1. “LEARJET 33V CONTACT DEPARTURE.”
DEPARTURE PROCEDURES
“LEARJET 33V CONTACT DEPARTURE.”

2. Departure Procedures
To effectively separate departing aircraft from other aircraft, it is essential that radar controllers understand the procedures for and requirements of applicable orders.

3. Procedures Include the following items in initial IFR clearances:
The departure airport when issuing a departure clearance for relay to an aircraft by an FSS, dispatcher, etc.

4. Procedures Items in the initial IFR clearances (Cont’d):
Clearance limit
Specify the destination airport when practicable, even though it is outside controlled airspace.
Issue short-range clearances as provided for in any procedures established for their use.
For Air Force One (A1) operations, do not specify the destination airport.
PHRASEOLOGY: “DESTINATION AS FILED”

5. Procedures Items in the initial IFR clearances (Cont’d):
Departure procedures
Specify direction of takeoff/turn or initial heading/azimuth to be flown after takeoff as follows:
− At locations with Air Traffic Control (ATC) service, specify these items as necessary.
PHRASEOLOGY: “FLY RUNWAY HEADING” or “TURN LEFT/RIGHT” or “DEPART (direction or runway)”

6. SPECIFY INITIAL HEADING
“DELTA FORTY-FIVE, TURN RIGHT HEADING ONE EIGHT ZERO.”
TR-10-4

7. Procedures Departure procedures
Specify direction of takeoff/turn or initial heading/azimuth to be flown after takeoff as follows (Cont’d):
− At locations without ATC service, but within a Class E surface area, specify the previous items as necessary.
Obtain/solicit the pilot’s concurrence concerning these items before issuing them in a clearance.
Phraseology: “VERIFY RIGHT TURN AFTER DEPARTURE WILL ALLOW COMPLIANCE WITH LOCAL TRAFFIC PATTERN.” Or
“VERIFY THIS CLEARANCE WILL ALLOW COMPLIANCE WITH TERRAIN OR OBSTRUCTION AVOIDANCE.”

8. Procedures Departure procedures
Specify direction of takeoff/turn or initial heading/azimuth to be flown after takeoff as follows (Cont’d):
− At all other airports do NOT specify direction of takeoff/turn after takeoff.
→ If it is necessary to specify an initial heading/azimuth to be flown after takeoff, issue the initial heading/azimuth so as to apply ONLY within controlled airspace.

9. ENTERING CONTROLLED AIRSPACE
“CHEROKEE SEVEN ONE MIKE, ENTER CONTROLLED AIRSPACE, HEADING ONE THREE ZERO.”

10. RESPONSE ITEM
When issuing a clearance to an aircraft at a location with ATC service, specify the _____ and initial heading.
speed in climb
direction of turn
rate of climb

11. Assigning SIDS Assign a SID (including transition if necessary).
Assign a Preferential Departure Route (PDR), or the route filed by the pilot, only when:
A SID is not established for the departure route to be flown, or
The pilot has indicated he/she does not wish to use a SID
− Pilots not wishing to use a SID are expected to advise ATC.

12. Assigning SIDS (Cont’d)
If it is necessary to assign a crossing altitude that differs from the SID altitude, repeat the changed altitude to the pilot for emphasis.
Specify altitudes when they are not included in the SID

13. Assigning SIDS (Cont’d)
Route of flight. Specify one or more of the following:
Airway, route, course, heading, azimuth, arc, or vector
The routing the pilot can expect if any part of the route beyond a short-range clearance limit differs from that filed.
“…EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE VIA (airways, routes or fixes)”.

14. Assigning SIDS (Cont’d)
Altitude. Use one of the following in the order of preference listed:
To the maximum extent possible, Air Force One will be cleared unrestricted climb to:
− 9,000’ AGL or higher
− If unable 9,000’ AGL or higher, then the highest available altitude below 9,000’ AGL.

15. Assigning SIDS (Cont’d)
Assign the altitude requested by the pilot
Assign an altitude, as near as possible to the altitude requested by the pilot, and
− Inform the pilot of when to expect clearance to the requested altitude unless instructions are contained in the specified SID, or
→ If the requested altitude is not expected to be available, inform the pilot of what altitude can be expected and when/where to expect it.

16. Communications Failure
In the event of a two-way radio communications failure:
VFR conditions
− The pilot shall continue the flight under VFR conditions and land as soon as practicable.
IFR conditions
− The pilot shall continue the flight at the highest of the following altitudes or flight levels for the route segment being flown:
→ The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance received
→ The minimum altitude for IFR operations
→ The altitude or flight level that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance

17. Communications Failure
If the expected altitude is the highest of the preceding choices, the pilot should begin a climb to that expected altitude at the time or fix specified in the clearance, except when:
− Pilot has proceeded beyond the specified fix or
− Time designated in the clearance has expired

18. Departure Restrictions
Assign departure restrictions when necessary to separate departures from other traffic or to restrict or regulate the departure flow:
Clearance Void Times
Holds For Release (HFRs)
Release Times
A Clearance Void Time is a time specified by an ATC unit at which a clearance ceases to be valid unless the aircraft concerned has already taken action to comply therewith.

19. Departure Restrictions
When issuing clearance void times at airports not served by control towers:
Provide alternative instructions requiring pilots to advise ATC of their
intentions no later than 30 minutes after the clearance void time if not
airborne.
The facility delivering a clearance void time to a pilot shall issue a time check.

20. PHRASEOLOGY
“CLEARANCE VOID IF NOT OFF BY (clearance void time), and if required, IF NOT OFF BY (clearance void time), ADVISE (facility) NOT LATER THAN (time) OF INTENTIONS. TIME (time in hours, minutes, and the nearest quarter minute).”
Example:
Departure Release: “N56LD, released for departure, clearance void if not off by 1200, if not off by 1200, advise Broward Approach not later than 1205 of intentions. Time 1155 and one half.”

21. Departure Restrictions
A Hold For Release (HFR) is used by ATC to delay an aircraft for traffic management reasons, i.e., weather, traffic volume, etc. HFR
instructions (including departure delay information) are used to inform a pilot or controller (either directly or through an authorized relay) that an IFR departure clearance is not valid until a release time or additional instructions have been received.
PHRASEOLOGY: “HOLD FOR RELEASE, EXPECT (time in hours and/or minutes) DEPARTURE DELAY.”

22. Departure Restrictions
A Release Time is a departure restriction issued to a pilot (either directly or through authorized relay) to separate a departing aircraft from other traffic.
Release times shall be issued to pilots when necessary to specify the earliest time an aircraft may depart
The facility issuing a release time to a pilot shall include a time check.

23. PHRASEOLOGY
“(Aircraft identification) RELEASED FOR DEPARTURE AT (time in hours and/or minutes),
and if required,
IF NOT OFF BY (time), ADVISE (facility) NOT LATER THAN (time) OF INTENTIONS.
TIME (time in hours, minutes, and nearest quarter minute).”

24. VFR Release of IFR Aircraft
Release an IFR aircraft requesting a VFR departure after obtaining approval (if necessary) from the facility/sector responsible for issuing the IFR clearance.
Inform the pilot of:
− The proper frequency
− If appropriate, where or when to contact the facility responsible for issuing the clearance
Phraseology: “VFR DEPARTURE AUTHORIZED. CONTACT (facility) ON (frequency) AT
(location or time if required) FOR CLEARANCE.”

25. VFR Release of IFR Aircraft (Cont’d)
If the facility/sector responsible for issuing the clearance is unable to issue a clearance:
 Inform the pilot.
 Suggest that the delay be taken on the ground.
If the pilot insists upon taking off VFR, inform the facility/sector of:
 Pilot’s intentions and, if possible,
 VFR departure time.

26. Overdue/Unreported Aircraft
IFR traffic that could be affected by an overdue or unreported aircraft shall be restricted or suspended unless radar separation is used.
 The facility responsible shall restrict or suspend IFR traffic for a period of 30 minutes following:

27. Overdue/Unreported Aircraft
The facility responsible shall restrict or suspend IFR traffic for a period of 30 minutes following:
 Release time and, if issued, the Clearance Void Time
 Time at which approach clearance was delivered to the pilot
 Expect further clearance time delivered to the pilot
 Arrival time over the NAVAID serving the destination airport
 Current estimate (either the control facility’s or the pilot’s, whichever is later) at the:
Appropriate en route NAVAID or fix
NAVAID serving the destination airport

28. Traffic Restrictions (Cont’d)
 After the 30-minute traffic suspension period has expired:
 Resume normal air traffic control if the pilots of other aircraft concur.
 Concurrence must be maintained for a period of 30 minutes after the suspension period has expired.
NOTE: Even though a Clearance Void Time is issued to a pilot, failure to meet that void time does not necessarily mean the pilot never departed. The aircraft could have encountered an emergency condition on departure, and might be airborne but below radio/radar
coverage.

29. TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT OVERVIEW

30. Traffic Management
Traffic Management is a process to meter traffic in and out of airports, sectors, airways, etc. based on weather, equipment failures, accidents, runway configurations or any other situation that may impact traffic at a given point.
 National traffic management initiatives are generated by the Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ATCSCC).
 Local traffic management initiatives may be generated by the overriding ARTCC TMU coordinated through the ATCSCC.

31. Traffic Management
Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT) is a computer generated time issued in conjunction with a ground delay program to a given airport.
 To the extent possible, plan ground movement of aircraft destined to the affected area/airport so that flights are sequenced to depart as near as possible to the assigned EDCT;
- No earlier than 5 minutes prior to, or later than 5 minutes after the assigned EDCT.
 Do not release aircraft on their assigned EDCT if a Ground Stop (GS) applicable to that aircraft is in effect, unless approval has been received from the originator of the ground stop.

32. Traffic Management
 A ground stop is a process whereby an immediate constraint can be placed on system demand. It may be used when an area, center,
sector, or airport experiences a significant reduction in capacity.
 Controllers should not release an aircraft affected by the ground stop unless specifically released by the originator of the ground stop.

33. TRAFFIC SITUATION DISPLAY (TSD)

34. RESPONSE ITEM
When it is NOT included in the SID, specify the ___________.
altitude
heading
C. route of flight

35. RESPONSE ITEM
In the event of a lost or overdue aircraft, suspend or restrict IFR traffic for a period of ______ minutes. 15 30 45

36. RESPONSE ITEM
In the event of a two-way radio communications failure in VFR conditions, the pilot shall continue the flight under VFR and______.
continue to the destination airport
land as soon as practicable
return to the departure airport

37. RESPONSE ITEM
Select the correct phraseology to release an aircraft through a Flight Service Station.
“(acid), RELEASED.”
“ADVISE (acid), RELEASED FOR DEPARTURE.”
“(acid), RELEASED FOR DEPARTURE.”

38. RESPONSE ITEM
If an IFR aircraft refuses to take a delay on the ground and insists on departing VFR, inform the facility/sector of _______.
pilot’s intentions
the VFR departure time
A and B

39. Prominent Obstructions
 Departures and missed approach aircraft (within 40 miles of the antenna) may be vectored below the minimum IFR altitude (within controlled airspace) if separation from prominent obstructions displayed on the radar scope is provided as follows:

40. Prominent Obstructions
If the flight path is 3 miles or more from the obstruction and the aircraft is climbing to an altitude at least 1,000 feet above the obstruction:
 Vector the aircraft to maintain 3 miles radar separation from the obstruction until the aircraft reports leaving an altitude above the obstruction.

41. OBSTRUCTION 3 MILES OR MORE FROM FLIGHT PATH
“BARON FIVE FIVE VICTOR, TURN LEFT HEADING ZERO SIX ZERO, MAINTAIN THREE THOUSAND.” G
N1855V

42. Prominent Obstructions (Cont’d)
If the flight path is less than 3 miles from an obstruction and the aircraft is climbing to an altitude at least 1,000 feet above the obstruction:
 Vector the aircraft to increase lateral separation from the obstruction until the:
3-mile minimum is achieved, or
Aircraft reports leaving an altitude above the obstruction
NOTE: If the controller observes the aircraft with a valid Mode C leaving an altitude above the obstruction, no pilot report is needed.

43. OBSTRUCTION LESS THAN 3 MILES FROM FLIGHT PATH
N1855V G
“BARON FIVE FIVE VICTOR, TURN RIGHT HEADING TWO TWO ZERO, VECTOR FOR OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE.”

44. Prominent Obstructions (Cont’d)
At those locations where Diverse Vector Areas (DVAs) have been established:
 Terminal radar facilities may vector aircraft below the Minimum Vector
Altitude (MVA)/Minimum IFR Altitude (MIA) within those areas and along those routes described in facility directives.

45. RESPONSE ITEM
The distance that must be maintained from an obstruction until the aircraft reports leaving an altitude above the obstruction is ______ mile(s).
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3

46. Successive Departures
 Separate aircraft departing from the same airport/heliport or adjacent airports/heliports using the following minima provided:
 Radar identification with the aircraft will be established within 1 mile of the takeoff runway/helipad end,
and
 Courses will diverge by 15 degrees or more.
- Between aircraft departing the same runway/helipad or parallel runways/helicopter takeoff courses separated by less than 2,500 feet:
-Use 1 mile if courses diverge immediately after departure.

47. Successive Departures (Cont’d)
NOTE: This procedure does not apply when a small aircraft is taking off from an intersection on the same runway behind a large aircraft or when an aircraft is departing behind a heavy jet/B757.

48. SUCCESSIVE DEPARTURES
1 MILE
15 DEGREES OR MORE

49. SUCCESSIVE DEPARTURES (Cont’d)
1 MILE
15° OR MORE
LESS THAN 2,500 FEET

50. Successive Departures (Cont’d)
− Between aircraft departing from diverging, nonintersecting runways:
→ Authorize simultaneous takeoffs if the runways diverge by degrees or more.

51. NONINTERSECTING RUNWAY DEPARTURES
15° OR MORE

52. Successive Departures (Cont’d)
− Between aircraft departing from diverging, intersecting runways and/or helicopter takeoff courses:
→ Authorize takeoff of a succeeding aircraft when the preceding aircraft has passed the point of runway and/or takeoff course
intersection, and runway or
takeoff courses diverge by 15
degrees or more.

53. INTERSECTING RUNWAY DEPARTURES
15° OR MORE

54. Successive Departures (Cont’d)
- Between aircraft departing in the same direction from parallel runways/helicopter takeoff courses:
- Authorize simultaneous takeoffs if the centerlines/takeoff courses are separated by at least 2, feet and courses diverge by degrees or more.
 Consider aircraft performance characteristics when applying initial separation to successive departing aircraft.

55. PARALLEL RUNWAY DEPARTURES
15° OR MORE

56. RESPONSE ITEM
Separate aircraft departing from same or adjacent airports/heliports by 1 mile provided radar identification is established within 1 mile of the takeoff runway/helipad end and courses will diverge by _____ degrees or more.
A. 15
B. 30
C. 45

57. RESPONSE ITEM
Separate aircraft departing the same runway/helipad or parallel runways/helicopter takeoff courses separated by less than 2,500 feet by _____ mile(s) if courses diverge immediately after departure.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3

58. RESPONSE ITEM
Authorize simultaneous takeoffs if nonintersecting runways diverge by ______ degrees or more.
A. 15
B. 30
C. 45

59. PARALLEL RUNWAYS SEPARATED BY AT LEAST 2,500 FEET
APPROACH COURSE
MISSED APPROACH COURSE
MINIMUM OF 2,500 FEET
30 DEGREES OR MORE
DEPARTURE COURSE
APPROACH COURSE
MISSED APPROACH COURSE
MINIMUM OF 2,500 FEET
30 DEGREES OR MORE H
DEPARTURE COURSE

60. DIVERGING NONINTERSECTING RUNWAYS
MISSED APPROACH COURSE
APPROACH COURSE
RUNWAY EDGES DO NOT TOUCH
15 DEGREES OR MORE
30 DEGREES OR MORE
DEPARTURE COURSE

61. QUESTION
A departure may be released when an arrival is 2 or more miles from touchdown and separation will increase to 3 miles within _______ minute(s) after takeoff. 1
ANSWER