2. Carefully observe the eyes of the patient and name a drug that can cause this adverse effect. Question No: 15 Team C

3. Phenytoin Carbamazepine Answer

4. Round 4 Think Tank

5. Rules for Round 4 This round has two parts. Part 1 – Food for thought and Part 2 – Points to ponder. Every team will be asked one question in each part. Unanswered / wrongly answered questions pass to the next team. You have 30 seconds to answer each direct question and five seconds for pass question. Ten points for answering the direct question correctly and five points for a pass question.

6. Round 4 – Part 1 Food for Thought

7. Which antimicrobial agent is fortified in salt? Question No: 1 Team D

8. Diethylcarbamazine Answer

9. Name a drug that should be administered along with a fatty meal to enhance absorption. Question No: 2 Team E

10. Griseofulvin Atovaquone Saquinavir Answer

11. Which drug should not be administered along with dairy products? Question No: 3 Team A

12. Tetracycline Answer

13. Dietary protein restriction is advised for patients on this drug and if needed, proteins are given at night time. Identify this drug. Question No: 4 Team B

14. Levodopa Answer

15. Name the drug that is formulated as lollipop. Question No: 5 Team C

16. Fentanyl Answer

17. Round 4 – Part 2 Points to Ponder

18. Even though both atropine and hyoscine are anticholinergics, atropine is not used for motion sickness. Why? Question No: 1 Team C

19. Atropine causes CNS excitation & delirium, whereas hyoscine causes drowsiness which aids in calming down the patient. Answer

20. Timolol is one of the first line agents for open angle glaucoma. But it is not a preferred agent for acute congestive glaucoma. Why? Question No: 2 Team B

21. Acute congestive glaucoma is an emergency condition and the IOP needs to be brought down immediately. Beta blockers have a long onset of action. Moreover, the pathology is block of outflow rather than increase in secretion. Answer

22. Calcium channel blockers are class IV antiarrhythmics. Diltiazem and verapamil are used in arrhythmia whereas, nifedipine is not. Why? Question No: 3 Team A

23. Diltiazem and verapamil have cardiodepressant activity. Whereas, nifedipine causes reflex tachycardia. Answer

24. Intravenous lorazepam is more preferred than diazepam for treatment of status epilepticus. Why? Question No: 4 Team E

25. Lorazepam has lower propensity to cause respiratory depression than diazepam. Answer

26. Even though triiodothyronine (T 3 ) is more active than thyroxine (T 4 ) and both are available commercially, T 4 (and not T 3 ) is used for the treatment of hypothyroidism. Why? Question No: 5 Team D

27. T 3 has a rapid onset of effect and this can induce heart failure. Answer

28. Round 7 Rapid Fire

29. Rules for Rapid Fire Round Every team will be asked a series of ten questions. It has to be answered within two minutes. Every team has to nominate a person to tell the answer. Discussion within the team is allowed, but the answer should be told only by the nominee. If any person other than the nominee tells the answer, it is considered wrong even if the answer told by that person was correct. If you don’t know the answer you can pass the question. If any time is left after all the ten question, passed questions can be reanswered. Quiz master will proceed to the next question only after a response from you. It may be either the answer or ‘pass’. Ten points for every correct answer. No negative marks for wrong answers.