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MS I Spring Final Review 2016
Matt Parker, omsII
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Which of the following describes the facilitated positional release sequence?
Neutral position, activating force, move into direction of dysfunction Neutral position, activating force, move into direction of barrier Direction of ease, activating force, direction of restriction Direction of restriction, activating force, direction of ease 19
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Which of the following divisions of the ANS is associated with “craniosacral outflow”?
Enteric Parasympathetic Sympathetic 20
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Ach, Nicotinic, Norepinephrine (NE) NE, Muscarinic, ACh
The SYMPATHETIC preganglionic neurotransmitter is _____, which synapses with _____ receptors. The subsequent postganglionic neurotransmitter is _____. ACh, Nicotinic, ACh Ach, Nicotinic, Norepinephrine (NE) NE, Muscarinic, ACh 19
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The maintenance of a pool of neurons in a state of partial or sub threshold excitation is:
Activation Depolarization Facilitation Hyperpolarization Inhibition 20
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Somatovisceral reflex Viscerosomatic reflex Viscero-viscero reflex
Passive movement of an inflamed knee joint that increases both heart rate and blood pressure is an example of a: Somato-somato reflex Somatovisceral reflex Viscerosomatic reflex Viscero-viscero reflex 20
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Parsympathetic innervation to the testes comes from:
Greater Splanchnic nerve Pelvic Splanchnic nerves Vagus nerve Paravertebral Ganglia 20
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Where would you expect to find TART findings in a male patient with testicular cancer?
L1-L2 20
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VISCEROSOMATIC REFLEX CHART
VISCEROSOMATIC REFLEX CHART. If you get nothing else out of this review, GO TO THIS VIDEO and learn how to draw this quick chart. It will save you tons of headache. ://
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A patient comes to your office complaining of heartburn and acid reflux. You would expect to find which of the following involved ganglia? Celiac Inferior Mesenteric Superior Mesenteric 20
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The ___________ is not treated using the mesenteric release technique because it doesn’t have a mesentery. Ascending Colon Descending Colon Small Intestine Transverse Colon 20
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All of the following are true concerning Chapman’s points EXCEPT:
They are thought to represent viscero-somatic reflexes They are discreetly palpable nodules 2-3 mm in diameter They are used more for diagnosis than treatment in current clinical practice Upon palpation they give rise to a characteristic radiating pain or autonomic phenomena 20
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Spinous process of T11 Spinous process of T12 Tip of the left 11th rib
A 21 y/o male presents to the emergency room complaining of intense abdominal pain that began 4 hours prior. The pain started as a diffuse periumbilicar pain that is now localized in the RLQ. You suspect appendicitis. Where would you find the classic Chapman’s point for this condition? Spinous process of T11 Spinous process of T12 Tip of the left 11th rib Tip of the right 12th rib 20
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“High Yield” Chapman’s points
ANTERIOR = Diagnostic POSTERIOR = Therapeutic Appendix—tip of the 12th rib Ascending colon—right lateral thigh Descending colon—left lateral thigh Prostate/Broad ligament—posterior IT band Eye—lateral humerus Bladder—Periumbilical Kidney—1” lateral, 1” superior to umbilicus Adrenals—Superior to Kidney points Sinus—1st ICS Differentiate between stomach points GO TO THIS VIDEO and learn how to draw this quick chart.
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Which of the following does NOT drain into the Thoracic Duct?
Left Eye Lower lobe of the left lung Right leg Upper lobe of the left lung 20
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Right lung and Left lower lobe
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The fundamental unit of the lymphatic system is:
Anchoring filaments Lymphangion Overlapping endothelial cells Sarcomere 20
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The first major recognition by the medical community of the benefits of OMT occurred following the use of lymphatic techniques to treat the victims of the: 1918 Spanish Flu Bubonic Plague Chernobyl Disneyland anti-vaxxer measles outbreak 20
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The correct order of treating the lymphatics is:
Thoracic inlet, thoracic pump, thoracic diaphragm release Thoracic inlet, pedal pump, distal to proximal lower extremity Pedal pump, pelvic diaphragm release, thoracic pump Thoracic inlet, thoracic diaphragm release, proximal to distal upper and lower extremities 20
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ORDER of treatments Open up bottle neck (restriction) points—Thoracic inlet, thoracic diaphragm, pelvic diaphragm, craniocervical diaphragm Always start proximal and work distally
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The overall result of the mechanical rib raising technique is:
Decreased sympathetics Increased parasympathetics Balanced autonomics Decreased parasympathetics 20
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All of the following are ABSOLUTE contraindications to lymphatic techniques except:
Anuresis Cancer Lack of patient consent Necrotizing fasciitis 20
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The ankle is least stable in _____, predisposing to _____ ankle sprains.
Dorsiflexion, inversion Plantar flexion, inversion Dorsiflexion, eversion Plantar flexion, eversion 20
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Which of the following would you not counsel a patient with an ankle sprain to do?
Brace Ice Absolute rest Elevate Compression 20
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Anterior talofibular ligament Calcaneofibular ligament
A 16 y/o male presents to your office complaining of left ankle pain since last night’s football game. While stabilizing the tibia you grasp the calcaneus and exert an anterior force. There is more movement with this maneuver in the left ankle when compared to the right. You suspect injury to which of the following structures? Achilles tendon Anterior talofibular ligament Calcaneofibular ligament Deltoid ligament 20
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Lachman’s Anterior drawer McBurney’s Thomas Thompson’s
A 34 y/o presents to your office with a R ankle injury after a CrossFit workout. With the patient kneeling on the table you squeeze the gastrocnemius, which produces no plantar flexion motion of the foot. What is the name of this provocative test? Lachman’s Anterior drawer McBurney’s Thomas Thompson’s 20
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KNOW your provocative tests – names, what you are testing, how to set them up.
Ankle anterior drawer—ATF Thompson—Achilles Thomas—Psoas Patrick—Hip pathology Straight Leg—nerve root compression Neer’s—supraspinatus Jobe’s—supraspinatus Apprehension—shoulder stability (specifically anterior dislocation) Cross-over—AC joint Speed’s—Biceps, LONG HEAD Scapular slide—scapular dyskinesia
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Grade 1 strain Grade 1 sprain Grade 2 sprain Grade 2 strain
A 34 y/o presents to your office with a R ankle injury after a CrossFit workout. With the patient kneeling on the table you squeeze the gastrocnemius, which produces no plantar flexion motion of the foot. Which of the following best describes the injury? Grade 1 strain Grade 1 sprain Grade 2 sprain Grade 2 strain Grade 3 sprain Grade 3 strain 20
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Which of the following movments is NOT addressed in the Spencer’s 7 techniques?
Extension External rotation Flexion Internal rotation 20
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Codman’s exercises are indicated for:
Rotator cuff tear Shoulder separation Frozen shoulder Supraspinatus tendinitis 20
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A type _____ acromion digs into the _____ muscle and puts it at most risk for injury.
III, subscapularis III, supraspinatus II, infraspinatus I, supraspinatus 20
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Additional Sports Medicine Pearls
Know sensory dermatomes Know DTR’s Know muscle actions, especially of the Rotator cuff muscles Supraspinatus = abduction Infraspinatus/teres minor = external rotation Subscapularis = internal rotation Triceps = extension Anterior deltoid, pect. Major = flexion Lat. Deltoid = abduction Pect. Minor/lat/teres major = adduction
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