupiter

131 This is the fourth planet from the Sun. 1. Jupiter 2. Mercury 3. Mars 4. Venus

132 The solid, icy part of the comet. 1. Coma 2. Tail 3. Nucleus

133 Johannes Kepler discovered that the orbits of planets are this shape. 1. Elliptical 2. Circular 3. Parabolic 4. Spherical

134 Most of the frozen ice in this part of the comet vaporizes after the comet’s many trips around the Sun. 1. Heart 2. Nucleus 3. Tail 4. Coma

135 These are small pieces of rock that enter Earth’s atmosphere and burn up. 1. Asteroids 2. Meteors 3. Meteoroids 4. Comets

136 Evidence suggests that these originate in the Oort Cloud located beyond the orbit of Pluto. 1. Asteroids 2. Comets 3. Meteors 4. Meteoroids

137 People once believed that all planets and stars orbited around this body. 1. Earth 2. Mercury 3. Mars 4. Venus

138 Small pieces of rock moving through space. 1. Asteroids 2. Meteoroids 3. Comets 4. Meteorites

139 The eighth planet from the Sun. 1. Saturn 2. Pluto 3. Neptune 4. Uranus

140 1. The solar wind 2. The Oort Cloud 3. Jupiter’s gravitational pull 4. Earth’s atmosphere A comet develops a tail for this reason.

141 1. Nucleus 2. Coma 3. Core 4. Tail This is the bright cloud that forms around the solid part of a comet from vaporized gases and released dust.

142 1. Copernicus 2. Galileo 3. Kepler 4. Columbus He published the Sun- centered model of the solar system in 1543.

143 1. Gas, ice, and dust 2. Gravel 3. Asteroids 4. Solar wind This was left over from the formation of the Sun and formed the planets.

144 1. Heat from the Sun 2. Gravity 3. The Oort Cloud 4. Earth’s atmosphere This causes a comet to develop a coma.

145 The positions of the constellations appear to change throughout the year because of this. 1. The constellations revolve around Earth 2. The Sun revolves around Earth 3. Earth revolves around the Moon 4. Earth revolves around the Sun

146 This makes Sirius the brightest star in the night sky. 1. Parallax 2. Apparent magnitude 3. Color 4. Absolute magnitude

147 The distances to nearby stars can be measured by using this. 1. Color 2. Absolute magnitude 3. Temperature 4. Parallax

148 About 90 percent of the stars in space are this type of star. 1. Main sequence 2. Nebula 3. White dwarf 4. Giant

149 This is what a main sequence star becomes after it uses up the hydrogen in its core. 1. Nebula 2. Black hole 3. Supernova 4. Giant

150 The Sun produces energy by fusing hydrogen atoms into _____atoms in its core. 1. Oxygen 2. Carbon 3. Helium 4. Iron

151 Our Sun is not______. 1. In a galaxy 2. A main sequence star 3. A part of a binary system 4. A medium hot star

152 This type of galaxy has a shape similar to a football. 1. Elliptical 2. Barred spiral 3. Irregular 4. Normal spiral

153 All of the following are true of the Milky Way except that it_______ 1. Is a member of the Local Group 2. Has more than 800 billion stars 3. Is 100,000 light-years across 4. Is a spiral galaxy

154 This observation supports the Big Bang theory of the formation and expansion of the universe. 1. Shorter light wavelengths 2. Red shift 3. Blue-violet shift 4. “big crunch”

155 Although Rigel’s is greater than Serius’, Rigel does not look as bright in the night sky. 1. Parallax 2. Absolute magnitude 3. Apparent magnitude 4. Black hole

156 A region so dense that nothing, including light, can escape its gravity field. 1. Black hole 2. Supernova 3. Supergiant 4. White dwarf

157 These are dark, cooler areas on the Sun’s surface. 1. Coronas 2. Sunspots 3. Prominences 4. Solar flares

158 What type of galaxies are the Clouds of Magellan that orbit the Milky Way? 1. Elliptical 2. Barred spiral 3. Irregular 4. Normal spiral

159 1. Red 2. Blue 3. Yellow 4. White What color are the coolest stars in the sky?

160 1. Local Group 2. Galaxy 3. Constellation 4. Parallax This is a group of stars, gas, and dust held together by gravity.

161 1. Constellations 2. Star cluster 3. Galaxies 4. Binaries These are patterns of stars in the sky.

162 1. Nebula 2. Dwarf 3. Black hole 4. Giant This is the large cloud of gas and dust that a star begins as.

163 1. Intense magnetic fields 2. Electricity 3. Earth’s orbit around the Sun 4. Too much heat Prominences, flares, and sunspots are all caused by this.

164 The number of years in the sunspot cycle There is no pattern

165 1. Main sequence 2. Red giant 3. White dwarf 4. Supergiant Our Sun’s temperature and absolute magnitude place it in this range of the H-R diagram.

166 1. Binary 2. Ternary 3. Closed 4. Single The type of star system where two stars orbit each other.

167 1. Red 2. Yellow 3. White 4. Blue The color of the hottest stars in space.

168 1. Solar flares 2. Prominences 3. Photospheres 4. Coronas Huge arching columns of gas caused by the intense magnetic field associated with Sunspots.

169 What is the distance traveled divided by the time taken to travel the distance? 1. Average speed 2. Mass 3. Speed 4. Momentum

170 When you graph the motion of an object, you put ___ on the horizontal axis and ___ on the vertical axis. 1. speed, time 2. distance, time 3. time, distance 4. time, speed

171 1. the truck plus the car 2. the truck 3. the car 4. the truck times the car When a toy truck collides into a toy car, the momentum of ___ is the same before and after the collision.

172 1. The amount of matter in an object 2. The tendency of an object to change its motion 3. The amount of force acting on an object 4. How hard it is to stop an object What is momentum a measure of?

173 Inertia _______. 1. depends on direction 2. depends on momentum 3. resists a change in motion of an object 4. both 1 and 2

174 What is the speed you read from your speedometer? 1. Instantaneous speed 2. Negative speed 3. Positive speed 4. Distance speed

175 When an object with a momentum of 40 kg x m/s collides with an object with a momentum of 0 kg x m/s, what is the total momentum after the collision? kg x m/s kg x m/s kg x m/s 4. 0 kg x m/s

176 If an object is moving at a constant velocity and you want to change its momentum, you would change its _____. 1. time 2. distance 3. speed 4. mass

177 To describe velocity, you need to know ____. 1. speed and direction 2. speed and time 3. direction and acceleration 4. speed and acceleration

178 When object A collides with object B and bounces back, its final momentum is ___ its initial momentum. 1. Greater than 2. Less than 3. In the same direction as 4. In the opposite direction of

179 A bicycle with a mass of 50 kg is moving at 5 m/s. What is its momentum? kg x m/s kg x m/s kg x m/s kg x m/s

180 You travel 300 km in 3 h. What is your speed? km/h km/h km/h km/hr

181 What kind of acceleration do you have if your speed changes from 20 km/h to 10 km/h? 1. negative 2. positive 3. forward 4. backward

182 Acceleration involves a change in ____. 1. time 2. direction 3. speed 4. both 2 and 3

183 If you exert a force on an object in motion you will change its ____. 1. mass 2. momentum 3. weight 4. inertia

184 Acceleration is a change in __. 1. velocity 2. speed 3. displacement 4. position

185 On a speed-time graph, a horizontal line shows the change in speed is ___

186 You are on a bike going 30 km/h and another bike passes you going in the opposite direction at 30 km/h. Do both bikes have the same velocity and why? 1. No. Different bikes 2. No. Going different directions 3. Yes. Same speed

187 Describe the motion of a car with an acceleration of -5 m/s 2 1. The car is slowing down 2. The car is speeding up 3. The car is going forward 4. The car is going backwards

188 If you walk 6 m north, 4 m east, 6 m south, then 4 m west and return back to the exact spot you started, what is your displacement? m m 3. 0 m 4. 8 m

189 2 marbles hit each other. They bounce off of each other and roll away, but eventually stop. Does this violate the law of conservation of momentum? 1. Yes. They stopped 2. No. Momentum is still there, but friction caused them to stop

190 A car goes from 80 km/h to 20 km/h in 2 h. What is the acceleration? km/h km/h km/h km/h 2

191 Why does a feather fall through the air more slowly than a brick? 1. Gravity 2. Inertia 3. Air resistance 4. Momentum

192 What is the reaction force to Earth’s gravity when a diver jumps off a diving board? 1. The diver’s legs push against the board 2. Friction between the diver and water slows the diver 3. Air resistance slows the diver 4. The diver pulls Earth up

193 1. 20 kg kg kg kg A 200-N force gives an object an acceleration of 10 m/s 2. The mass of the object is ____.

194 1. remains the same 2. eventually disappears 3. decreases 4. increases Air resistance ___ as you move faster.

195 Forces that are equal in size but opposite in direction are ____. 1. inertial forces 2. frictional forces 3. balanced forces 4. net forces

196 Whenever a body is in motion, there is always ___ to oppose the motion. 1. friction 2. gravity 3. acceleration 4. inertia

197 According to Newton’s second law of motion, ____ 1. F=mv 2. F=m/a 3. a=F net /m 4. F=ma

198 If gravity did not affect the path of a horizontally thrown ball, the ball would ____. 1. go straight up 2. fall straight down 3. follow a curved path 4. travel horizontally

199 With action-reaction forces, ___ 1. The forces are created at the same time 2. Both forces already existed 3. The reaction force is created first 4. The action force is created first

200 The upward force on an object falling through the air is ___ 1. inertia 2. terminal velocity 3. gravity 4. air resistance

201 A 500-N force acts on a 50-kg object. The acceleration of the object is ___ m/s m/s m/s m/s 2

202 Newton’s first law of motion states that an object remains at rest unless a ___ force acts on it. 1. balanced 2. net 3. gravitational 4. frictional

203 The statement “for every action, there is an equal but opposite reaction” is a statement of ___. 1. Newton’s first law 2. Newton’s second law 3. Newton’s third law 4. The law of conservation of momentum

204 The force you have to overcome to start on object moving is ___. 1. air resistance 2. sliding friction 3. rolling friction 4. static friction

205 The relationship among force, mass, and acceleration is stated in ___. 1. Newton’s first law of motion 2. Newton’s second law of motion 3. Newton’s third law of motion 4. The law of conservation of momentum

206 The tendency of an object to resist any change in its motion. 1. inertia 2. speed 3. momentum 4. friction

207 If you triple the net force on an object, the acceleration will __. 1. stay the same 2. double 3. triple 4. decrease

208 To keep a cart rolling downhill, the force of gravity must be greater than the _____ force. 1. unbalanced 2. balanced 3. frictional 4. net

209 A push or pull that one object exerts on another. 1. Force 2. Gravity 3. Inertia 4. Momentum

210 A rocket launching is an example of Newton’s _______. 1. first law 2. second law 3. third law 4. law of conservation of momentum

211 This figure shows a _______________ 1. compressional wave 2. decibel scale 3. electromagnetic spectrum 4. transverse wave

212 Point A in the figure is called a _____________ 1. amplitude 2. crest 3. rarefaction 4. trough

213 Point B in the figure is called a ____________ 1. compression 2. crest 3. diffraction 4. trough

214 The amplitude of a compressional wave depends on the _________ 1. density of material in compressions and rarefactions 2. distance between crests and troughs 3. number of wavelengths that pass by a point each second 4. vibration of electric and magnetic parts

215 Which of the following correctly states the equation for calculating wave speed? 1. wave speed=frequency/wavelength 2. wave speed=wave length/frequency 3. wave speed=wave length + frequency 4. wave speed=wave length x frequency

216 The SI unit for frequency is the ________ 1. decibel 2. degree 3. hertz 4. meter

217 Light waves change direction as a result of _____________ 1. diffraction 2. reflection 3. refraction 4. reverberation

218 The directional change of the light waves occurs because ________ 1. light waves travel faster through air than water 2. light waves travel faster through water than air 3. the angle of reflection of waves always equals the angle of incidence 4. waves carrying less energy produce light with lower intensity

219 Sound waves produced by a vibrating object are ________ 1. compressional waves 2. electromagnetic waves 3. seismic waves 4. transverse waves

220 Loudness is the human perception of sound wave ___________ 1. frequency 2. intensity 3. pitch 4. speed

221 The part of the ear that amplifies sound vibrations is the __________ 1. cochlea 2. middle ear 3. inner ear 4. outer ear

222 The process of detecting objects by bouncing sounds off them is called ________ 1. diffraction 2. echolocation 3. reverberation 4. vibration

223 If the distance between the crest and trough of a wave is 2.4 m, the wave’s amplitude is m m m m

224 Sound intensity is measured in _________ 1. decibels 2. hertz 3. infrared waves 4. nanometers

225 The brightness of a light is determined by _________ 1. air temperature 2. intensity of light waves 3. wavelength 4. wave speed

226 The shortest radio waves are called __________ 1. gamma rays 2. infrared waves 3. microwaves 4. ultraviolet waves

227 The electromagnetic waves with the highest energy are _______ 1. gamma rays 2. infrared waves 3. sound waves 4. ultraviolet waves

228 How much of the energy emitted by the Sun reaches Earth? 1. All 2. A small fraction 3. Most 4. Nearly half

229 This figure shows an illustration of a _________ 1. compressional wave 2. electromagnetic wave 3. radio wave 4. reverberation

230 The wavelength is the distance from _________ 1. compression to compression 2. compression to rarefaction 3. crest to crest 4. crest to trough

231 The more energy a wave carries, the greater is its __________ 1. amplitude 2. density 3. frequency 4. pitch

232 If angle i increases slightly, angle r will ___________ 1. decrease 2. disappear 3. increase 4. remain the same

233 The “normal” shown is a line that makes an angle of _____ degrees degrees degrees degrees

234 What is the human pain threshold for sound? dB dB dB dB

235 Theaters and concert halls often place curtains on the walls in order to _________ 1. absorb the energy of sound waves 2. increase sound reflection 3. prevent refraction 4. raise the intensity of sound

236 Light travels fastest in ______ 1. empty space 2. fresh water 3. solids 4. seawater

237 The intensity of light waves is a measure of the _____ 1. distance the waves have traveled 2. energy carried by the waves 3. motion of air particles 4. speed of the waves

238 In order for the human body to make vitamin D, some exposure to what kind of light waves is necessary? 1. Infrared waves 2. Microwaves 3. Ultraviolet waves 4. X-rays

239 As the frequency of a sound gets higher, so does its ____ 1. intensity 2. loudness 3. pitch 4. wavelength

240 All of the following are transverse waves except _____ 1. gamma rays 2. radio waves 3. sound waves 4. x rays

241 The electromagnetic waves with the highest frequency are ______ 1. gamma rays 2. microwaves 3. radio waves 4. visible light

242 _________ in the retina of the eye detect light and send signals to the brain. 1. Rods and cones 2. Hair cells 3. Lenses 4. Fluids

243 This is the transparent layer of the eye through which light first passes. 1. Retina 2. Lens 3. Pupil 4. Cornea

244 This is the flexible part of the eye that changes shape to enable the eye to focus on objects that are near or far 1. Retina 2. Lens 3. Pupil 4. Cornea

245 The material in which a wave travels is called __________. 1. water 2. air 3. opaque 4. a medium

246 A brick wall is an example of a(n) ____________ material. 1. transparent 2. opaque 3. translucent 4. medium

247 If an object looks green, it reflects ________ waves. 1. all but green 2. blue 3. red 4. green

248 What is the name of the line drawn perpendicular to the surface where a light ray strikes? 1. Normal 2. Incoming ray 3. Reflected ray 4. Vertical

249 What kind of image is formed by a plane mirror? 1. Inverted and not reversed 2. Inverted and reversed 3. Upright and not reversed 4. Upright and reversed

250 What kind of image is formed by a convex mirror? 1. Inverted and smaller 2. Inverted and larger 3. Upright and smaller 4. Upright and larger

251 If light waves change speed when they pass from one medium into another, the light will be ______. 1. diffracted 2. reflected 3. refracted 4. separated

252 Which one of the following is thick in the middle and thin at the edges? 1. Convex lens 2. Concave lens 3. Concave mirror 4. Plane mirror

253 How many lenses does a basic microscope use? 1. two 2. four 3. three 4. one

254 Which of the following uses a lens and two mirrors? 1. Refracting telescope 2. Reflecting telescope 3. Binoculars 4. Microscope

255 Which type of instrument uses an objective lens and an eyepiece lens? 1. Eyeglasses 2. Microscope 3. Reflecting telescope 4. Magnifying glass

256 These can be used for different types of surgery. 1. Lenses 2. Lasers 3. Diffractions 4. Refractions

257 Waxed paper is an example of a __________ material. 1. translucent 2. transparent 3. opaque 4. medium

258 The law of reflection states that the angle of ______ is equal to the angle of ______. 1. incidence-reflection 2. reflection-incidence 3. normal-incidence 4. normal-reflection

259 This type of reflection comes from a rough surface. 1. Angle of incidence 2. Diffuse 3. Regular 4. Angle of reflection

260 The primary colors of pigment 1. Red, blue, green 2. Red, blue, yellow 3. Magenta, cyan, yellow 4. Magenta, cyan, white

261 Reflecting telescopes use a ______ instead of an objective lens to gather light from a distant object. 1. Concave mirror 2. Convex mirror 3. Plane mirror 4. Transparent mirror

262 1. Convex mirror 2. Concave mirror 3. Concave lens 4. Convex lens

263 1. Concave lens 2. Convex lens 3. Plane mirror 4. Concave mirror

264 1. Plane mirror 2. Convex lens 3. Concave mirror 4. Plane lens

265 1. Convex mirror 2. Concave mirror 3. Convex lens 4. Concave lens

266 1. Convex mirror 2. Concave mirror 3. Convex lens 4. Concave lens

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