1. CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION SET B

2. INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. As much as possible, do not write on the questionnaire for future practices.

3. What moves rapidly by convection and can spread laterally along the ceiling?
A. Heat C. Smoke
B. Fire D. Temperature

4. Our oaths of offices demand that we should not be swayed popular, fanciful or fashionable but by what is right and __________.
A. Well C. Fair
B. Moral D. Fundamental

5. How do you handle interview of suspicious types?
A. Transform him into an ideal witness
His fears must first be allayed
Employ physical influence
d. Lead subject to relevant matters

6. If proof is the outcome of evidence, what is evidence?
A. Measurement of guilt C. Instrument of proof
B. Means of social control D. All of these

7. The amateur criminal usually commits crimes because of __________.
A. High capability C. Any of these
B. Exceptional opportunity D. Incessant desire

8. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state under pressure and at normal temperature inside its container?
A. cryogenic gas C. liquified gas
B. compressed gas D. nuclear gas

9. __________ is an international big business enterprise being run by big-time transnational criminal syndicates who oftentimes enjoy the protection of state authorities.
A. Illegal drug trading C. Carnapping
B. Kidnapping D. Trafficking

10. It is the willful, malicious and intentional setting of fire or the use of explosive to destroy property and/or the preparation of building for burning.
A. arson C. fire
B. intentional fire D. incendiary fire

11. In strict legal terms a fire is considered to be of __________ in origin unless proved otherwise.
A. accidental C. intentional
B. incendiary D. suspicious

12. Identification of criminals may be undertaken by means of any of the following;
A. By admission or confession of the criminal himself
B. Identification based on Evidence and modus operandi
C. By testimonies and identification made by witnesses
D. All of the above

13. It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of the fire travel and point of origin.
A. charring C. “V” pattern
B. alligatoring D. pour pattern

14. The fire and arson investigator’s success depends on his ability to determine correctly.
the point of origin of fire
the exact cause of fire
the insurable interest of the owner
the modus operandi

15. They are able to pinpoint the origin of structural fire, based on their past experience, and they are often the first to suspect arson and are quick to recognize the unusual.
A. person discovered the fire C. firefighter
B. manager of the structure D. employees

16. An integrated system of underground or overhead piping of both connected to a source of extinguishing agent.
wet and dry sprinkler system
hydraulic fire suppression system
automatic fire suppression system
metal and water pipes system

17. It is proportional to the intensity of the fire, of short of duration, and to the length of burning if the fire burns slowly for a long time.
A. depth of char C. intensity
B. fuel ventilation D. all of these

18. It is kind of a burn pattern that results from pouring an accelerant unto the floor of a room, and it’s important in determining the use of accelerant.
A. charring C. “V” pattern
B. alligatoring D. pour pattern

19. The most common accelerant, and are readily identified by their distinctive odor.
A. gasoline C. kerosene
B. thinner D. lighter fluid

20. When it is distinct, the bottom of the cone sometimes points to where the fire started, or where the fuel was burned.
A. charring C. “V” pattern
B. alligatoring D. pour pattern

21. Refers to a collection of methods by which crimes are studied and criminals arrested.
A. Intelligence Operation C. criminal investigation
B. interrogation D. interview

22. Refers to confession made outside the court during preliminary investigation before trial.
A. Confession C. Admission
B. Extra Judicial confession D. Judicial Confession

23. This method is more commonly known as identification by photographic files.
A. Verbal Description C. Police Line Up
B. Rouge Gallery D. Cartographic

24. Which of the following drug is MDMA?
A. Ecstasy C. XTC
B. adam D. all of these

25. Which of the following is known as angel dust?
A. Phencyclidine C. ephedra
B. LSD D. morning glory

26. It is a declaration of the accused that he had committed or participated in the commission of crime and therefore a “statement of guilt”.
A. Confession C. Admission
B. Extra Judicial confession D. Judicial Confession

27. It is a “statement of fact” usually applied in criminal cases which do not directly invoice an acknowledgement of guilt or criminal intent.
A. Confession C. Admission
B. Extra Judicial confession D. Judicial Confession

28. The following, except one, are rules to observed in taking confessions and admissions:
A. It should be undertaken in writing and written in a language understood by the accused.
B. It should be executed under oath and in the presence of counsel chosen by the accused.
C. It must be voluntarily and freely given by the accused.
D. None of the above

29. This particular method would rely or depend on the ability of the witness to clearly describe and to narrate the participation of the suspect with that of the crime through facial characteristics, color, size and body built of the suspect or suspects.
A. Verbal Description C. Police Line Up
B. Rouge Gallery D. Cartographic

30. It is a system where a group of persons gathered in a special room equipped with a one way mirror, the witness has to select from a group of seven (7) to ten (10) persons the suspect
A. Verbal Description C. Police Line Up
B. Rouge Gallery D. Cartographic

31. The accuracy of identification by eye witness accounts would depend on the following factors, except:
A. The ability of the witness to remember the distinct appearance of the suspect
B. The prevailing conditions of observation and visibility when the crime was committed
C. The lapse of time between the crime commission and the identification process
D. All of the foregoing

32. When two vehicles approach or enter an intersection at the same time, who shall yield the right of way as a general rule.
A. The driver on the left C. The driver on the right
B. The faster vehicle D. The slower vehicle

33. The measurement of the maximum frictional resistance of pavements.
A. Skid marks C. Scuff marks
B. Drag factor D. Reaction time

34. Yardstick of an effective traffic law enforcement program.
A. Smooth traffic low
B. Less traffic law enforcement officers deployed with the same output
C. Increased traffic flow
D. Reduction of traffic accidents and delays

35. What is the scientific name of coca bush plant?
A. Papaver Somniferum C. Erythroxylon Coca
B. Canabis sativa D. none of these

36. What is the scientific name of opium poppy?
A. Papaver Somniferum C. Erythroxylon Coca
B. Canabis sativa D. none of these

37. Corpus delicti refers to
A. Dying declaration
B. The body of the crime
C. The body of the evidence pointing to the crime
D. Producing the body before the court

38. When a traffic officer halts a driver for traffic violation, the remark “do you know why I called your attention” should be avoided, mainly because:
A. It implies corruption
B. It is presumption that it is a false arrest action
C. It is a leading question
D. It invites a denial on the part of the traffic law violator

39. A traffic patrol not engaged in taking action against a particular violator; should without any instruction:
A. Keep off congested routes but in a location to spot traffic violations
B. Park in a position visible to motorists to acts as demand
C. Use its own discretion in achieving maximum efficiency
D. Maintain visible patrol continuously

40. It is the sum of indulgence or restraint by the public in judging the reasonableness of the traffic enforcement program.
A. Traffic tolerance C. In the whole enforcement
B. Fair play enforcement D. All of the foregoing

41. The best to determine the proper distribution of personnel, the best criterion would be the number of:
A. Fatal accidents
B. Reported accidents
C. Accidents involving negligence
D. Amount of traffic using the public road

42. The fundamental rule in traffic accident investigation
A. Consider road conditions
B. Look for the key event
C. Consider the degree of damage or injury
D. Consider the violation in traffic way

43. The standard behind selective enforcement in traffic control.
A. Direction of enforcement activities to areas prone to traffic danger
B. A warning for minor offenses
C. Concentration of enforcement activities during park traffic hours
D. election of strategic areas for strict enforcement

44. Refers to a state of periodic or chronic intoxication produced by the repeated consumption of a drug.
A. Drug addiction C. drug dependent
B. drug abuse D. deviant drug use

45. As a general rule, the search warrant is directed to be served in __________.
A. Any time of day or night C. Any time
B. Daytime D. Anytime of any of the day

46. What type of roadway provides access from a local street and a major traffic generating areas?
A. Major arteries C. Thruways
B. Collecting D. Expressway

47. 45. It is considered as the most effective deterrent to traffic accidents.
A. Regular maintenance and check-up of the traffic units
B. Increase insurance premium
C. Arrest and prosecution of traffic law violators
D. Decrease Transportation Franchising Regulatory Board

48. During the investigation of a crime of robbery, the latent fingerprint of the suspect was recovered in the crime scene. Such type of physical evidence is known as
A. Corpus delicti evidence C. tracing evidence
B. Associative evidence D. autoptic or real evidence

49. In the Independence Day parade, a traffic officer is instructed not to allow vehicles to cross the route where the parade is to pass, however an ambulance vehicle with an injured passenger is about to cross the route, the traffic law enforcement officer should:
A. Direct the driver to the nearest short cut without passing the route.
B. Follow the order not to allow any vehicle to cross the route.
C. Stop the parade to allow the ambulance to cross the street.
D. Call his superior office for the prompt decision.

50. Foremost among the preliminary action when the officer received a call regarding the occurrence of an accident.
Number of injured
When and where the accident occurred
Seriousness of the injury
Name of the victim

51. In interviewing person involved in a traffic accident what is the primary consideration to be taken by the police investigator.
A. Conduct each interview separately
B. Listen only to witnesses because they are not biased.
C. Listen to both sides
D. Conduct the interview jointly

52. Skid marks as evidence in accident cases would show:
A. If the vehicle was traveling in the wrong direction
B. If the driver failed to observe the right of way.
C. If the driver did not obey the traffic signal
D. All of the foregoing

53. A defendant accused of rape confessed that he had carnal intercourse with the complainant at the time and place mentioned. He made a
A. Voluntary confession C. involuntary confession
B. Admission D. extra – judicial confession

54. When the evidence presented corresponds to the precise point at issue and proves the fact in dispute without the aid of any inference, it is called
A. Hearsay C. circumstantial
B. tracing D. direct

55. A confession is different from admission because the latter is
A. expressed acknowledgement of the truth of his guilt as to the crime charged
B. Statement of fact which does not directly involve an acknowledgement of guilt
C. All of these
D. Statement of guilt

56. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self-awareness and emotion?
A. Narcotics C. Stimulants
B. Depressants D. Hallucinogens

57. Which method of conducting a search is applied when the crime scene is blocked out in a form of rectangle and the searcher proceeds along the plane parallel to one side of the rectangle?
A. Grid C. strip
B. wheel D. zone

58. When is circumstantial evidence sufficient to produce conviction?
A. All of the three
B. When there is more than one circumstances
C. When the facts from which the inferences are derived and proven
D. When a combination of all the circumstances produce a conviction beyond reasonable doubt.

59. What is contained in the “details” section of the report?
A. Narration of the investigation steps by paragraphs
B. Establishing relationship of the details uncovered by the phase of investigation being reported
C. All of these
D. Narrative account of the investigation

60. Evidence not obtained from the personal knowledge or experience of the witness but derived what he has heard or read about is called
A. Expert evidence C. privileged communication
B. associative evidence D. hearsay evidence

61. As a basic guide to investigators, he should look upon the evidences as serving to establish __________.
Identification of the guilty person
Method of operation of the perpetrator
Any of these
The corpus delicti

62. When do you post a “close case” stamp on a criminal case report?
A. Upon failure to establish a corpus delicti
Upon death of the subject
Facts are incomplete
Upon completion of investigation

63. Who among the following scientific aiders in crime detection can inform the investigator as to the death of a person?
A. Fingerprint Expert C. Coroner
B. Ballistician D. Disclosure Interview

64. What is the key to gaining an inside informant from a terrorist group?
A. Knowledge of frustration within the organization
B. Knowledge of the person
C. Knowledge of the person and organization
D. Knowledge of the organization

65. What is the modern procedure for coping with streets and highway traffic by improving road efficiency?
A. Traffic Engineering C. Traffic Education
B. Traffic Management D. Traffic Direction

66. Refers to the distance traveled before applying the brakes.
A. Coefficient of friction C. Drag factor
B. Maximum accident speed. D. Reaction time

67. Which of the following is an investigative deficiency in evidence collection?
A. Any of these
B. Inadequate sampling
C. Clue materials usually found in the presence of a foreign substance
D. Sub-standard samples

68. In crime scene photography, the crime photographer should be interested only in __________.
taking the picture of relatives
taking the view only
portraying the facts of the case
taking good photographs

69. What privilege can be availed of only once by first offenders for penalties of imprisonment not exceeding six (6) years?
A. Parole C. Probation
B. Psychological services D. Home life services

70. Aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases in our midst, which of the following facilities should you check?
A. Electric Switch System C. Gift-Wrapped Packages
B. All of These D. Telephones

71. What should the firefighter do when ventilating a peaked roof?
A. make opening at right angles to ridge pole
B. make openings parallel to ridge pole in windward side of roof
C. rip off roof covering on lee side and cut sheathing
D. make opening on windward side of the roof peak

72. The distorted form will point in the direction of the oncoming fire.
A. light bulbs C. crazing
B. spalling D. all of these

73. What classification would solvents, paints and gasoline which are examples of substances that are sniffed to obtain intoxication fall?
A. depressants C. energizers
B. inhalants D. tranquilizers

74. What is the measure of the degree of thermal agitation of molecules?
A. Ignition point C. Temperature
B. Flash point D. Boiling point

75. To cut a hole in a concrete floor for a cellar type, the cutting operation should start __________.
A. At the thickest point of the concrete flooring
B. In the center of the concrete flooring between the floor beams
C. Close to the floor beams
D. Close to the wall

76. When there is a collision between a train and a bus, which unit of the police takes charge?
A. Homicide Division C. Traffic Investigation Unit
B. General Investigation Unit D. Traffic Management Group

77. What is the most difficult challenge for an investigator regarding informants?
A. Tapping outside source
B. Convincing an insider to “spill the beans”
C. Outsourcing information
D. Convincing a peripheral informant to act as witness

78. One who undergoes preventive imprisonment is known as _____:
A. Parole C. Detention Prisoner
B. Probationer D. Any of These

79. What hair has very narrow medulla?
A. Animal hair C. Human hair
B. Silk D. Synthetic hair

80. What is a material that easily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to stimulate or support combustion?
A. smoke C. carbon
B. oxidizing material D. ember

81. What is that process of separating light from common colors?
A. Configuration C. Dispersion
B. Refraction index D. None of these

82. As a rule, it would not be sufficient for police officers just to recite Section 12, Article III of the Constitution. He must also be duty bound to __________.
A. Explain the effect of some rights in practical terms
B. NONE of them
C. Tell the person of the rights to which he is detained
D. Communicate what the person under interrogation may or may not do

83. As a criminologist/responders to terrorism, how could you protect yourself and the public by isolating terrorist?
A. Note down specific danger
B. Free the captured victim right away
C. Collect and share threat information
D. Downplay potential threats

84. Street level pushing/peddling is a problem addressed by which of the following police operational strategy?
A. Demand Reduction C. All of These
B. Community-Oriented Policing System D. Supply Reduction

85. Anti-Sexual Harassment Act is also known as __________.
A. R.A C. R.A. 7877
B. R.A D. P.D. 603

86. The power of the state to impose taxes on the people is
A. Sovereign power C. an inherent power
B. fundamental power D. police power

87. Which statement is not valid with regards to hearsay evidence?
A. Its value rests mainly in the veracity and competency of other persons
B. Evidence proceeding from the personal knowledge of the witness
C. Does not derive its value solely from the credit of the witness
D. Evidence obtained from repetition of what one had heard from others and is therefore weak

88. If a ball-point pen is used to write a document that is being questioned, dictated standards to be obtained must be taken in which of the following manner?
A. The whole dictated writing must be done also in ball-point pen
B. Two sets of 10 sufficient standards must be taken. One set using ball- point pen and the other set using fountain pen
C. One half of the dictated writing should be done using a ball-point pen and the other half in fountain pen
D. Two sets of 10 sufficient standards must be taken. One set in ball-point pen and the other is pencil

89. A patient who knows that he is dying from cancer tells his physician that his compadre told him that he (compadre) killed his wife. This is a form of
A. Hearsay evidence C. dying declaration
B. testimonial evidence D. deposition

90. The following classes of laws are not enforced by the state, except:
A. Moral C. divine law
B. natural law D. substantive law

91. A crime is said to be complex when
A. It involves the application of several articles of the Revised Penal Code
B. There are so many participants, each of them involves in the execution of the criminal act.
C. A single act constitute two or more grave offenses
D. The criminal act can only be proven by a series of circumstantial evidence

92. The application of science such as physics, chemistry, medicine and other biological sciences in crime detection and investigation is known as
A. Criminology C. criminalistics
B. ballistics D. disciples of Quincy

93. Which is not a method of deception detection?
Administration of truth serum
Crime reenactment
lie detector test
questioning a hypnotized person

94. What is the active component of tobacco?
A. Caffeine C. smoke
B. stimulating D. nicotine

95. Which of the following refers to Indonesia based Muslim terrorist group?
A. Jemaah Islamiah C. Abu Sayyaf Group
B. Taliban D. Al - Shabaab

96. These are drug abuser whose activities revolve most entirely in taking and securing supplies of drugs.
A. Situational User C. Spree Users
B. Hard Core Addict D. Hippies

97. Identification of bodies dead or alive, are necessary in the following conditions, except:
A. To trace missing person
B. to determine missing heirs to inheritance
C. To pinpoint suspect in crime
D. to establish paternity by scientific methodology

98. Which of the following symptoms is a solvent user?
A. Excessive nasal secretions, watering of eyes and poor muscular control
B. Staggering or Stumbling
C. Falling asleep unexplainably
D. Drowsiness and disorientation

99. These are drugs that suppress the vital body functions especially those of the brain or central nervous system with the resulting impairment of judgment, hearing, speech and muscular coordination.
A. Depressant C. stimulant
B. hallucinogen D. all of these

100. It is an accident, which is always accompanied by an unidentified road user who usually flees immediately after the said collision.
A. Hit and run accident
B. Motor vehicle traffic accident
C. Motor vehicle non traffic accident
D. Non motor vehicle non traffic accident

101. These drugs increase mental alertness, wakefulness, reduce hunger, and provide a feeling of well-being.
A. Depressant C. stimulant
B. hallucinogen D. all of these

102. Which of the following drugs can have the ability to ease pain?
A. Amphetamines C. morphine
B. marijuana D. cocaine

103. The following are symptoms of stimulant drug user, except;
A. Pupil of the eyes dilated
B. Mouth and nose are dry and bad breath
C. Pupils are constricted and fail to respond to light
D. Decreased appetite and develop insomnia

104. Any person who shall bring into the Philippines any dangerous drugs, regardless of its quantity, quality and purpose, shall suffer the penalty of
A. life imprisonment to death
12 years and 1 day to 20 years
20 years and 1 day to life
6 years and 1 day to 12 years

105. A person operating an illegal chemical diversion of controlled precursors and essential chemicals shall suffer ;
A. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years imprisonment
B. 6 years and 1 day to 12 years imprisonment
C. 20 years and 1 day to life imprisonment
D. a fine of ten million pesos

106. An executive function, which includes planning, directing, organizing, supervising, coordinating, operating, recording and budgeting the affairs of traffic.
A. Traffic management C. Traffic supervision
B. Traffic law enforcement D. All of the foregoing

107. Agency which requires and prescribes transport routes for public utility vehicles.
A. LTFRB C. LTO
B. DOTC D. MMDA

108. He was the founder of the Abu Sayyaf Group.
A. Abdurajik Abubakar Janjalani C. Khadaffy Janjalani
B. Isnilon Totoni Hapilon D. Jainal Antel Sali Jr.

109. Number of days which constitutes the physical cycle or man’s cycle of strength.
A C. 23
B D. 33

110. It is a regulation which prescribes proper conduct and decorum during confrontation with or of traffic law.
Memorandum circular 19-05
Memorandum circular
Memorandum circular
Section 55 of R.A. 4136

111. It refers to the right to proceed ahead of another vehicle or pedestrian?
A. Right-of-way C. Last clear chance
B. Go D. All of the above

112. It refers to the separation of traffic units involved in a vehicular accident.
A. Final position C. Hazards
B. Disengagement D. Stopping

113. It is the place and time at which the normal person could perceive the unusual or unexpected condition or movement.
Point of no escape
Perception of hazards
Point of possible perception
All of the above

114. Any accident occurring on a traffic way, involving a person or person using traffic way for travel or transportation, but no involving a motor vehicle in motion collision.
A. Motor vehicle traffic accident
Non motor vehicle traffic accident
Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. Accident

115. It is defined as telling the drivers and pedestrians when, how and where they may or may not move or stand at a particular place.
A. Traffic supervision C. Traffic direction
B. Traffic control D. All of the above

116. A term used to denote any vehicle used for commercial purposes without any franchise.
A. Tricycle C. FX
B. Mega taxi D. Colorum

117. It is a means to control the movements of vehicles, pedestrians at certain point of a certain area by mechanical objects or manpower.
A. Traffic supervision C. Traffic direction
B. Traffic control D. All of the above

118. It refers to any motor vehicle accident occurring on a place other than traffic way.
Motor vehicle traffic accident
Non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
Non motor vehicle traffic accident

119. What are physical channels within the roadway, which are constructed to establish physical channels thru which vehicular traffic is guided without the use of signals?
A. Traffic Signs C. Traffic Islands
B. Pavement Markings D. Traffic signals

120. An investigator wishes to find the maiden name of a woman suspected of setting a fire and also the name of her husband
A. in order to locate her in the future
B. to turn over to the court
C. in order to discover her age
D. in order to check and see if she had previous fire insurance under their names

121. Are usually members of the underworld who give bits of information with the desire to please himself and gain attention.
A. Voluntary Informants C. False informants
B. Self-aggrandizing informants D. Frightened informants

122. Refers to the target or person or place being watched.
A. Surveillance C. Surveillant
B. Subject D. Shadowing or tailing

123. Refers to the act of following a target or subject person either covertly or overtly.
A. intelligence C. Surveillant
B. Subject D. Shadowing or tailing

124. Also known as the body of the crime, this would establish that a crime was committed.
A. Corpus delicti C. Associative evidence
B. Tracing evidence D. none of the above

125. The informant often takes matters into his own hands as a form of compromise of the case and may endanger the life or safety of the law enforcement officers, primarily motivated by greed.
A. Vanity C. Civic mindedness
B. Fear D. Perversity

126. A type of shadowing wherein the habit, general impression and associates of the target must be ascertained.
A. Loose tail C. Close tail
B. Roping D. shadowing

127. Their purpose is to eliminate competition, set-up decoys, learn the nature of police investigative activities and distract the efforts in information gathering.
A. Vanity C. Civic mindedness
B. Fear D. Perversity

128. The primary consideration in the informant management is establishing the:
A. Good rapport C. harmony
B. trust D. all of the above

129. Refers to the person who maintains the clandestine information gathering
A. Surveillance C. Surveillant
B. Subject D. Shadowing or tailing

130. This is conducted with less special caution since the object or target knows that he is being followed by the police for his protection.
A. Rough shadowing C. One man shadow
B. Two man shadow D. Three men shadow

131. This is conducted with more precaution than any other kind of tailing and constant surveillance is needed so as not to lose the subject.
A. Loose tail C. Close tail
B. Roping D. shadowing

132. It is a form of police undercover work wherein the investigator assumes another identity in order to obtain information which relates to the identity and whereabouts of criminals.
A. Loose tail C. Close tail
B. Roping D. shadowing

133. All personnel on undercover operations shall carry at all times ____________ duly approved by their immediate supervisors and filed appropriately with their respective offices.
A. Mission Orders C. warrant
B. court order D. authority

134. It is employed by the arsonist to delay the start of the fire and allow them to establish an alibi.
A. timing device C. matches & candles
B. trailers D. accelerants

135. Undercover operatives on mission shall confine their operations to the specific case assigned to them.
A. Mission Orders C. After-Mission Report
B. Restriction D. mission task

136. It is a building unsafe in case of fire because it will burn easily or because it lacks adequate exits or fire escapes.
A. fire trap C. fire hazard
B. fire lane D. all of these

137. Upon receipt of a report/complaint of a crime incident, the desk officer shall;
A. Record the time the report/complaint was made
B. Record the identity of the person who made the report, place and a synopsis of the incident
C. Inform his superior of the duty officer regarding the report
D. All of the above

138. The relative of dept of char around a room may help locate source of __________.
A. depth of char C. intensity
B. fuel or ventilation D. all of these

139. A vertical panel or non-combustible or fire resistive materials attached to, and extending below the bottom chord of the roof trusses.
A. vestibule C. vertical shaft
B. curtain board D. electrical arc

140. This can indicate surface discoloration, chipping, crumbling or a flaky chalk like appearance, most often it resulted to radiant heat from a large fire.
A. light bulbs C. crazing
B. spalling D. all of these

141. It can be produced by direct flames or atmospheric heat build-up, thereby impressing tell tale signs, especially plastic that partially melt when exposed to intense heat.
A. light bulbs C. crazing
B. spalling D. all of these

142. A continuous passage way for the transmission of air.
A. duct system C. damper
B. ember D. electrical arc

143. Those places where __________ was greatest-directly over a fire or where ventilation fan it-will have a deeper charring.
A. depth of char C. intensity
B. fuel ventilation D. all of these

144. If gasoline and other extremely volatile fuels are ignited at concentration between 1.5% to 6% gasoline vapors may produce;
A. arson C. intentional fire
B. explosion D. fire injuries

145. The intensity of fire can be inferred with some confidence, and it can be observed on combustible material not completely burned.
A. huge quantity of debris C. distorted shape
B. observation of persons D. burn patterns

146. It is one of the motives of the crime of arson, wherein it may resort in eliminating competition following destruction of home and possession.
A. concealment of crime C. intimidation
B. emotional reasons D. financial gain

147. Descriptive of materials or compound that are easily set on fire.
A. combustible C. flammable
B. inflammable D. all of these

148. The process of first raising the temperature to separate the more volatile from less volatile parts.
A. distillation C. refining
B. smelting D. forging

149. It is one of the motives of the crime of arson, wherein the purpose is to distract police from other felony being committed simultaneously from the area.
A. concealment of crime C. intimidation
B. emotional reasons D. financial gain

150. What will happen if the driver failed to apply set built and accidentally while driving so fast, bumped the rear portion of another car?
A. The head will strike the steering
The driver will be over throw
the driver will hit the windshield
the driver will die

151. This substance produced a feeling of vigor, euphoria, or an intense feeling of highness.
A. Cocaine C. heroin
B. lsd D. all of these

152. A highly combustible and explosive compound produced by the reaction of nitric acid with cellulose material.
A. Cellulose C. Nitrate
B. Cellulose nitrate D. Pyroxylin

153. The following are derivatives of opium, except;
A. Morphine C. Heroin
B. cocaine D. Codeine

154. Common cycle length is used at each intersection and the GO indications are given independently in accordance to the time schedule designated o permit a continuous movement of vehicles along the street at designated speed.
Flexible progressive system
Simulated system
Simple progressive system
Alternative system

155. Descriptive of any material that by its nature or as result of its reaction with other elements produces a rapid temperature of the immediate surroundings.
A. damper C. duct
B. duct system D. cryogenic

156. The assembly of use of a building or structure or any portion thereof by a group of persons for civic, political or any other purpose.
A. assembly occupancy C. residential occupancy
B. structural occupancy D. business occupancy

157. The purpose is to instill fear regarding the safety of one’s person or family, threatened economic loss or effect desired changes in policy,
A. concealment of crime C. intimidation
B. emotional reasons D. financial gain

158. A normally open device installed inside an air duct system which automatically closes to restrict the passage of smoke fire.
A. duct system C. damper
B. ember D. electrical arc

159. It is used to record and organize information gathered during serious crime investigations.
A. Criminal Investigation database C. Intelligence-lead policing
B. Crime mapping D. Link charting

160. It enables detectives to plot the relationships of criminals and their activities.
Criminal Investigation database
Crime mapping
Intelligence-lead policing
Link charting

161. It is one of the motives of the crime of arson, wherein some arsonist will set a fire in order to “discover” it and then “save” the inhabitants and contents.
A. pyromania C. vandalism
B. fire setters D. recognition as hero

162. It is a computer tool that presents police with information on where certain crimes are being committed.
Criminal Investigation database
Crime mapping
Intelligence-lead policing
Link charting

163. It is the conduct of processes, more particularly the recognition, search, collection, handling, preservation and documentation of physical evidence to include the identification and interview of witnesses and-the arrest of suspect/s at the crime scene.
A. Crime scene investigation C. criminal investigation
B. all of these D. none of the above

164. A cordon use to set up to keep off curious onlookers.
A. Outermost barrier C. entrance
B. innermost cordon D. rope

165. Firearms, tools and knives may be handled and lifted out of the crime scene by means of;
A. Piece of string C. test tube
B. cotton D. medicine dropper

166. It is a barrier primarily intended to be accessed by the investigator handling the case and members of the SOCO team.
A. Outermost C. entrance
B. innermost cordon D. rope

167. This would include items which tend to establish the identity of the suspect such as wallet, identification cards, receipts, and other personal items.
A. Corpus delicti C. Associative evidence
B. Tracing evidence D. none of the above

168. What is used in detecting the presence of seminal stains?
A. Flash light C. camera
B. UV light D. infra-red light

169. In this method, the searchers proceed simultaneously along the tail parallel to one side of a rectangle and turn and proceed back along new trail but parallel to the first movement.
A. Wheel Method C. Spiral Method
B. Strip or grid Method D. Zone Method

170. If you are an arson prober, what is your main concern?
A. Witnesses C. Damages
B. Origin of fire D. Presence of accelerants

171. All signals along a given street always show the same indication at the same time.
A. Flexible progressive system C. Simple progressive system
B. Simulated system D. Alternative system

172. What is the goal of traffic safety education for drivers?
A. To give them the basics regarding traffic safety
B. To give the actual application of traffic safety knowledge
C. It is a pre-requisite for licenses
D. To impart traffic morality to drivers for safe movement on public needs

173. In patrolling at night, the flash light should be _______ from the body.
handled by the weak hand away
handled by the strong hand away
handled by the left hand away
handled by the right hand away

174. Period of validity of a professional driver’s license which may be renewable every 3 birth months of succeeding years and automatically expires if not renewed on due date.
A. one year C. Two years
B. Three years D. Four years

175. Refers to seeing, feeling or hearing and understanding an unusual or unexpected condition indicative of a sign that an accident might takes place.
A. Perception of hazard C. Start of evasive action
B. Initial contact D. Maximum engagement

176. In Hit and run accident investigation, what should be the initial step or phase in the investigative process?
A. Gather the evidences
B. Establish the identity of the persons involved
C. Cordon the area
D. Check the victims for injuries

177. All lines, patters, words, colors or other gadgets except signs set into the surface or applied or attached to the pavement or curbing officially place for the purpose of regulating traffic is called.
A. Pavement markings C. Traffic islands
B. Traffic signs D. Traffic engineering

178. Refers to traffic signs intended to warn road users of special obligations.
A. Danger warning signs C. Regulatory signs
B. Informative signs D. Mandatory signs

179. It refers to a dangerous conduct and attitude, which indicates lack of concern for injurious consequences likely to result from such a behavior.
A. Drunk driving C. Reckless driving
B. Reckless imprudence D. Reckless negligence

180. It includes pedestrians, pedal, cyclist, drivers and passengers utilizing the public roads.
A. Road users C. Road user system
B. Traffic system D. Enforcement system

181. What kind of personal property can be subject of search or seizure?
A. Fruits of the offense or those used or intended to be used as the means of committing an offense
B. Subject of the offense
C. Stolen or embezzled property
D. all of these

182. Traffic warning, is an enforcement action which does not contemplate possible assessments of penalty by the court or otherwise as a result of a warning alone. What kind of activities it represents?
A. Preventive activities C. Punitive activities
B. Persuasive activities D. All of the above

183. It is a wholly police responsibility and entails looking for defects in the behavior of the motorist, pedestrian, vehicles and roadway condition.
A. Apprehension C. Detection
B. Adjudication D. Prosecution

184. Hazardous traffic law violations are:
A. Unsafe condition and unsafe behavior
B. Physically handicapped drivers
C. Disregarding safety of others
D. Obstructions

185. A number representing the resistance to sliding of two surfaces in contact is known as:
A. Attribute C. Traffic jam
B. Contact damage D. Coefficient of friction

186. One the following drugs can increase mental alertness, wakefulness, reduce hunger, and provide a feeling of well-being.
A. Peyote C. caffeine
B. opium D. mescaline

187. Among of the following drugs, which one refers to marijuana?
A. Damo C. Pot
B. all of these D. Acapulco Gold

188. When we say, Crank, Crystal meth, Poor Man’s Cocaine, Methedrine or speed, we mean this drug as;
A. Methamphetamine C. cocaine
B. heroin D. hashish

189. 187. Which of the following substance is a designer drug?
A. Ecstasy C. shabu
B. morpine D. none of the above

190. It is the unlawful killing of any person which is neither parricide, murder, or infanticide.
A. Murder C. Parricide
B. Homicide D. Infanticide

191. Coke, Snow flake, White blow, Nose candy, Big C, Snow bird, Lady, Crack, Freebase rocks, Rock, are street names of drugs referring to;
A. Ecstacy C. cocaine
B. shabu D. none of the above

192. It is considered to be the most practical, useful and reliable means of preservation.
A. Photography C. audio and video tape
B. Voice Recording D. all of the above

193. Rape physical evidence can be located on the following, except:
A. at the crime scene C. on the victim
B. on the suspect D. on the witnesses

194. Importation of any controlled precursor and essential chemical will suffer the penalty of;
life imprisonment to death
12 years and 1 day to 20 years
20 years and 1 day to life
6 years and 1 day to 12 years

195. It is the killing of one’s sister
A. Homicide C. sororicide
B. fratricide D. matricide

196. It is the killing of a mother by her own child
A. Homicide C. sororicide
B. fratricide D. matricide

197. Any person under investigation shall have the right to __________.
A. Informed of Such Rights C. Remain Silent
B. All of these D. Counsel

198. Which of the following drawing is made primarily for courtroom presentation?
A. Rough Sketch C. All of These
B. Rough Draft D. Finished Drawing

199. The Abbu Sayyaf means;
A. Angel of God C. Bearer of Sword
B. Islamic Extremist D. Lord of the Rings

200. The Abu Sayyaf is an Islamic Separatist Group from the;
A. MNLF C. MILF
B. Al Qaeda D. Gama'a al-Islamiyya

201. Considered as one of the oldest and world’s largest criminal organization.
A. Triads C. Mafia
B. Yakuza D. Heijin

202. Which of the following is an E- Commerce Act of 2000?
A. RA C. RA 9287
B. RA D. RA 9999