Grade 11 Objective 5.

Grade 11 Objective 5

1. During an investigation, students accelerated boxes using
1 During an investigation, students accelerated boxes using different forces and then determined the masses of the boxes. What is the mass in grams of a box that requires 0.1 newton to make it accelerate 2 m/s2? A g B g C g D g

Students conducting an investigation on forces pushed a box across a smooth floor using different amounts of force. The students collected the following data: 2 Which of the following calculated values would be the same for all 4 trials? A Acceleration B Power C Speed D Work Trials Mass of box (kg) Distance Box is Moved (m) Time (s) 1 15 kg 5 m 30 s 2 25 s 3 15 s 4 5 s

3. A ball moving at 30 m/s has a momentum of 15 kg·m/s. The. mass
3 A ball moving at 30 m/s has a momentum of 15 kg·m/s. The mass of the ball is — A kg B kg C kg D kg

4. How much work is performed when a 50 kg crate is pushed 15 m
4 How much work is performed when a 50 kg crate is pushed 15 m with a force of 20 N? F J G J H 1,000 J J 15,000 J

5. If a force of 100 newtons was exerted on an object and no work
5 If a force of 100 newtons was exerted on an object and no work was done, the object must have — A accelerated rapidly B remained motionless C decreased its velocity D gained momentum

6. The weight lifter used a force of 980 N to raise the barbell over
6 The weight lifter used a force of 980 N to raise the barbell over her head in 5.21 seconds. Approximately how much work did she do in raising the barbell? F J G J H 2,000 J J 10,000 J

7. A mechanic used a hydraulic lift to raise a 12,054 N car 1. 89 m
7 A mechanic used a hydraulic lift to raise a 12,054 N car 1.89 m above the floor of a garage. It took 4.75 s to raise the car. What was the power output of the lift? A W B W C W D 30,294 W

Electrically Powered Bicycle
Acceleration of an Electrically Powered Bicycle 8 According to this graph, what was the bicycle’s acceleration between 6 and 10 seconds? A m/s 2 B m/s 2 C m/s 2 D m/s 2

9. An advertisement claims that a certain truck has the most powerful
9 An advertisement claims that a certain truck has the most powerful engine in its class. If the engine has more power, which of the following can the truck’s engine do, compared to every other engine in its class? F Produce fewer emissions G Operate more efficiently H Perform work faster J Accelerate longer

10. What is the net force exerted on a 90
10 What is the net force exerted on a 90.0 kg race-car driver while the race car is accelerating from 0 to 44.7 m/s in 4.50 s? F 9.8 N G 20 N H 201 N J 894 N

11 Starting from rest at the center of a skating rink, two skaters push off from each other over a time period of 1.2 s. What is the force of the push by the smaller skater? F 16 N G 32 N H 88 N J 100 N

12. A horizontal force of 600 N is used to push a box 8 m across a
12 A horizontal force of 600 N is used to push a box 8 m across a room. Which of these variables must be known to determine the power used in moving the box? A The weight of the box B The potential energy of the box C The time it takes to move the box D The length of the box

13. The speed of sound in human tissue is about 1600 m/s. If an
13 The speed of sound in human tissue is about 1600 m/s. If an ultrasound pulse takes 1.5 × 10 – 5 s to travel through a tissue, what is the thickness of the tissue? F 2.4 km G 2.4 m H 24 cm J 24 mm

14. A 0. 500 kg ball with a speed of 4. 0 m/s strikes a stationary 1
14 A kg ball with a speed of 4.0 m/s strikes a stationary 1.0 kg target. If momentum is conserved, what is the total momentum of the ball and target after the collision? A 0.0 kgm/s B 0.5 kgm/s C 1.0 kgm/s D 2.0 kgm/s

15. The table contains data for two wrecking balls being used to
15 The table contains data for two wrecking balls being used to demolish a building. What is the difference in momentum between the two wrecking balls? F 300 kgm/s G 200 kgm/s H 150 kgm/s J 0 kgm/s Mass (kg) Velocity (m/s) 100 3 150 2

16. A woman lifts a 57-newton weight a distance of 40 centimeters each
16 A woman lifts a 57-newton weight a distance of 40 centimeters each time she does a particular exercise. It takes her 0.60 second to lift the weight. How much power does she supply for lifting the weight one time? F 24 W G 34 W H 38 W J 95 W

17 The 500 g cart is moving in a straight line at a constant speed of
2 m/s. Which of the following must the 250 g toy car have in order to maintain the same momentum as the cart? F An acceleration of 5 m/s2 for 2 seconds G A potential energy of 20 J H A constant velocity of 4 m/s J An applied force of 5 N for 5 seconds

18. The table above shows experimental data collected when four cars
18 The table above shows experimental data collected when four cars moved along a straight-line path. According to these data, which car moved with a constant acceleration of 2 m/s2? A Car Q B Car R C Car S D Car T Velocity (m/s) Time (s) Car Q Car R Car S Car T 1 2 4 3 6 8 5 10

19. A cyclist moves at a constant speed of 5 m/s
19 A cyclist moves at a constant speed of 5 m/s. If the cyclist does not accelerate during the next 20 seconds, he will travel — A 0 m B 4 m C 50 m D 100 m

20. A 1-kilogram ball has a kinetic energy of 50 joules
20 A 1-kilogram ball has a kinetic energy of 50 joules. The velocity of the ball is — F 5 m/s G 10 m/s H 25 m/s J 50 m/s

21. The space shuttle orbits Earth at approximately 8000 m/s. The
21 The space shuttle orbits Earth at approximately 8000 m/s. The shuttle stays in orbit because the — A shuttle’s action is balanced by Earth’s equal and opposite reaction B combination of gravity and the shuttle’s inertia creates a curved path parallel to Earth’s surface C net gravitational force is zero at the shuttle’s distance from Earth’s center D force of Earth’s gravity pulls the shuttle downward and the force of the moon’s gravity pulls the shuttle upward

22 The frog leaps from its resting position at the lake’s bank onto a lily pad. If the frog has a mass of 0.5 kg and the acceleration of the leap is 3 m/s2, what is the force the frog exerts on the lake’s bank when leaping? A N B N C N D N

23 Which of these is the best description of the action-reaction force pair when the space shuttle lifts off from the launch pad? A The ground pushes the rocket up while exhaust gases push down on the ground. B Exhaust gases push down on air while the air pushes up on the rocket. C The rocket pushes exhaust gases down while the exhaust gases push the rocket up. D Gravity pulls the rocket exhaust down while friction pushes up against the atmosphere.

24. After shooting a cannonball, a cannon recoils with a much lower
24 After shooting a cannonball, a cannon recoils with a much lower velocity than the cannonball. This is primarily because, compared to the cannonball, the cannon has a — F much greater mass G smaller amount of momentum H greater kinetic energy J smaller force applied to it

25. How many newtons of force does a 50. 0 kg deer exert on the
25 How many newtons of force does a 50.0 kg deer exert on the ground because of gravity? Record and bubble in your answer on the answer document.

26. Which factor would most likely cause a communications satellite
26 Which factor would most likely cause a communications satellite orbiting Earth to return to Earth from its orbit? F An increase in the satellite’s forward momentum G An increase in solar energy striking the satellite H A decrease in the satellite’s size J A decrease in the satellite’s velocity

27. When the air is released from a balloon, the air moves in one
27 When the air is released from a balloon, the air moves in one direction, and the balloon moves in another direction. Which statement does this situation best illustrate? F What goes up must come down. G For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. H The shape and size of an object affect air resistance. J The acceleration due to Earth’s gravity is 9.8 m/s2.

28 The picture above shows the directions in which water leaves this scallop’s shell. Which picture below shows the direction the scallop will move? A C B D

29. A wet bar of soap slides 1 meter across a wet tile floor without
29 A wet bar of soap slides 1 meter across a wet tile floor without appearing to slow down. Which of these statements explains why the bar of soap fails to slow down? F A constant force on an object produces a constant positive acceleration. G An object in motion tends to remain in motion in the absence of an external force. H A moving object having constant velocity contains kinetic energy. J An object’s weight is proportional to its mass.

30. Which of these would cause the gravitational force between Earth
30 Which of these would cause the gravitational force between Earth and the sun to decrease? F An increase in the length of a day on Earth G An increase in the distance between Earth and the sun H An increase in the number of planets orbiting the sun J An increase in the masses of Earth and the sun

31. A hockey player pushed a puck toward the opposite side of a level
31 A hockey player pushed a puck toward the opposite side of a level ice rink. The player expected the puck to continue all the way across the ice, but the puck slowed and stopped before reaching the other side. Which of these best explains why the puck failed to slide all the way to the opposite side? F The puck’s temperature changed. G An upward force acted on the puck. H The puck’s momentum remained unchanged. J An opposing force acted on the puck.

32 The pictures show how an air bag functions in a collision. How much momentum in kg m/s does the air bag absorb from the crash-test dummy if all the crash-test dummy’s momentum is absorbed by the air bag? Record and bubble in your answer to the nearest whole number on the answer document.

33. A leaf from an apple tree falls to the ground more slowly than an
33 A leaf from an apple tree falls to the ground more slowly than an apple falls. As an explanation of this observation, the ancient Greeks’ theory of natural place has been replaced by a more recent theory involving gravitational force and — A atomic weight B inertial mass C air resistance D kinetic energy

34. Which setup would require the least force to move a heavy
34 Which setup would require the least force to move a heavy resistance? A C B D

35. What is the efficiency of a pulley system if 25% of the energy
35 What is the efficiency of a pulley system if 25% of the energy applied to the system is converted to heat? A % B 75% C 50% D 25%

36 The diagram shows an electric motor lifting a 6 N block a distance of 3 m. The total amount of electrical energy used by the motor is 30 J. How much energy does the motor convert to heat? F 9 J G J H J J J

37 Which lever arrangement requires the least effort force to raise a 500 N resistance?
F H G J

38 What is the efficiency of an air conditioner if there is a work input of 320 J and a work output of 80 J? F 4% G 25% H % J %

39 Which configuration of pulleys and belts shown below will result in the fastest rotation of Spindle 2? F H G J

40 Which of these represents a properly balanced system? A C
B D

41 Which lever requires the least effort to lift the load?

42 The image on the screen is inverted because light rays —
A condense as they pass through the pinhole B travel through the opening in straight lines C refract as they strike the screen D are polarized by the materials of the screen

43 One tuning fork is struck and placed next to an identical fork. The two forks do not touch. The second tuning fork starts to vibrate because of — F interference G the Doppler effect H resonance J standing waves

44. The pitch of a sound made by plucking a guitar string is
44 The pitch of a sound made by plucking a guitar string is determined by the — A frequency of the vibration produced B strength of the plucking force C distance between the strings D shape of the guitar body

45 Which wave has the greatest velocity?
B C D

46. When trying to spear a fish in water, a person needs to take into
46 When trying to spear a fish in water, a person needs to take into account the way light bends as it moves from water into air. The bending of light as it passes from one medium into another is known as — F reflection G refraction H diffraction J polarization

Laser Light Striking a DVD
47 When a DVD is read, laser light touches the DVD surface and is then measured at location A. What allows light to return to location A after striking the DVD surface? F Conduction G Refraction H Magnification J Reflection

48 An empty cup was tightly covered with plastic wrap, and a few grains of salt were sprinkled on top of the plastic. When a tuning fork was struck and placed slightly above the plastic wrap, the salt began to move. Which characteristic of waves does the movement of the salt best demonstrate? A Echo formation B Diffraction C Resonance D Specular reflection

49. The diagram shows waves approaching a barrier
49 The diagram shows waves approaching a barrier. Which pattern will be formed after the waves pass through the opening in the barrier? A C B D

50. A tuning fork with a frequency of 256 Hz vibrates when struck
50 A tuning fork with a frequency of 256 Hz vibrates when struck. Because of these vibrations, a nearby tuning fork begins to vibrate without being struck. Which of the following best accounts for the vibration of the second tuning fork? F Resonance G Polarization H Diffraction J Refraction

51. Diverging lenses are useful to people who suffer from
51 Diverging lenses are useful to people who suffer from nearsightedness because the lenses can cause images of distant objects to be focused on the retina. Lenses allow images to be focused on the retina because of — F diffusion G reflection H diffraction J refraction

52. A guitar player is seated next to a piano
52 A guitar player is seated next to a piano. The piano player strikes an E key on the piano. The guitarist reports that this causes the E string on his guitar to vibrate. What is the name of this phenomenon? A Polarization B Resonance C Reflection D Diffraction

53 A surface wave generated by an earthquake was recorded at Seismic Station Forty seconds later the same wave was recorded at Seismic Station 2. What accounts for the time difference? F The origin of the wave is closer to Seismic Station 1. G The speed of the wave decreases with distance. H The wavelength is longer at Seismic Station 2. J The wave frequency increases when the wave passes through soil.

54. Which process best shows the conversion of solar energy to
54 Which process best shows the conversion of solar energy to chemical energy? F Prevailing winds causing windmills to spin G Green plants making their own food H Uranium producing heat to make steam J Tides generating electricity

55 What is the potential energy of the rock?
A 59,900 joules B 64,600 joules C 93,100 joules D ,600 joules

56. Which of the following is an example of solar energy being
56 Which of the following is an example of solar energy being converted into chemical energy? F Plants producing sugar during the day G Water evaporating and condensing in the water cycle H The sun unevenly heating Earth’s surface J Lava erupting from volcanoes for many days

57. Why is the sum of the products’ energy in this reaction less than
57 Why is the sum of the products’ energy in this reaction less than the sum of the reactants’ energy? A Energy is given off as heat. B The products absorb available energy. C Energy is trapped in the reactants. D The reactants’ energy is less than the melting point of glucose.

58. An inventor claims to have created an internal combustion engine
58 An inventor claims to have created an internal combustion engine that converts 100 kJ of chemical energy from diesel fuel to 140 kJ of mechanical energy. This claim violates the law of conservation of — F momentum G inertia H energy J mass

Solar Radiation and Earth
59 Assuming the chart contains all energy transformations in the Earth system, how much solar radiation goes toward evaporating water? F 40,000 terajoules G 92,410 terajoules H ,410 terajoules J ,410 terajoules Solar Radiation and Earth Effect Amount of Energy per Second (terajoules) Solar radiation reaching Earth 173,410 Radiation reflected back into space 52,000 Radiation heating atmosphere, landmasses, and oceans 81,000 Radiation producing winds and ocean currents 370 Radiation used in photosynthesis 40 Radiation resulting in evaporation of water ?

60 According to the equation E = mc2, mass —
F travels at the speed of light G can be transformed into energy H contains light energy J is doubled when exposed to light

61 What is the approximate difference in gravitational potential energy of the two shaded boxes?
F 19 J G 39 J H 59 J J 79 J

J Adding heat to the metal block
62 The temperature of the water increases by 8°C when the metal block is added. Which could cause the temperature of the water to increase by 10°C after the metal block is added? F Using 500 g of water G Using a larger beaker H Adding more 20°C water J Adding heat to the metal block Temperature (°C) Mass (g) Metal Block 120 100 Water 20 400

63. Because ancient Greeks lived close to water, they may have enjoyed
63 Because ancient Greeks lived close to water, they may have enjoyed a more constant climate than if they had lived inland. Water warms up and cools down more slowly than land. This is because of water’s — F boiling point G specific heat H melting point J specific gravity

64. How much heat is lost by 2. 0 grams of water if the temperature
64 How much heat is lost by 2.0 grams of water if the temperature drops from 31°C to 29°C? The specific heat of water is J/g·°C. A J B J C J D J

65. Heat convection occurs in gases and liquids. Heat convection
65 Heat convection occurs in gases and liquids. Heat convection does not occur in solids because solids are unable to — A absorb heat by vibrating B transfer heat by fluid motion C emit radiation by reflecting light D exchange heat by direct contact

66. A solar heater uses energy from the sun to heat water. The
66 A solar heater uses energy from the sun to heat water. The heater’s panel is painted black to — F improve emission of infrared radiation G reduce the heat loss by convection currents H improve absorption of infrared radiation J reduce the heater’s conducting properties

67. The moon’s surface becomes hot during the long lunar day
67 The moon’s surface becomes hot during the long lunar day because the sun transfers heat to the moon. This heat transfer is accomplished almost entirely through the process of — F convection G refraction H conduction J radiation

68. In which container is the substance unable to transfer heat by
68 In which container is the substance unable to transfer heat by convection? F H G J

Temperatures of Water in
69 Container P and Container Q each were filled with 0.5 liter of water. The water was heated to 90°C. The table shows the temperatures after both containers were allowed to cool for 3 minutes. Compared to Container Q, Container P is a better — A conductor B absorber C radiator D insulator Temperatures of Water in Different Containers Container Initial Temperature (°C) Final P 90 83 Q 76

70. The transfer of heat by the movement of air currents in Earth’s
70 The transfer of heat by the movement of air currents in Earth’s atmosphere is an example of — A conduction B convection C radiation D fusion

71 An increase in greenhouse gases is considered harmful because it —
A allows more heat to be trapped in the lower atmosphere B depletes carbon dioxide in the atmosphere C releases energy trapped inside Earth D destroys light energy that plants need for photosynthesis

72 Which of these activities can help conserve natural resources?
F Recycling cardboard boxes G Washing small loads of laundry H Driving large cars J Building wooden fences

73. In West Texas and Southern California, high winds drive turbines
73 In West Texas and Southern California, high winds drive turbines that generate electricity. One advantage that wind energy has over energy generated from solar cells is that wind energy — A is plentiful everywhere B can be generated at night C produces cleaner energy D is free of environmental hazards

74. Battery-powered cars produce less air pollution than gasoline-
74 Battery-powered cars produce less air pollution than gasoline- powered cars. However, one environmental concern of using battery-powered cars is that batteries — A are heavier than gasoline engines B waste more energy than gasoline engines C contain toxic substances that are difficult to dispose of D produce direct current rather than alternating current

75 All of these materials can be recycled except —
F aluminum G lumber H glass J coal

76 This picture shows a small section of a solar power plant. Which of these decreases the energy production at such power plants? F Cloudy skies G Ozone in the air H Hot weather J Low humidity

77. Which of these produces most of the compounds. responsible for
77 Which of these produces most of the compounds responsible for causing acid rain? A Nuclear fission B Fossil fuels C Solar cells D Windmills

78. Before 1992, in order to prevent hydrogen gas from being produced,
78 Before 1992, in order to prevent hydrogen gas from being produced, the zinc powder in some alkaline batteries was covered with mercury. Mercury is toxic to many life-forms. Which of the following best explains how mercury from batteries got into the environment? A Newly manufactured batteries were transported long distances. B Operating batteries increased the temperature of conductors. C Used batteries discarded in landfills decomposed. D Voltage loss occurred between battery terminals.

79. One economic benefit of using rechargeable batteries instead of
79 One economic benefit of using rechargeable batteries instead of disposable batteries is that rechargeable batteries — F are cheaper to manufacture G can be packaged in small containers H can be used many times J generate their own electricity

80 Electric power plants that burn fossil fuels generate billions of tons of carbon dioxide and other gases. How might replacing these power plants with solar cells affect the environment? A The amount of water vapor in the atmosphere might increase. B Less land might be needed to produce the same amount of electricity. C Forest fires resulting from highly flammable emissions might be avoided. D The amount of released gases that trap atmospheric heat might be reduced.

81 The typical automobile’s kinetic energy is converted to heat energy when the brakes are applied. A braking system that converts kinetic energy to electrical energy instead of heat energy has been designed. The electrical energy can be used later to move the car again. How does a system like this benefit the environment? F Greater use of solar energy G Ability to harness wind energy H Decreased use of fossil fuels J Use of renewable hydroelectricity

82. Heavy metals such as mercury, cadmium, and nickel are often found
82 Heavy metals such as mercury, cadmium, and nickel are often found in landfills and occasionally leach into rivers, lakes, and other bodies of water. Such heavy metals are toxic to wildlife and to humans. Which of the following sources of environmental contamination is most often associated with these heavy metals? F Batteries G Plastics H Automobile exhaust J Tobacco smoke

83 Which of these is an advantage of producing electricity using solar power plants rather than using coal-fired power plants? A Solar power plants can operate for about 10 hours per day. B Solar power plants can produce variable amounts of energy. C Solar power plants produce fewer pollutants. D Solar power plants require continuous sunlight.

84 Which of these devices uses the sun’s energy directly?
A Windmill B Hydroelectric dam C Nuclear power plant D Photovoltaic cell

85. A company has decided to market itself as environmentally friendly
85 A company has decided to market itself as environmentally friendly. If the company is going to sell calculators, the use of which energy source would produce the fewest by-products and the least waste? F Rechargeable batteries G Solar cells H Dry-cell batteries J Tesla coils

Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key

Grade 11 Objective 5 Answer Key
Question Correct Answer Objective Measured Student Expectation Source - item number 1 A 5 IPC 4A 2002 Info Booklet – 14 2 D 2004 Info Booklet – 25 3 2003 TAKS – 27 4 F 2003 TAKS – 42 B 2003 TAKS – 45 6 H Apr 2004 TAKS – 54 7 C Jul 2004 TAKS – 21 8 Jul 2004 TAKS – 41 9 Apr 2006 TAKS – 12 10 J Apr 2006 TAKS – 18 11 Apr 2006 TAKS – 32 12 Oct 2005 TAKS – 7 13 Oct 2005 TAKS – 26 14 Oct 2005 TAKS – 41 15 Oct 2005 TAKS – 50 16 Feb 2006 TAKS – 22 17 Feb 2006 TAKS – 26 18 Feb 2006 TAKS – 49 19 Feb 2006 TAKS – 51 20 G Jul 2006 TAKS – 24 21 IPC 4B 2004 Info Booklet – 22 22 2003 TAKS – 11 23 Apr 2004 TAKS – 41 24 Jul 2004 TAKS – 12 25 490 Jul 2004 TAKS – 20

Question Correct Answer Objective Measured Student Expectation Source - item number 26 J 5 IPC 4B Jul 2004 TAKS – 38 27 G Apr 2006 TAKS – 52 28 D Oct 2005 TAKS – 11 29 Oct 2005 TAKS – 44 30 Feb 2006 TAKS – 46 31 Jul 2006 TAKS – 8 32 630 Jul 2006 TAKS – 20 33 C Fall 2005 TAKS – 17 34 IPC 4D 2002 Info Booklet – 13 35 B 2004 Info Booklet – 23 36 2003 TAKS – 48 37 F Apr 2004 TAKS – 46 38 Jul 2004 TAKS – 10 39 H Apr 2006 TAKS – 22 40 Apr 2006 TAKS – 29 41 Apr 2006 TAKS – 50 42 IPC 5B 2004 Info Booklet – 21 43 2003 TAKS – 32 44 A Apr 2004 TAKS – 55 45 Jul 2004 TAKS – 7 46 Jul 2004 TAKS – 14 47 Apr 2006 TAKS – 6 48 Apr 2006 TAKS – 17 49 Oct 2005 TAKS – 3 50 Oct 2005 TAKS – 32

Question Correct Answer Objective Measured Student Expectation Source - item number 51 J 5 IPC 5B Feb 2006 TAKS – 24 52 B Jul 2006 TAKS – 39 53 F Fall 2005 TAKS – 42 54 G IPC 6A 2003 TAKS – 14 55 C 2003 TAKS – 41 56 Apr 2004 TAKS – 12 57 A Apr 2004 TAKS – 37 58 H Apr 2004 TAKS – 48 59 Apr 2004 TAKS – 52 60 Oct 2005 TAKS – 52 61 Feb 2006 TAKS – 38 62 Fall 2005 TAKS – 8 63 Fall 2005 TAKS – 18 64 D IPC 6B 2004 Info Booklet – 24 65 2003 TAKS – 43 66 2003 TAKS – 50 67 Apr 2004 TAKS – 8 68 Apr 2004 TAKS – 42 69 Jul 2004 TAKS – 43 70 Jul 2006 TAKS – 13 71 Fall 2005 TAKS – 27 72 IPC 6D 2003 TAKS – 54 73 Apr 2004 TAKS – 45 74 Jul 2004 TAKS – 49 75 Jul 2004 TAKS – 54

Question Correct Answer Objective Measured Student Expectation Source - item number 76 F 5 IPC 6D Apr 2006 TAKS – 4 77 B Apr 2006 TAKS – 37 78 C Oct 2005 TAKS – 39 79 H Feb 2006 TAKS – 2 80 D Feb 2006 TAKS – 13 81 Feb 2006 TAKS – 16 82 Feb 2006 TAKS – 44 83 Jul 2006 TAKS – 9 84 Jul 2006 TAKS – 19 85 G Jul 2006 TAKS – 28

Grade 11 Objective 5.

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