Graphjam of course Module 02 15 13.

Graphjam of course Module

The History and Scope of Psychology Overview
What is Psychology? Psychology’s Roots Contemporary Psychology Psychological Perspectives Module

Psychology’s Roots Aristotle (384-322 B.C.)
Aristotle, a naturalist and philosopher, theorized about psychology’s concepts. He suggested that the soul and body are not separate and that knowledge grows from experience. “The soul is not separable from the body, and the same holds good of particular parts of the soul.” Aristotle, De Anima, 350 B.C. The Greeks thought that some knowledge was innate. Thinking about thinking Empiricists said that what we know about the world comes to us through experience & observation…our minds are a blank slate or “tabula rasa” Descartes like Plato believed the immaterial mind and physical body were separate but communicated in the brain at pineal gland. Animal spirits moved from the brain to act on the muscles and experiences lead the nerves to open up “pores” in the brain to form memories. Descartes was right about the nerves connecting the inside and the outside worlds but had no notion of how these nerves functioned. Module

Psychology’s Roots Psychological Science Is Born Empiricism
Knowledge comes from experience via the senses Science flourishes through observation and experiment Module

Psychological Science is Born
Wundt and psychology’s first graduate students studied the “atoms of the mind” by conducting experiments at Leipzig, Germany, in 1879. This work is considered the birth of psychology as we know it today. Preview Question 1: How did the science of psychology develop? Pronounced “voont” December 1879 Measure time between hearing a ball drop and hitting a telegraph key Psychophysics-Relationships between physical stimuli & changes in our psychological experience. Attempting to measure “atoms of the mind” – the fastest and simplest mental processes Philosopher and physiologists Wundt and his student Titchner focused on the elements of mind, and studied it by using introspection (self-reflection). Wundt established the first laboratory of psychology in 1879 at Leipzig, Germany, and wrote the first textbook of psychology. 1? 98. The first area of psychology to be studied as a science is known as (AP99) (A) Psychoanalysis (B) Phrenology (C) Classical conditioning (D) Mesmerism (E) Psychophysics Wundt’s tool for basic research? Introspection Wundt ( ) Module

American philosopher William James wrote an important 1890 psychology textbook. Mary Calkins, James’s student, became the APA’s first female president. James founded a psych lab at Harvard. James admitted the first woman student Mary Calkins to Harvard and tutored her. Despite his efforts she was not able to attain her PhD from Harvard, they offered to give her the degree from Radcliffe, she refused. Even thought she outscored the male students Evidence of the conditions of women of the time. Why admitted? Functionalism focused on the role of consciousness in guiding peoples ability o make decisions and solve problems. Functionalism: James suggested that it would be more fruitful to consider the evolved functions of our thoughts and feelings than simply studying the elements of mind. Based on the theory of evolution, he suggested that the function of these thoughts and feelings was adaptive. James admitted the first woman student Mary Calkins to Harvard and tutored her. Despite his efforts she was not able to attain her PhD from Harvard. In 1890, James published Principles of Psychology. The book was 1400 pages long, two volumes in length and it took him 12 years to write. James ( ) Mary Calkins Module

Main tool, introspection This historical success story is the heart of reductionism, which essentially proposes that everything big can be understood by discerning smaller and smaller pieces of it. In this viewpoint, the arrows of understanding all point to the smaller levels: humans can be understood in terms of biology, biology in the language of chemistry, and chemistry in the equations of atomic physics. Reductionism has been the engine of science since before the Renaissance. But reductionism is not the right viewpoint for everything, and it certainly won't explain the relationship between the brain and the mind. This is because of a feature known as emergence. When you put together large numbers of pieces and parts, the whole can become something greater than the sum. None of the individual metal hunks of an airplane have the property of flight, but when they are attached together in the right way, the result takes to the air. A thin metal bar won't do you much good if you're trying to control a jaguar, but several of them in parallel have the property of containment. The concept of emergent properties means that something new can be introduced that is not inherent in any of the parts. From Incognito: The Secret Lives of the Brain, David Eagleman Psychology originated in many disciplines and countries. It was, until the 1920s, defined as the science of mental life. Module

Freud ( ) Sigmund Freud, an Austrian physician, and his followers emphasized the importance of the unconscious mind and its effects on human behavior. Module

Psychological Science Develops
Behaviorists Ivan Pavlov a Russian Physiologist, James Watson and Skinner were all instrumental in developing the science of psychology and emphasized behavior instead of mind or mental thoughts. From 1920 to 1960, psychology in the US was heavily oriented towards behaviorism. Watson, a professor at Johns Hopkins said that psychologists should ignore mental events Dismissed introspection, defined psychology as “scientific study of observable behavior.” Watson baby Albert, Skinner superstitious pigeon. Science rooted in observation 20’s-60’s Which of the following approaches to psychology emphasizes observable responses over inner experiences when accounting for behavior? (AP94) (A) Behaviorist (B) Cognitive (C) Existentialist (D) Psychodynamic (E) Structuralist 1 66. Early behaviorists believed that psychology should not focus on “the mind” because “the mind” is (AP04) (A)Too complex (B)Genetically determined (C)Largely unconscious (D)Unobservable (E)Environmentally determined 2 or John B. Watson was a pioneer in which of the following perspectives of psychology? (AP04) (A)Biological (B)Functionalism (C)Psychoanalytic (D)Structuralism (E)Behaviorism 60. John B. Watson is best known as the founder of (AP12) A. behaviorism B. functionalism C. rationalism D. structuralism E. mechanism Skinner ( ) Watson ( ) Watson and later Skinner emphasized the study of overt behavior as the subject matter of scientific psychology. Module

Psychology’s Subfields: Applied
Psychologist What she does Clinical Studies, assesses, and treats people with psychological disorders Counseling Helps people cope with academic, vocational, and marital challenges. Educational Studies and helps individuals in school and educational settings Industrial/ Organizational Studies and advises on behavior in the workplace. 6. Which of the following would an industrial-organizational psychologist be LEAST likely to study? (AP12) A. Managerial Skills B. Employee Motivation C. Job satisfaction D. Corporate profitability E. Pay incentive program Module

Add measures of Central tendency
Need to add percentiles or focus on stats appendix more 49. A student’s test score of 86 is at the 42nd percentile. This means the student has received the 42nd highest score (AP12) answered 86 percent of the test items correctly scored the same as 42 of her fellow students scored the same as or higher than 42 percent of her fellow students scored the same as or higher than 58 percent of her fellow students Research Strategies: How Psychologists Ask and Answer Questions Module 2 Module

Operational definition
A statement of the procedures used to define research variables Allows and facilitates replication of observations Operationally define shoe? critical for reporting and validating research. Operational Definition -- how a variable is measured (assessed) in a specific study. You can often have many different, reasonable ways of measuring the same variable. The survey questions, the test you give, the number of words remembered, etc. 31. A study can be regarded as scientific only if (AP12) A. it utilizes an effective placebo B. its findings are accepted by experts in the field C. its findings are consistent with established theories D. its conclusions are based on strong correlational data E. its conclusions can be verified or refuted by subsequent studies Module

Survey Random Sampling
If the survey sample is biased, its results are not valid Important to avoid sampling errors. Watch out for convenience samples. 2 16. Drawing a random sample of people from a town for an interview study of social attitudes ensures that (AP99) (A) Each person in town has the same probability of being chosen for the study (B) An equal number of males and females are selected for interviews (C) The study includes at least some respondents from every social class in town (D) The study will uncover widely differing social attitudes among the respondents (E) The sample will be large enough even though some people may refuse to be interviewed 34. In order to yield information that is generalizable to the population from which it was drawn, a sample must be (AP12) A. made up of at least 30 members of the population B. as large as possible C. normally distributed D. representative of the population E. made up of at least 50 percent of the members of the population If each member of a population has an equal chance of inclusion into a sample, it is called a random sample (unbiased). The fastest way to know about the marble color ratio is to blindly transfer a few into a smaller jar and count them. Module

(positive or negative)
Correlation When one trait or behavior accompanies another, we say the two correlate. Weakness, no cause and effect 2 27. Which of the following would be used to measure the relationship between age and reaction time? (AP04) (A) Correlation (B) Central tendency (C) A histogram (D) Standard deviation (E) A t test Should be in tesing section 2 70. Which of the following is evidence of the reliability of a new intelligence test? (AP04) (A) A correlation of exists between scores on the new test and scores on the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (B) The test predicts student’s ability to succeed in college (C) The correlation between scores for identical twins taking the test is +0.90 (D) Baseline data for test norming are obtained from a diverse sample of several thousand participants (E) The correlation between scores of participants who take two forms of the test is +0.90 Indicates strength of relationship (0.00 to 1.00) Correlation coefficient r = + 0.37 Correlation Coefficient is a statistical measure of the relationship between two variables. Indicates direction of relationship (positive or negative) Module

Scatterplot The Scatterplot below shows the relationship between height and temperament in people. There is a moderate positive correlation of 41. The correlation between two measures obtained on a group of individuals is graphically represented as a (AP12) A. bar graph B. normal distribution C. histogram D. scatter plot E. frequency polygon Module

Skewed Distributions Positive Negative Mean > Median
85. (NO GRAPHIC) which of the following is true of the frequency distributions shown in the graphs above? (AP12) A. Distribution A has more variation than distributions B or C B. Distribution B has more variation than distributions A or C C. Distribution B and distribution C have the same variation D. the standard deviation of distribution a is infinite E. The standard deviation of distribution b is zero Positive Mean > Median Negative Mean < Median Module

Given random data, we look for order and meaningful patterns.
Order in Random Events Given random data, we look for order and meaningful patterns. 48. An instructor conducted an experiment to determine the effects of two different methods of study on the amount students learned in introductory physics. The results showed that the average amount learned by the group using one method was greater than the group using the other. However the difference was not statistically significant. Which of the following is the most appropriate conclusion to be drawn?(AP12) A. The group of students attaining the higher mean score had studied more than the other group. B. The better study method will have different effects for students of varying levels of ability C. Neither group learned a significant amount D. There is a positive correlation between the results of the two methods. E. There is a possibility that the difference between the two groups occurred by chance. Your chances of being dealt either of these hands is precisely the same: 1 in 2,598,960. Module

Experimentation Experimentation is the backbone of psychological research. Experiments isolate causes and their effects. Preview Question 11: How do experiments clarify or reveal cause-effect relationships? 2 53. The most distinctive characteristic of the experimental method is that it (AP99) (A) Studies a few people in great depth (B) Studies subjects in their natural environment (C) Is an efficient way to discover how people feel (D) Seeks to establish cause-effect relationships (E) Provides a chronological basis for reaching conclusions 2 31. Of the following research methods, which can best establish a cause and effect relationship? (AP04) (A) Naturalistic observation (B) A survey (C) A test (D) A case study (E) An experiment 3. A research design involves two randomly assigned groups of participants. One group receives a one time treatment, and the other does not. Later the two groups are compared to see whether the treatment had an effect. Psychologists call this kind of research (AP12) A. A correlational study B. an experiment C. a case study D. a survey E. a cross-sequential study Module

Exploring Cause & Effect
Many factors influence our behavior. Experiments (1) manipulate factors that interest us, while other factors are kept under (2) control. Effects generated by manipulated factors isolate cause and effect relationships. 2 18. The control group in the experiment is the group that (AP94) (A) The researchers thought would be most aggressive (B) Performed the larger number of aggressive acts (C) Performed the smaller number of aggressive acts (D) Watched the violent cartoon (E) Watched the nonviolent cartoon Module

Double-blind Procedure
Evaluating Therapies Double-blind Procedure In evaluating drug therapies, patients and experimenter’s assistants should remain unaware of which patients had the real treatment and which patients had the placebo treatment. Watch out for confounding variables Remove experimenter bias 2 68. A double-blind control is essential for which of the following? (AP99) (A) A study comparing the IQ test scores of children from different educational systems (B) A study of relationships among family members (C) An experiment to determine the effect of a food reward on the bar-pressing rate of a rat (D) Assessment of a treatment designed to reduce schizophrenic symptoms (E) A survey of drug use among teenagers Neither the participant nor the research assistant knows whether the participant is receiving the treatment or a placebo Module

Independent Variable IV
An independent variable is a factor manipulated by the experimenter. The effect of the independent variable is the focus of the study. For example, when examining the effects of breast feeding upon intelligence, breast feeding is the independent variable. IV "I" am the experimenter, so "I" manipulate the variables. Questions refer to the following study. A student hypothesizes that high school student’s consuming different flavors of a drink before a spelling test will perform differently. A study to test the hypothesis finds that with a bitter drink, performance is best 6 hours after drinking it, whereas with a sweet drink, performance is better one hour after drinking it. 2 96. Which of the following are the independent variables? (AP04) (A) Test scores and high school students (B) Test scores and time of consumption (C) Flavor of drink and time of consumption (D) Flavor of drink and high school students (E) Flavor of drink and test scores 2 97. Which of the following is the dependent variable? (AP04) (A) Flavor of drink (B) Participant’s spelling scores (C) Participant’s ages (D) Time the drink was consumed (E) Number of drinks consumed 2 98. An interaction between variables complicates the researcher’s explanation of findings. Which of the following are most likely involved in this interaction? (AP04) Module

Dependent Variable DV A dependent variable is a factor that may change in response to an independent variable. In psychology, it is usually a behavior or a mental process. For example, in our study on the effect of breast feeding upon intelligence, intelligence is the dependent variable. 2 19. The dependent variable in the experiment is the (AP94) (A) Amount of aggressive behavior exhibited by the children (B) Amount of time that each child spent interacting with the other children (C) Group in which each child was originally placed (D) Violent cartoon (E) Nonviolent cartoon 2 4. In an experiment, which of the following variables refers to the outcome that is measured by the experimenter? (AP99) (A) Independent (B) Dependent (C) Control (D) Random (E) Stimulus Questions refer to the following study. A student hypothesizes that high school student’s consuming different flavors of a drink before a spelling test will perform differently. A study to test the hypothesis finds that with a bitter drink, performance is best 6 hours after drinking it, whereas with a sweet drink, performance is better one hour after drinking it. 2 96. Which of the following are the independent variables? (AP04) (A) Test scores and high school students (B) Test scores and time of consumption (C) Flavor of drink and time of consumption (D) Flavor of drink and high school students (E) Flavor of drink and test scores Module

2 97. Which of the following is the dependent variable? (AP04)
(A) Flavor of drink (B) Participant’s spelling scores (C) Participant’s ages (D) Time the drink was consumed (E) Number of drinks consumed 2 98. An interaction between variables complicates the researcher’s explanation of findings. Which of the following are most likely involved in this interaction? (AP04) (A) Test scores and high school students (B) Test scores and time of consumption (C) Flavor of drink and time of consumption (D) Flavor of drink and high school students (E) Flavor of drink and test scores 78. Which of the following most accurately describes a dependent variable? (AP12) A. Some characteristic of research participants that is constant, such as gender B. Some aspect of a participant’s response that is measured in an experiment C. A factor that is manipulated by the experimenter in order to observe its effects on some other factor D. A factor that can be used to predict how people in an experiment respond E. A factor that is equated for the experimental and the control group Module

FAQ Q1. Can laboratory experiments illuminate everyday life?
Q2. Does behavior depend on one’s culture and gender? Q3. Why do psychologists study animals, and is it ethical to experiment on animals? Preview Question 12: Can laboratory experiments illuminate everyday life? Ans: Artificial laboratory conditions are created to study behavior in simplistic terms. The goal is to find underlying principles that govern behavior. Simplified reality, test theoretical principles Preview Question 13: Does behavior depend on one’s culture and gender? Ans: Even when specific attitudes and behaviors vary across cultures, as they often do, the underlying processes are much the same. Biology determines our sex, and culture further bends the genders. However, in many ways woman and man are similarly human. Preview Question 14: Why do psychologists study animals, and is it ethical to experiment on animals? Ans: Studying animals gives us the understanding of many behaviors that may have common biology across animals and humans. From animal studies, we have gained insights to devastating and fatal diseases. All researchers who deal with animal research are required to follow ethical guidelines in caring for these animals. Animals used in 7-8% of psych research 2 30. According to the ethical guidelines set by the American Psychological Association (APA), which of the following is true of psychological research in which animals are used as subjects? (AP94) (A) It must not involve the use of surgical procedures. (B) It is no longer permitted by the APA without special authorization. (C) It should conform to all APA ethical guidelines for animal research. (D) It must be limited to investigations that use correlational procedures. (E) It may not be conducted by psychologists who do not have a license. 56. Which of the following best describes the response of members of the American Psychological Association to ethical issues in research? (AP12) A. They have just begun to address such issues B. They disclaim ethical concerns regarding research C. They have developed codes of ethics with human participants only D. The have developed codes of ethics for research with animal subjects only E. They have developed codes of ethics for research with both human participants and animal subjects. Module

FAQ Q4. Is it ethical to experiment on people?
Q5. Is psychology free of value judgments? Q6. Is psychology potentially dangerous? Preview Question 15: Is it ethical to experiment on people? Ans: Yes. Experiments that do not involve any kind of physical or psychological harm beyond normal levels encountered in daily life may be carried out. Informed consent Protect from harm and discomfort Treat info confidentially Explain research Universities screen research proposals with ethics committees Preview Question 16: Is psychology free of value judgments? Ans: No. Psychology emerges from people who subscribe to a set of values and judgments. Preview Question 17: Is psychology potentially dangerous? Ans: It can be, but is not when practiced responsibly. The purpose of psychology is to help humanity with problems such as war, hunger, prejudice, crime, family dysfunction, etc. 22. When is it permissible for a psychologist to share a clients test scores with another person? (AP12) A. When an employer inquires about the mental health status about the client B. When the client provides written permission to share the results C. When a school official requests the test scores to aid in a college admission decision D. When the test scores are within normal range E. Never. 40. In a research study, informed consent is a concern of (AP12) A. replicability B. ethics C. statistical significance D. practical applicability E. cross-cultural representativeness Module

Neural and Hormonal Systems Module 3 “…it has been calculated that the number of possible permutations and combinations of brain activity,..exceeds the number of elementary particles in the known universe.” Ramachandran in A Brief Tour Of Human Consciousness Have kids make brain atlas Link to website Based on this information, it has been calculated that the number of possible permutations and combinations of brain activity, in other words the number of brain states, exceeds the number of elementary particles in the known universe. Even though it is common knowledge, it never ceases to amaze me that all the richness of our mental life - all our feelings, our emotions, our thoughts, our ambitions, our love lives, our religious sentiments and even what each of us regards as his or her own intimate private self - is simply the activity of these little specks of jelly in our heads, in our brains. There is nothing else. Given this staggering Ramachandran in A Brief Tour of Human Consciousness 1. A psychotherapist who believes that deviant behavior can be traced either to genetic anomalies or problems in the physical structure of the brain most likely subscribes to which of the following views of abnormality? (AP12) A. Cognitive B. Behavioral C. Biomedical D. Sociological E. Psychoanalytic Module 26

A nerve cell, or a neuron, consists of many different parts.
Neural Communication The body’s information system is built from billions of interconnected cells called neurons. Preview Question 2: What are neurons, and how do they transmit information? Bernstein says “The fact that all behavior and mental processes are based on biological processes does not meant that they can be fully understood through the study of biological processes alone.” p 59 Glial cells help neurons communicate by directing their growth, keeping the chemical environment stable, providing energy & secreting chemicals to restore damage (Fellin 2004) Glial cells playing a larger role than originally thought. Assignment: sketch a neuron. 34 6. Which of the following is considered the fundamental building block of the nervous system? (AP04) (A) Nucleus (B) Neuron (C) Synapse (D) Neurotransmitter (E) Electrical impulse Active Psych CD 1 Neuroscience – Nerve cell demonstrations A nerve cell, or a neuron, consists of many different parts. Module 27

Myelin sheath “Practice makes Myelin, Myelin makes perfect.”
Specialized Glial cells Acts as an electrical insulator Not present on all cells Increases the speed of neural signals down the axon. Key words: myelin sheath; action potentials; axon Charge actually moves along outside of the myelin, the signal travels faster. Allows Neuron to conserve energy because Na+ and K+ ions can only enter at the nodes of Ranvier and it requires less energy for Na and K pumps to reestablish resting gradient (biopsych pg 69) Interesting facts: - The myelin sheath is NOT a part of the axon. The myelin sheath is actually formed of glial cells (oligodendricytes and Schwann cells) that wrap around the axon. - You may have often heard the brain referred to as either white matter or gray matter. The myelin sheath appears white in nature. Hence, the term white matter refers to areas of the brain that are myelinated. Gray matter refers to areas of the brain that are unmyelinated. - When you accidentally cut yourself, you often visually notice that you've cut yourself before you actually feel any pain from the cut. The reason for this is that visual information uses myelinated axons; whereas, pain information uses unmyelinated axons. - The loss of myelin is a significant factor in the disease multiple sclerosis (MS). When myelin is lost, the high-speed transmission of information is slowed down or blocked completely, which could lead the person with the inability to walk, write or speak. 3 67. The primary effect of the myelin sheath is to (AP94) (A) Increase the velocity of conduction of the action potential along the axon (B) Increase the velocity of conduction of the action potential across the synapse (C) Facilitate the incoming stimulus signals at sensory receptors (D) Reduce the amount of unused neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft (E) Protect the terminal buttons of the neuron from destruction by enzymes All in the Mind Podcast The brain Myelnates from front to back. Quote from Dan Coyle Dan Coyle: Myelin is a sheath, it literally forms an electrical tape-like wrapping around the wires of our brain, our axons, the neurons that form chains in our brain and the myelin is what wraps them. And just like electrical tape wraps any wire it serves to insulate electricity, it makes it move faster down the wire and it prevents it from leaking out into the surrounding tissue. And the magical thing about myelin is that when we practice we get more of it and I talked about this with a neurologist at the National Institute of Health and he referred to myelin as sort of broadband for our brain. Every beautiful skill is actually a circuit that's in our brain. Myelin Sheath Parts of a Neuron link .50 Module 28

How neurons communicate
Neurons communicate by means of an electrical signal called the Action Potential Action Potentials are based on movements of ions between the outside and inside of the cell When an Action Potential occurs a molecular message is sent to neighboring neurons Resting potential -70mv, 70 mv less than outside the neuron (biopsychology p 56) The neuron is polarized. Bernstein says that action potentials may travel toward bodies and dendrites 80. The sequence of shifts in the electrical charge of a neuron is called (AP12) A. neural integration B. refraction C. synaptic transmission D. the action potential E. the differential conduction Module 29

Action Potential A neural impulse. A brief electrical charge that travels down an axon and is generated by the movement of positively charged atoms in and out of channels in the axon’s membrane. Sodium Na+ Potassium K+ Chlorine Cl- Voltage gated ion channels (biopsych p66) Refractory period during which the neuron cannot fire 1-2 milliseconds (Biopsycholosy p67) No axon, no action potential Add description from bernstein wave of depolarization Speed from .2 meters/sec to 120 M/Sec. 3 26. Which of the following are most involved in the action potential of a neuron? (AP04) (A) Calcium and sodium (B) Sodium and potassium (C) Potassium and calcium (D) Chloride and calcium (E) Chloride and sodium Module 30

Threshold Threshold: Each neuron receives excitatory and inhibitory signals from many neurons. When the excitatory signals minus the inhibitory signals exceed a minimum intensity (threshold) the neuron fires an action potential. About -65 mv for many neurons (biopsychology p 62) Threshold: (minimum stimulation) Each neuron receives depolarizing and hyperpolarizing currents from many neurons. When the depolarizing current (positive ions) minus the hyperpolarizing current (negative ions) exceed minimum intensity (threshold) the neuron fires an action potential. 3 92. Which of the following occurs when a neuron is stimulated to its threshold? (AP99) (A) The movement of sodium and potassium ions across the membrane creates an action potential. (B) The neuron hyperpolarizes. (C) Neurotransmitters are released from the dendrites. (D) The absolute refractory period of the neuron prevents it from responding. (E) The neuron's equilibrium potential is reached. Module 31

Action Potential Properties
All-or-None Response: A strong stimulus can trigger more neurons to fire, and to fire more often, but it does not affect the action potentials strength or speed. Intensity of an action potential remains the same throughout the length of the axon. Either it fires or it does not Toilet flushing 3 5. Which of the following correctly describes the firing of neurons? (AP94) (A) A protoplasmic transfer of ions (B) A finely graded response (C) An all-or-none response (D) An osmotic process (E) A symbiotic function Module 32

Neurotransmitters Neurotransmitters (chemicals) released from the sending neuron travel across the synapse and bind to receptor sites on the receiving neuron. thereby influencing it to generate an action potential. Cisternas release vesicles filled with neurotransmitter (Biopsych pg 71) Neurons that use certain neurotransmitters may be concentrated in particular brain regions. (Bernstein) 33. Neurotransmitters are typically stored in which of the following parts of a neuron (AP12) A. The nodes of a Ranvier B. The myelin sheath C. The terminal buttons D. The soma E. The axon Module 33

Types of Neurotransmitters
Acetylcholine Serotonin Norepinephrine Dopamine Endorphins GABA Glutamate The slides following this can be viewed sequentially or by using the branching icons on each slide to go forward from this index slide and come back to it. This permits the instructor to select which subsets of slides to present. 4 or Dopamine, norepinephrine, and acetylcholine are all (AP94) (A) Hormones excreted by the endocrine glands (B) Secretions of the exocrine glands (C) Drugs used in the therapeutic treatment of memory disorders (D) Enzymes involved with the degradation of interneuron signals (E) Neurotransmitters that excite or inhibit a neural signal across a synapse neurotransmitters of the limbic system are dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin ... remembered as Limb Donors. " S.A.N.D as Pure As Glu " The excitatory neurotransmitters are: •Serotonin •Acetylcholine (ACh) •Nor-adrenaline/ Adrenaline •Dopamine •Purines •Aspartic acid •Glutamic acid The neurotransmitter song Module 34

Acetylcholine Found in neuromuscular junction
Involved in muscle movements Neurons that use acetylcholine called cholinergenic (Bernstein) Neurons plentiful in the midbrain and striatum, also important for limbic system & areas of forebrain involved in memory. Drugs that interfere with Ach interfere with memory. Alzheimer's patients have a nearly complete loss of Cholinergic neurons in areas that enhance plasticity. 4 or Dopamine, norepinephrine, and acetylcholine are all (AP94) (A) Hormones excreted by the endocrine glands (B) Secretions of the exocrine glands (C) Drugs used in the therapeutic treatment of memory disorders (D) Enzymes involved with the degradation of interneuron signals (E) Neurotransmitters that excite or inhibit a neural signal across a synapse Module 35

Alzheimer’s Disease Deterioration of memory, reasoning, and language skills Symptoms may be due to loss of ACh neurons 4 91. Which of the following neurotransmitters is most directly associated with Alzheimer’s disease? (AP04) (A) Dopamine (B) Serotonin (C) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) (D) Acetylcholine (ACh) (E) Glutamate Module 36 36

Serotonin pathways are involved with mood regulation.
Prozac works by keeping serotonin in the synapse longer, giving it more time to exert an effect Preview Question 4: How do neurotransmitters influence human behavior? Involved in sleep Involved in depression/mood Suicide victims have consistently lower serotonin metabolites (Bach-Mizrachi 2006) Prozac & other anti depressants raise serotonin Prozac works by keeping serotonin in the synapse longer, giving it more time to exert an effect Mood, Hunger, sleep, arousal,…undersupply linked to depression Carbs increase serotonin (Bernstein) Malfunctions in serotonin feedback may be responsible to for some kinds of obesity, pms & depression (Lira 2003) 4 or 42? 74. Prozac functions as an antidepressant medication because it (AP04) (A) Enhances production of acetylcholine (B) Blocks the reuptake of the neurotransmitter serotonin (C) Causes select memory loss for depression producing events (D) Produces a steady, mild state of euphoria (E) Inhibits frontal lobe activity related to depression Lsd and seratonin at nat geo LSD and Seratonin at Nat Geo 2:21 Module 37

Dopamine Important for movement, rewards & pleasure.
Involved with diseases such as schizophrenia and Parkinson’s disease. Learning, movement, attention and emotion Dopamine imbalance also involved in schizophrenia Schizophrenia treatments chlorpromazine & Reserpine (Biopsych 142& 143)…reserpine blocks release of monoamine neurotransmitters. Loss of dopamine- producing neurons is cause of Parkinson’s Disease, (exposure to pesticides 70% increase Parkinson's (Ascherio 2006) Results from loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra Symptoms include: difficulty starting and stopping voluntary movements, tremors at rest, stooped posture, rigidity, poor balance Treatments: L-dopa – increases dopamine levels by deactivating enzymes that break down dopamine (Biopsychology p145), transplants of fetal dopamine-producing substantia nigra cells, adrenal gland transplants, electrical stimulation of the thalamus to stop tremors 4 or Dopamine, norepinephrine, and acetylcholine are all (AP94) (A) Hormones excreted by the endocrine glands (B) Secretions of the exocrine glands (C) Drugs used in the therapeutic treatment of memory disorders (D) Enzymes involved with the degradation of interneuron signals (E) Neurotransmitters that excite or inhibit a neural signal across a synapse Mechanisms for agonists biopsychology 145 Excessive dopamine in basal ganglia lead to disorders known as choreas, uncontrollable movements. Vilayanur S. Ramachandran The Tell Tale Brain pg. 19 Dopamine flood on coke at nat geo Link dopamine flood at Nat Geo 3:44 Module 38

Endorphins Control pain and pleasure Released in response to pain
Morphine and codeine work on endorphin receptors Involved in healing effects of acupuncture Link Endorphins at AM 5:12 Runner’s high - feeling of pleasure after a long run is due to heavy endorphin release Similar to morphine, naturally occurring opiates in the brain Discovered Scientists made radioactive morphine It bound to receptors associated with no known neurotransmitters. Since the brain probably did not “evolve” receptors for morphine it was reasoned that there must be a brain substances that activated these receptors Endorphins – any receptor that can bind to the same receptors stimulated by opiates 4 10. Painkilling substances produced by the brain are known as (AP94) (A) cortisols (B) Endorphins (C) glucocorticoids (D) Pheromones (E) Hormones AM Mind 5 Endorphins: The Brain's Natural Morphine Provides diagrammatic action graphics of neural networks, synaptic junctions, and neurotransmitter sites. Also touches on topics of consciousness, drug addiction, withdrawal symptoms, and nerve functioning. Module 39

Interneurons connect the two neurons.
Kinds of Neurons Sensory Neurons carry incoming information from the sense receptors to the CNS. Motor Neurons carry outgoing information from the CNS to muscles and glands. Interneurons connect the two neurons. Key words: Types of neurons; sensory neurons; motor neurons; interneurons; afferent nerves; efferent nerves Afferent/Efferent Neurons - Efferent require effort because they are motor neurons SAME (Sensory Afferent Motor Efferent) Neurons classified by number of processes extending from the cell body (Biopsychology p 32) Interneurons carry information between other neurons. Only found in the brain and spinal cord. Need a slide for this 29. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the neural chain of evens set in motion by an environmental stimulus? (AP12) A. Receptors, afferent neurons, interneurons, efferent neurons, effectors B. Receptors, efferent neurons, interneurons, afferent neurons, effectors C. Interneurons, effectors, receptors, afferent neurons, efferent neurons D. Effectors, interneurons, receptors, afferent neurons, efferent neurons E. Effectors, receptors, afferent neurons, efferent neurons, interneurons. Module 40

Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)
Sympathetic Nervous System: Division of the ANS that arouses the body, mobilizing its energy in stressful situations. Parasympathetic Nervous System: Division of the ANS that calms the body, conserving its energy. Sympathetic NS “Arouses” (fight-or-flight) Parasympathetic NS “Calms” (rest and digest) 3 21. Activation of the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system results in (AP94) (A) An increase in salivation (B) An increase in digestion (C) An increase in respiratory rate (D) A decrease in heart rate (E) A decrease in pupil dilation 3 86. The role of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is to (AP99) (A) Facilitate the body's fight-or-flight response (B) Prepare the body to cope with stress (C) Promote rapid cognitive processing (D) Prompt the body to use its resources in responding to environmental stimuli (E) Establish homeostasis after a fight-or-flight response 73. Which part of the nervous system is most immediately activated by sudden fear? (AP12) A. Parasympathetic B. Sympathetic C. Neostriatum D. Somatic E. Cortical Module 41

The Endocrine System Preview Question 6: How does the endocrine system-the body’s slower information system-transmit information? Neurons release neurotransmitters directly into the blood. (Biopsychology p77) 18. Which of the following systems produces, circulates, and regulates levels of hormones in the body? (AP12) A. Circulatory system B Endocrine system C. Limbic system D. Sympathetic nervous system E. Parasympathetic nervous system The Endocrine System is the body’s “slow” chemical communication system. Communication is carried out by hormones synthesized by a set of glands. Module 42

The Brain Module 4 Slides from Myers, Runyan, McCubbin, and Jones
Online link Module 4 Slides from Myers, Runyan, McCubbin, and Jones 43 Module 43

PET Scan PET (positron emission tomography) Scan is a visual display of brain activity that detects a radioactive form of glucose while the brain performs a given task. Generally tracking radioactive glucose 4 77. Which of the following allows the examination of living brain tissue visually without performing surgery? (AP94) (A) Computerized axial tomography (B) Stereotaxic examination (C) Retrograde degeneration (D) Biofeedback (E) Ablation 50. Which of the following provides information regarding brain function by monitoring the brain at work through metabolism of glucose? (AP12) A. Computed tomography (CT) B. Electrooculography (EOG) C. Electroencephalography (EEG) D. Magnetic Resonance imaging (MRI) E. Positron Emission tomography (PET) AM The Mind 8. Language Processing in the Brain Demonstrates learning as an active process and shows the PET scan as an effective method of measuring brain function. Courtesy of National Brookhaven National Laboratories 44 Module 44

MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
Magnet aligns spinning atoms, radio waves distort spin & signal of return to orientation is monitored. Noted larger areas in left hemispheres for musicians with perfect pitch 4 77. Which of the following allows the examination of living brain tissue visually without performing surgery? (AP94) (A) Computerized axial tomography (B) Stereotaxic examination (C) Retrograde degeneration (D) Biofeedback (E) Ablation Cost MRI equipment varies in cost, depending on the strength of the scanner. Scanners with more strength produce more detailed images; therefore, these scanners cost more. MRI machines can range in cost between $1 and $3 million. Construction of MRI suites can easily add another $500,000 to the total cost. An extremity MRI machine alone costs $300,000 or more, and can only be used to scan hands, feet and knees. Purchasing a used-extremity MRI scanner can cost as much as $150,000. Read more: How Much Do MRI Machines Cost? | eHow.com A technique that uses magnetic fields and radio waves to produce computer-generated images that distinguish among different types of soft tissue; allows us to see structures within the brain 45 Module 45

fMRI - Functional MRI 4 77. Which of the following allows the examination of living brain tissue visually without performing surgery? (AP94) (A) Computerized axial tomography (B) Stereotaxic examination (C) Retrograde degeneration (D) Biofeedback (E) Ablation 4 79. Which of the following is a brain-imaging technique that produces the most detailed picture of brain structure? (AP99) (A) Electroencephalography (EEG) (B) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (C) Positron emission tomography (PET) (D) Computerized axial tomography (CAT) (E) Electromyography (EMG) AM The Mind 26. The Bilingual Brain Illustrates the capabilities of the fMRI, one of the latest technologies used by scientists to investigate brain functions. Compares MRI scans taken less than a second apart Detects blood moving to active parts of the brain Shows brain function 46 Module 46

Brain Stem The Medulla is the base of the brainstem that controls heartbeat and breathing. Reticular Formation is a nerve network in the brainstem that plays an important role in controlling arousal & attention. Reticular – net like Reticular – tickle me Freud Brain is a Mystery The six parts of the brain are a mystery -- murder mystery -- with clues hidden all over, some backwards, some misspelt. We have murder spelt backwards (cerebrum) and skeletons in the celler (CEREbeLLum controls skeletal coordination). There's a detective PONdering M.O. (pons, medulla oblonga), poisoned mulleb wine (in cerebellum), and someone will die before long (Diencephalon), probably some dyslexic dim-brain (mid-brain). Furthermore, forensics have discovered "brain stem" is made up of letters from midBRAIN, pons, and Medulla oblonga. As well, C+D+E=F because Cerebrum + Diencephalon = Forebrain. In reality, the 6 parts of the brain are: cerebrum, diencephalon, midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata, cerebellum. The major groups are forebrain (the most visible part), the brain stem (three parts piled atop the spinal cord and within the centre of the brain), and the cerebellum hanging off the back. 4. The area of the brain stem that is important in controlling breathing is the A. suprachiasmatic nucleus (AP12) B. cerebellum C. limbic system D. medulla E. hippocampus 47 Module 47

Brain Stem The Thalamus is the brain’s sensory switchboard, located on top of the brainstem. It directs messages to the sensory areas in the cortex and transmits replies to the cerebellum and medulla. The thalamus processes information for all of the following senses EXCEPT (AP99) (A) Smell (B) Hearing (C) Taste (D) Vision In The Tangled Wing: Biological Restraints on the Human Spirit (1982), Melvin Konner calls the thalamus "the major way station of incoming sensation." In What Makes You Tick?, Czerner explains that the thalamus "is the gateway for virtually all of your sensations and directs impulses generated by each of your sensory neurons to its appropriate area in the cortex." For example, the thalamus directs visual information to the primary visual cortex, which we will discuss later in this narrative. In the photograph to the left (image links to source), you can see that the thalami occupy a central location among the subcortical nuclei. As previously noted, the thalami are actually two mirror-image ovoid masses that occupy each lateral wall of the third ventricle. This image is from John A. Beal of the Louisiana State University. The thalami are of primary importance in relaying messages from subcortical nuclei to the neocortex. The thalami are integral to what we will call cortical-subcortical circuits, which we will discuss at length in Part 3 of MyBrainNotes.com. These circuits possibly shift, in certain situations, into what I call autonomous processing mode whereby one circuit supports cognitive processing while another separate circuit supports more automatic processing and behavior, what we would call compulsions. Building on information in Parts 1 and 2, we extensively discuss the neurocircuitry of obsessions and compulsions in Part 3 of MyBrainNotes.com. 48 Module 48

The Limbic System The Limbic System is a doughnut-shaped system of neural structures at the border of the brainstem and cerebrum, associated with emotions such as fear, aggression and drives for food and sex. It includes the hippocampus, amygdala, and hypothalamus. OBJECTIVE 13| Describe the structures and functions of the limbic system, and explain how one of these structures controls the pituitary gland. 4 or Which component of the limbic system has an essential role in the formation of new memories? (AP04) (A) Amygdala (B) Hippocampus (C) Pituitary gland (D) Hypothalamus (E) Thalamus From Searching for Memory Daniel Schacter 1996 Studies of World War II concentration camp survivors and prisoners of war likewise show impaired explicit memory for recent experiences.50 This collection of findings raises the possibility that prolonged stress, resulting in excess exposure to glucocorticoids, could damage the hippocampus and thereby contribute to memory-related abnormalities. The same line of reasoning may apply to people who have suffered extensive childhood abuse. Frank Putnam and his colleagues have reported that sexually abused girls and adolescents have difficulty regulating Cortisol levels. A recent study used magnetic resonance imaging to examine the brains of women who had suffered severe sexual and physical abuse when they were young. The volume of the left hippocampus in the abused women was significantly reduced compared to a control group. Abused women with large reductions in hippocampal volume tended to have more severe psychiatric problems than abused women with lesser reductions in hippocampal volume. But none of these abused women showed any memory problems on a standard laboratory test of explicit memory for recently studied words, and all of them had always remembered their abuse. Yet a separate sample of women who reported an abuse history and showed normal explicit memory for recently studied materials nonetheless had problems, compared to a control group, coming up with autobiographical episodes from childhood and adolescence in response to cue words (much like our patient IC). 49 Module 49

"TALE of the hypothalamus":
The Hypothalamus lies below (hypo) the thalamus. It directs several maintenance activities like eating, drinking, body temperature, and control of emotions. It helps govern the endocrine system via the pituitary gland. Damage to one area can cause overwhelming urge to eat (Bernstein p 80) Damage to another area in males causes sex organs to degenerate and sex drive to decrease drastically. "TALE of the hypothalamus": Temperature Appetite Libido Emotion 4 or Which of the following structures of the brain has been linked with the regulation of hunger and thirst? (AP04) The Four F’s Feeding Fighting Fleeing Mating "TALE of the hypothalamus": Temperature Appetite Libido Emotion 50 Module 50

Reward Center Rats cross an electrified grid for self-stimulation when electrodes are placed in the reward (hypothalamus) center (top picture). When the limbic system is manipulated, a rat will navigate fields or climb up a tree (bottom picture). AM The Mind 6. Brain Mechanisms of Pleasure and Addiction Explores biological motivation and addictive behavior, and takes the viewer through scientists' work on brain stimulation. Sanjiv Talwar, SUNY Downstate 51 Module 51

Hippocampus Important for memory Damage may cause anterograde amnesia
Link 9:58 Stories of HM 19. The brain scans of people with amnesia are most likely to show damage to the (AP12) A. hippocampus B. hypothalamus C. medulla D. reticular formation E. cerebellum Vid AM, The Brain #18 18. Living With Amnesia: The Hippocampus and Memory Amnesia appears in many different forms. This module shows how the extent and location of damage can result in varying levels of memory impairment. Footage of Mike, an amnesic individual, demonstrates the result of an injury to the hippocampus. Mike’s reaction to his memory deficit and drastic coping measures underscore the importance of memory to everyday functioning. Link 9:58 A PhD describes a brain and shows a real human brain 52 Module 52

The Cerebral Cortex Cerebral Cortex Glial Cells
the intricate fabric of interconnected neural cells that covers the cerebral hemispheres the body’s ultimate control and information processing center Glial Cells cells in the nervous system that are not neurons but that support, nourish, and protect neurons Astrocytes provide nutrition to neurons. Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells insulate neurons as myelin. Gyri-Ridges Sulci-Valleys or fissures 4 10. Which of the following parts of the brain is most active in decision-making? (AP99) (A) Reticular formation (B) Corpus callosum (C) Hypothalamus (D) Cerebral cortex (E) Pituitary gland 53 Module 53

Dolphin cortex larger than humans (Bernstein p83)
Cortex equivalents Dolphin cortex larger than humans (Bernstein p83) 4 50. The human brain differs from the brains of most other animals by the relative amount of brain mass devoted to which of the following? (AP04) (A) The occipital lobe (B) The cerebellum (C) The cerebral cortex (D) The homunculus (E) The pituitary gland 54 Figure The cerebral cortex Myers: Psychology, Eighth Edition Copyright © 2007 by Worth Publishers Module 54

Link Frontal lobe development at PBS 13:33
The Cerebral Cortex Frontal Lobes involved in speaking and muscle movements and in making plans and judgments Parietal Lobes include the sensory cortex Occipital Lobes include the visual areas, which receive visual information from the opposite visual field Temporal Lobes include the auditory areas 4 38. The occipital lobes contain (AP94) (A) The primary visual cortex (B) The prefrontal cortex (C) The somatosensory cortex (D) The pons (E) Sensory and motor connections to other brain Regions 4 71. People who have experienced severe damage to the frontal lobe of the brain seldom regain their ability to (AP99) (A) Make and carry out plans (B) Recognize visual patterns (C) Process auditory information (D) Process olfactory information (E) Integrate their multiple personalities 4 20. A person who has a brain injury is having difficulty seeing and hearing. These symptoms indicate that damage has occurred in the (AP04) (A) Parietal and occipital lobes (B) Occipital and temporal lobes (C) Frontal and temporal lobes (D) Temporal lobe only (E) Frontal lobe only AM The Mind 7. The Frontal Lobes: Cognition and Awareness Explains the importance of the frontal lobe in human functioning, and covers brain function, diagnostic assessment, cognitive function, evolution, and comparative behavior. Link Frontal lobe dev. At pbs Link Frontal lobe development at PBS 13:33 55 Module 55

The Cerebral Cortex Researchers able to predict a monkey’s movement 1/10th of a second before it moves Talk about phantom limbs and orgasm in foot. Ramachandran Motor cortex in the front…motor at the front of a car. 4 83. Which of the following areas of the body has the largest number of sensory (AP99)neurons? (A) Back (B) Foot (C) Ear (D) Lips (E) Wrist 56 Module 56

More cortex devoted to sensitive areas
Can tell pc versions due to small genitalia Motor and Somatosensory homunculus similar 4 83. Which of the following areas of the body has the largest number of sensory neurons? ( AP99) (A) Back (B) Foot (C) Ear (D) Lips (E) Wrist 57 Module 57

The Cerebral Cortex Aphasia Broca’s Area Link Wernicke’s Area Link
impairment of language, usually caused by left hemisphere damage either to Broca’s area (impairing speaking) or to Wernicke’s area (impairing understanding) Broca’s Area Link an area of the left frontal lobe that directs the muscle movements involved in speech Wernicke’s Area Link an area of the left temporal lobe involved in language comprehension Link 7:44 Broca’s aphasia – difficulty speaking & grammatically incorrect. Words come slowly. (Can sing fluently-words set to music handled by different parts of the brain) Wernicke-Patient can speak but has difficulty understand the meaning of words and speaking understandably. Tell me what you do with a cigarette? (La Pointe 1990) Broca’s area –”Uh…Uh…cigarette (pause) smoke it.” [Halting, ungrammatical but meaningful] Wernicke- “This is a segment of a pegment. Soap a cigarette.” [Fluent but without meaning] Neil’s dad saying “tan” after his stroke. Foreign accent syndrome (Takayama 1993) Prefrontal damage can result in an inability to get sarcasm (Shammay-tTsoory 2005) Patients with Broca’s aphasia can sing. Vilayanur S. Ramachandran The Tell Tale Brain pg 159 58 Module 58

E. The inferior colliculi Annenberg, The Brain
95. Brain damage that leaves a person capable of understanding speech but with an impaired ability to produce speech most likely indicated injury to which of the following? (AP12) A. The basal ganglia B. Wernicke’s area C. The substantia nigra D. Broca’s area E. The inferior colliculi Annenberg, The Brain 6. Language and Speech: Broca's and Wernicke's Areas The left hemisphere is dominant in this module on language and the brain. Relationships between specific brain areas and verbal processing are shown through the historic example of Dr. Paul Broca’s brain-injury patient. The patient’s preserved brain is subjected to CAT scan analysis, which shows correspondence between the damaged area and the patient’s documented difficulties with language comprehension. Module

Split Brain Sperry and Gazzaniga are key researchers in this area.
Corpus Callosum largest bundle of neural fibers connects the two brain hemispheres carries messages between the hemispheres 4 16. Neurosurgeons cut the corpus callosum in the brain disrupting communication (AP04)between the right and left hemispheres to (A) Prevent the spread of epileptic seizures (B) Reduce anxiety attacks and phobic reactions (C) Reduce the incidence of violent behaviors (D) Treat schizophrenia (E) Reduce mood swings AM The Brain #5 The Divided Brain This module begins with graphic representations of the cerebral hemispheres’ specialized functions. It continues with a description of the brain’s asymmetry, showing diagrams of how the two halves communicate. The extreme case of a patient who has undergone split-brain surgery for treatment of epilepsy illustrates the role of hemispheric organization in sensory perception and verbal skills. a condition in which the two hemispheres of the brain are isolated by cutting the corpus Callosum. Sperry and Gazzaniga are key researchers in this area. 60 Module 60

Behavior Genetics and Evolutionary Psychology Module 5
Online link 61 Module 61

Environmental Influences on Behavior Module 6
Online link Environmental Influences on Behavior Module 6 Module Module 62

Environmental Influence
Culture the enduring behaviors, ideas, attitudes, and traditions shared by a large group of people and transmitted from one generation to the next Norm an understood rule for accepted and expected behavior Preview Question 5: How do cultural norms affect our behavior? 9 50. Which of the following regularities in behavior can most likely be accounted for by the existence of a group norm? (AP99) (A) Students tend to use less profanity with adults than they do with their peers. (B) Most people sleep at least six hours a night. (C) The average annual income of industrial workers in 1972 was $7,250. (D) Male infants have a higher infant mortality rate than female infants. (E) People perform well-learned behaviors better in the presence of others than when alone. Module Module 63

Developmental Issues, Prenatal Development, and the Newborn Module 7
Online link Child Development link at pbs Module

Developmental Psychology
Issue Details Nature/Nurture How do genetic inheritance (our nature) and experience (the nurture we receive) influence our behavior? Continuity/Stages Is developmental a gradual, continuous process or a sequence of separate stages? Stability/Change Do our early personality traits persist through life, or do we become different persons as we age. OBJECTIVE 1| State the three areas of change that developmental psychologists study, and identify the three major issues in developmental psychology. 7 75. Which of the following accurately describes a major change in perspective in the field of developmental psychology over the past twenty-five years? (AP94) (A) A shift from an emphasis on childhood and adolescence to an interest in development over the life span (B) A shift from a cognitive to a psychoanalytic interpretation of developmental phenomena (C) A shift in research focus from cognitive to personality development (D) A decrease in interest in the physiological factors affecting growth and development (E) A decrease in interest in the study of the cognitive components of intellect The debate over whether development occurs gradually, without discernible shifts, or through a series of distinct stages is termed (AP94) (A) Nature vs, nurture (B) Developmental vs, cognitive (C) Cross-sectional vs. longitudinal (D) Continuity vs. discontinuity (E) Maturation vs. learning 7 98. In their discussions of the process of development, the advocates of nature in the nature-nurture controversy emphasize which of the following? (AP94) (A) Socialization (B) Cognition (C) Maturation (D) Experience (E) Information processing Module

PKU - Phenylketonuria Recessive genetic condition where the child lacks an enzyme to break down phenylalanine Untreated, it can cause problems with brain development, leading to retardation, brain damage, and seizures There is no cure for PKU, but patients who are diagnosed early and maintain a strict diet can have a normal life span with normal mental development. All PKU patients must adhere to a special diet low in Phe for optimal brain development. "Diet for life" has become the standard recommended by most experts. The diet requires severely restricting or eliminating foods high in Phe, such as meat, chicken, fish, eggs, nuts, cheese, legumes, milk and other dairy products. Starchy foods, such as potatoes, bread, pasta, and corn, must be monitored. Infants may still be breastfed to provide all of the benefits of breastmilk, but the quantity must also be monitored and supplementation for missing nutrients will be required. The sweetener aspartame, present in many diet foods and soft drinks, must also be avoided, as aspartame consists of two amino acids: phenylalanine and aspartic acid. 7 72. Which of the following is a genetic disorder that results in a deficiency of a liver enzyme which, if not treated soon after birth, may eventually lead to profound mental retardation? (AP94) (A) Down syndrome (B) Tay-Sachs disease (C) Fetal alcohol syndrome (D) Toxoplasmosis (E) Phenylketonuria (PKU) Module

Infants are born with reflexes that aid in survival…
Rooting - turning the head and opening the mouth in the direction of a touch on the cheek Grasping - curling the fingers around an object Stepping Reflex - reflex that causes newborns to start a stepping motion as they touch a surface OBJECTIVE 4| Describe some of the abilities of the newborn, and explain how researchers use habituation to assess infant sensory and cognitive abilities. Swallowing Enables newborn babies to swallow liquids without choking Tonic neck reflex It is also known as the "fencing reflex" because of the characteristic position of the infant's arms and head, which resembles that of a classically trained fencer. When the face is turned to one side, the arm and leg on the side to which the face is turned extend and the arm and leg on the opposite side bend. The presence of the ATNR, as well as other primitive reflexes, such as the tonic labyrinthine reflex (TLR), beyond the first months of life may indicate that the child has developmental delays, at which point the reflex is atypical or abnormal. For example, in children with cerebral palsy, the reflexes may persist and even be more pronounced. As abnormal reflexes, both the ATNR and the TLR can cause problems for the growing child. The ATNR and TLR both hinder functional activities such as rolling, bringing the hands together, or even bringing the hands to the mouth. Over time, both the ATNR and TLR can cause serious damage to the growing child's joints and bones. The ATNR can cause the spine to curve (scoliosis). Both the ATNR and TLR can cause the head of the thighbone to partially slip out (subluxation) or completely move out of the hip socket (dislocation). When abnormal reflexes persist in a child, early intervention involving extensive physical therapy can be beneficial. 32. When a newborn infant is touched on the check, the infant will turn its head toward the source of stimulation. This behavior is known as (AP12) A. rooting B. suckling C. the patellar reflex D. the Moro reflex E. the Babinski reflex AM The Mind #13 (not great) Capabilities of the Newborn Covers infant development and the capacities of the newborn. Module

Prenatal Development and the Newborn
Preferences human voices and faces facelike images, smell and sound of mother preferred How babies see world Talk about habituation 42. The concept of habituation is best exemplified by which of the following situations? (AP12) A. An infant recognizes her father’s voice B. a college student is no longer kept awake by her roommates late-night typing C. A kitten avoids a couch after being reprimanded for sitting on it D. A rat learns to press a bar for food when a red light is flashed E. A motorist drives at the speed limit when there is a police officer in sight on the highway Module

Infancy and Childhood Module 8
Online link Module

Infancy and Childhood Infancy and childhood span from birth to the teenage years. During these years, the individual grows physically, cognitively, and socially. 3-6 Most rapid growth in frontal lobes Need slide for this 8 32. A researcher dabs color on a 16-month-old child’s face and places the child in front of a mirror. Which of the following developmental milestones has been reached if the child realizes that there is something wrong with its face? (AP04) (A) Visual discrimination (B) Recognition of a human form (C) Recognition of self (D) Identification of the gender of the image (E) Perception of the image as a playmate Need slide for autism…maybe not this module 8 61. Which of the following is typically cited as a characteristic of autistic children? (AP94) (A) Minor developmental delays in academic achievement (B) Above-average performance on tests of creativity (C) Severely impaired interpersonal communication (D) Tendency to seek younger playmates (E) Paranoia comparable with that experienced in schizophrenia Stage Span Infancy Newborn to toddler Childhood Toddler to teenager Module

Infancy and Childhood: Cognitive Development
Schema a concept or framework that organizes and interprets information, they are building blocks of intellectual development Schema example 2:23 Bernstein Schema- Generalizations that from as we experience the world. Provide a framework for understanding future experiences. Organized patterns of action or thought that children construct as they adapt to the environment, basic units of knowledge, building blocks of intellectual development. Piaget said schema can involve behaviors (such as sucking), mental symbols (words or images) or mental activities (imagining things). 23? 38. A schema can be described as (AP04) (A) An outer layer of the eye (B) A mental construct (C) A fissure between lobes of the brain (D) An optical illusion (E) A fixed response to a particular stimulus Module

Piaget’s Stages Typical Age Range Description of Stage Developmental
Phenomena Sensorimotor Birth to nearly 2 years Experiencing the world through senses and actions (looking, touching, mouthing) Object permanence Stranger anxiety Some cause and effect Preoperational About 2 to 6 years Concrete operational About 7 to 11 years Formal operational About 12 through adulthood Representing things with words and images but lacking logical reasoning Pretend play Egocentrism Language development Think in symbols Thinking logically about concrete events; grasping concrete analogies and performing arithmetical operations Conservation Mathematical transformations Abstract reasoning, speculation Abstract logic Potential for moral reasoning Sensorimotor – infant’s mental activity confined to sensory functions. Can only form schema for things they can see, hear or touch. Thinking is doing 8 81. According to Jean Piaget, what is the earliest stage at which a child is capable of using simple logic to think about objects and events? (AP94) (A) Sensorimotor (B) Preoperational (C) Symbolic (D) Concrete operational (E) Formal operational 8 32. A baby looks under the sofa for a ball that has just rolled underneath it. According to Jean Piaget, the baby's action shows development of (AP99) (A) conservation of mass (B) Reversibility (C) Object permanence (D) Logical thinking (E) Metacognition 8 79. Which Piagetian stage of cognitive development is characterized by mastery of conversation tasks? (AP04) (C) Concrete operations (D) Formal operations (E) Tertiary circular reactions 5. Egocentrism, animism, and artificialism are characteristic of which of Jean Piaget’s stages of cognitive development? (AP12) A. Sensorimotor B. Preoperational C. Postformal D. Concrete Operational E. Formal operations Sensorimotor, Pre-operational, Concrete-operational, Formal-operational Smart People Cook Fish Module

Piaget Stages Mnemonic
Smart People Cook Fish Sensorimotor, Pre-operational, Concrete-operational, Formal-operational Module

Sensorimotor Stage In the sensorimotor stage, babies take in the world by looking, hearing, touching, mouthing, and grasping. Children younger than 6 months of age do not grasp object permanence, i.e., objects that are out of sight are also out of mind. Mental activity and schemas confined to sensory functions. 4-8 Months 8 32. A baby looks under the sofa for a ball that has just rolled underneath it. According to Jean Piaget, the baby's action shows development of (AP99) (A) conservation of mass (B) Reversibility (C) Object permanence (D) Logical thinking (E) Metacognition 21. Understanding that things continue to exists even when they are not within view is called (AP12) A. mental representation B deep structure C a schema D. object permanence E. assimilation Object permanence in dogs from the psychfiles Doug Goodman Object permanence in dogs 15:20 Module

Preoperational Stage Piaget suggested that from 2 years old to about 6-7 years old, children are in the preoperational stage—too young to perform mental operations. During first half of period (2-4), begin to understand, create, and use symbols During second half (5-7), begin to make intuitive guesses about the world Cannot distinguish between the seen and unseen, or between dreams and reality. Use words to stand for objects. 5. Egocentrism, animism, and artificialism are characteristic of which of Jean Piaget’s stages of cognitive development? (AP12) A. Sensorimotor B. Preoperational C. Postformal D. Concrete Operational E. Formal operations Module

Infancy and Childhood: Cognitive Development
Conservation the principle that properties such as mass, volume, and number remain the same despite changes in the forms of objects Vid clip of conservation (source?) Active psych 2-3 # 7 & 8 Conservation Do conservation extra credit. 8 79. Which Piagetian stage of cognitive development is characterized by mastery of conversation tasks? (AP04) (A) Sensorimotor (B) Preoperational (C) Concrete operations (D) Formal operations (E) Tertiary circular reactions 87. A young child shown a nine inch round bowl and a six inch round bowl containing equal amounts of popcorn says he is certain the smaller bowl has more popcorn than the larger bowl. This child has yet to acquire what Jean Piaget called (AP12) A. object permanence B. equilibrium C. functional fixedness D. conservation E. circular reactions Module

Harlow and Attachment Harlow’s Surrogate Mother Experiments
Monkeys preferred contact with the comfortable cloth mother, even while feeding from the nourishing wire mother Harry Harlow - Studied "hairy" monkeys 14. Harry Harlow’s experiments with rhesus monkeys suggest which of the following as most important for infants when establishing an attachment to their mothers?(AP12) A. The amount of time spent with the mother B. The mother’s ability to protect the infant from physical harm C. The mother’s ability to provide nourishment to the infant D. The tactile characteristics of the mother E. The particular vocalization of the mother Module

Attachment Mary Ainsworth – Strange situation
Unfamiliar playroom Mother and unfamiliar woman Women play with baby – leave briefly How to the babies respond? Link 3:15 Mary Ainsworth - attachment theory - Mary had a little lamb who was attached to her (everywhere she went, the lamb would go) Active Psych 2-3 #6 Strange Situation 8 59. Mary Ainsworth's Strange Situation paradigm is typically used to test young children's (AP99) (A) Ego strength (B) Intelligence (C) Reaction time (D) Attachment (E) Incidental learning Link 3:15 Module

Insecure Attachment Some have insecure attachment, 30%
Avoidant – avoid or ignore mother on return Ambivalent –upset when mom leaves, but vacillate between clingy and angry on return Disorganized – inconsistent, disturbed, disturbing – may reach out for mom while looking away (Moss 2004) Link 2:10 Harlow’s studies showed that monkeys experience great anxiety if their terry-cloth mother is removed. Link 2:10 Types of attachment Link 7:15 8 61. A 14-month-old toddler is placed in an unfamiliar situation with the child’s mother, who then leaves the room for a time. When the mother returns, the child squirms and tries to get away from the mother when picked up, but also seems distressed when placed back on the floor. Mary Ainsworth would consider this evidence of which of the following? (AP04) (A) Hyperactivity (B) Narcissistic personality type (C) A resistant or ambivalent attachment style (D) Disorganized behavior (E) Avoidance Module

Deprivation of Attachment
What happens when circumstances prevent a child from forming attachments? Prolonged deprivation If parental or care giving support is deprived for an extended period of time, children are at risk for physical, psychological, and social problems, including alterations in brain serotonin levels. Why differences Both rat pups and human infants develop secure attachments if the mother is relaxed and attentive. -(Fraley) Early attachments from foundations of adult relationships 67. Developmental research on the formation of attachment indicates that a child’s secure attachment to its mother during infancy is predictive of which of the following during its toddler years? (AP12) A. Social Rejection B. Impulsive behavior C. Social competence D. Divergent thinking E. Shyness Link 13:20 Sensitive caregiving during early childhood builds a healthy foundation for future development. Attachment disorder may be triggered during a child's earliest years when a healthy foundation for trust and attachment is interrupted by abuse and/or neglect, abandonment, separation from birth In such circumstances children become: Withdrawn Frightened Unable to develop speech Link 13:20 Attachment Disorder Module

Social Development: Parenting Styles
Authoritarian parents impose rules and expect obedience “Don’t interrupt.” “Why? Because I said so.” Permissive submit to children’s desires, make few demands, use little punishment Authoritative both demanding and responsive set rules, but explain reasons and encourage open discussion Rejecting-Neglecting completely uninvolved; disengaged. Expect little and invest little Authoritative- highest self esteem, self reliance, Social competence Correlation is not causation Authoritarian (Bernstein p 86)-Tend to be unfriendly, distrustful, withdrawn, less likely to be empathetic, more likely to be aggressive, more likely to cheat, less likely to feel guilt when guilty Permissive-immature, dependent, unhappy, tantrums Uninvolved – more problems with impulsivity and aggression, non-compliance, moodiness, self-esteem 9 40. The most well-adjusted and socially competent chi1dren tend to come from homes where parents employ which of the following parental styles? (AP94) (A) Minimal supervision (B) Authoritarian (C) Authoritative (D) Indulgent (E) Permissive Module

Adolescence Module 9 Online link
82 Module Module 82

Developing Morality Kohlberg (1981, 1984) sought to describe the development of moral reasoning by posing moral dilemmas to children and adolescents, such as “Should a person steal medicine to save a loved one’s life?” He found stages of moral development. Active Psych 2-3 #9 Moral Development : Heinz Dilemma 9 51. Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning is best described by which of the following? (AP94) (A) Personal conscience is innate and all human beings develop it at the same rate. (B) By adulthood, all people judge moral issues in terms of self-chosen principles. (C) Ethical principles are defined by ideals of reciprocity and human equality in individualistic societies, but by ideals of law and order in collectivistic societies. (D) Children grow up with morals similar to those of their parents. (E) Children progress from a morality based on punishment and reward to one defined by convention, and ultimately to one defined by abstract ethical principles. Need a slide for gilligan 9 81. Carol Gilligan’s criticism of Lawrence Kohlberg’s developmental theory is based on the argument that Kohlberg's (AP99) (A) Work has been invalidated by changes in the structure of families in the United States (B) Stages are too limited in their critical-period parameters (C) Theory underestimates the capabilities of infants and children (D) Stages do not apply equally well to all racial and ethnic groups (E) Theory fails to account sufficiently for differences between males and females 52. Carol Gilligan’s critique of Lawrence Kohlberg’s stages of moral development focuses primarily on (AP12) A. the order in which stages of moral development occur B. the key events that mark the transitions between stages of moral development C. the number of stages in moral development D. how the course of moral development might be altered within certain cultures E. differences between makes and females in the course of moral development Link Where is morality at PBS 14:08 AP Photo/ Dave Martin 83 Module Module 83

Erikson’s Stages of Psychosocial Development
Mnemonic Approximate age Stage Description of Task Infancy Trust vs. mistrust If needs are dependably met, infants (1st year) develop a sense of basic trust. Toddler Autonomy vs. shame Toddlers learn to exercise will and (2nd year) and doubt do things for themselves, or they doubt their abilities. Preschooler Initiative vs. guilt Preschoolers learn to initiate tasks (3-5 years) and carry out plans, or they feel guilty about efforts to be independent. Elementary Competence vs Children learn the pleasure of applying (6 years- inferiority themselves to tasks, or they feel puberty) inferior. #4 also industry vs. inferiority Competence AKA industry Bernstein 458 re do and re-read 9 75. A nine-year-old girl first learning about her capabilities on the playground and in the classroom would be in which of Erikson's stages of development? (AP99) (A) Industry vs. inferiority or competence vs. inferiority (B) Identity vs. role confusion (C) Autonomy vs. shame and doubt (D) Integrity vs. despair (E) Trust vs. mistrust Mnemonic link 84 Module Module 84

Erikson’s Stages of Psychosocial Development Mnemonic link
Approximate age Stage Description of Task Adolescence Identity vs. role Teenagers work at refining a sense of self by (teens into confusion testing roles and then integrating them to 20’s) form a single identity, or they become confused about who they are. Young Adult Intimacy vs. Young adults struggle to form close relation- (20’s to early isolation ships and to gain the capacity for intimate 40’s) love, or they feel socially isolated. Middle Adult Generativity vs. The middle-aged discover a sense of contri- (40’s to 60’s) stagnation buting to the world, usually through family and work, or they may feel a lack of purpose. Late Adult Integrity vs. When reflecting on his or her life, the older (late 60’s and despair adult may feel a sense of satisfaction or up) failure. 85 Module Module 85

Adulthood Module 10 Online linke
Add adulthood vid links from Annenberg Media 86 Module 86

Aging and Intelligence
It is believed today that fluid intelligence (ability to reason speedily) declines with age, but crystalline intelligence (accumulated knowledge and skills) increases. We gain vocabulary and knowledge but lose recall memory and process more slowly. A normally functioning 65-year-old who cannot solve abstract logic puzzles as quickly as he did when he was younger is experiencing a (AP99) (A) Phenomenon that is uncommon for people of his age (B) Phenomenon predicted by Erik Erikson as part of the eight stages of psycho-social development (C) Decrease in his crystallized intelligence (D) Decrease in his fluid intelligence (E) Difficulty with concrete operational thinking 87 Module 87

Introduction to Sensation and Perception: Vision Module 11
Online link Introduction to Sensation and Perception: Vision Module 11 88 Module 88

Thresholds Absolute Threshold: Minimum stimulation needed to detect a particular stimulus 50% of the time. Proportion of “Yes” Responses Stimulus Intensity (lumens) Preview Question 1: What is an absolute threshold, and are we influenced by stimuli below it? Proportion or percent Below the curve is subliminal The minimum intensity at which a stimulus can be detected at least 50 percent of the time is known as the (AP04) (A) Visual cliff (B) Just noticeable difference (C) Perceptual set (D) Receptor potential (E) Absolute threshold 89 Module 89

Why Does the “Absolute” Threshold Vary? - Signal Detection
Sensitivity: Intensity of the signal. Capacity of sensory systems. Amount of background stimulation, or “noise.” Response criterion reflects one’s willingness to respond to a stimulus. Influenced by motivation and expectancies. Not meyers Important in psych,…jobs that require attention , air traffic controllers etc. When Jason practices the drums, he tends not to hear the phone. Today he is expecting a call from a record producer and answers the phone each time it rings even when he is practicing the drums. Which of the following explains why Jason hears the phone today? (AP04) (A) Weber’s law (B) Accommodation (C) Frequency theory (D) Signal detection theory (E) Harmonics 90 Module 90

Sensory Adaptation Diminished sensitivity as a consequence of constant stimulation. Preview Question 3: What function does sensory adaptation serve? In house with smell, you don’t notice, clothes rubbing skin, shoes, band aids Diminishing sensitivity to unchanging stimuli 12 1. The longer an individual is exposed to a strong odor, the less aware of the odor the individual becomes. This phenomenon is know as sensory (AP04) (A) Acuity (B) Adaptation (C) Awareness (D) Reception (E) Overload Put a band aid on your arm and after awhile you don’t sense it. 91 Module 91

…we live in the past in a very real way.
Transduction 29. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the neural chain of evens set in motion by an environmental stimulus? (AP12) A. Receptors, afferent neurons, interneurons, efferent neurons, effectors B. Receptors, efferent neurons, interneurons, afferent neurons, effectors C. Interneurons, effectors, receptors, afferent neurons, efferent neurons D. Effectors, interneurons, receptors, afferent neurons, efferent neurons E. Effectors, receptors, afferent neurons, efferent neurons, interneurons. HOW FAR IN THE PAST DO YOU LIVE? It is not only vision and hearing that are constructions of the brain. The perception of time is also a construction. When you snap your fingers, your eyes and ears register information about the snap, which is processed by the rest of the brain. But signals move fairly slowly in the brain, millions of times more slowly than electrons carrying signals in copper wire, so neural processing of the snap takes time. At the moment you perceive it, the snap has already come and gone. Your perceptual world always lags behind the real world. In other words, your perception of the world is like a "live" television show (think Saturday Night Live)… Incognito: The Secret Lives of the Brain, David Eagleman In sensation, the transformation of stimulus energy (sights, sounds, smells) into neural impulses. …we live in the past in a very real way. 92 Module 92

The Lens Lens: Transparent structure behind the pupil that changes shape to focus images on the retina. Accommodation: The process by which the eye’s lens changes shape to help focus near or far objects on the retina. The change in the curvature of the lens that enables the eye to focus on objects at various distances is called (AP94) (A) Accommodation (B) Adaptation (C) Conduction (D) Convergence (E) Consonance 93 Module 93

Retina Retina: The light-sensitive inner surface of the eye, containing receptor rods and cones in addition to layers of other neurons (bipolar, ganglion cells) that process visual information. When struck by light energy, cones and rods in the retina generate neural signals that then activate the (AP99) (A) Parietal lobe (B) Ganglion cells (C) Bipolar cells (D) ciliary muscle (E) Optic nerve fibers 94 Module 94

Optic Nerve, Blind Spot & Fovea
Optic nerve: Carries neural impulses from the eye to the brain. Blind Spot: Point where the optic nerve leaves the eye because there are no receptor cells located there. Fovea: Central point in the retina around which the eye’s cones cluster. The place in the retina where the optic nerve exits to the brain is called the (AP94) (A) Lens (B) Sclera (C) Fovea (D) Blind spot (E) Aqueous humor 16. Visual acuity is best in the (AP12) A. lens B. iris C. pupil D. fovea E. cornea 95 Module 95

Retina’s Reaction to Light- Receptors
Rods peripheral retina detect black, white and gray twilight or low light Cones near center of retina fine detail and color vision daylight or well-lit conditions There are approximately 125 million rods located outside the fovea which code information about light and dark. There are approximately 6 million cones, mostly located in the fovea, which code information about light, dark, and color. Role of rods and cones differ. They contain photopigments – chemicals that respond to light. Light triggers action potentials in photoreceptors (rods and cones) by breaking down photopigments. It takes time for photpigments to regenerate… dark adaptation. 1. Rods are largely responsible for peripheral vision because of their location. 2. Rods are hundreds of times more sensitive to light, therefore, they play a more important role in vision in dim light. 3. Rods produce images that are perceived with less visual acuity than do cones. 4. Rods do not detect color as do cones. 20 min to fully adapt to darkness Which of the following is a possible reason why cats can see better at night that can humans? (AP04) (A) Cats have a higher proportion of rods to cones (B) Cat’s pupils can contract to a smaller opening (C) Cats have a smaller blind spot (D) Cats have a larger optic nerve tract (E) The visual cortex of cats is located farther forward in the cortex 96 Module 96

Bipolar & Ganglion Cells
Bipolar cells receive messages from photoreceptors and transmit them to ganglion cells, which converge to form the optic nerve. Bipolar cell acting as a middle man Ganglion Cells – they sum up the signals from the rods and cones and send action potentials through the optic nerve and to the brain. Each Ganglion Cell sends signals from part of your receptive field Some Ganglion cells have “center-surround” fields (donut) that act as “edge detectors” and some have “center-on” fields that are more direct. Which is why we see “dots” at the corners of the boxes in the Hermann grid Summation: Many photoreceptors synapse with fewer bipolar cells that synapse with fewer ganglion cells When struck by light energy, cones and rods in the retina generate neural signals that then activate the (AP99) (A) Parietal lobe (B) Ganglion cells (C) Bipolar cells (D) ciliary muscle (E) Optic nerve fibers 61. Photoreceptors relay visual information to the brain through which of the following cells? (AP12) A. Trigeminal and vestibular B. Ganglion and vestibular C. Bipolar and vestibular D. Bipolar and Schwann E. Bipolar and ganglion 97 Module 97

Feature Detection Nerve cells/neurons in the visual cortex respond to specific features, such as edges, angles, and movement…. many cortical cells respond most strongly to specific visual information Monitoring one neuron, show monkey various stimuli. To some specific stimuli the neuron responds, to others it responds a little to others it does not respond at all. Various neurons are looking for specific things or features. Link 8:42 Annenberg media the brain #8 46. David Hubel and Torsten Wiesel’s research on responses of the brain to visual stimuli showed that (AP12) A. patterns are recognized exclusively by template matching B. many cortical cells respond most strongly to specific visual information C. patter recognition occurs in the geniculate nucleus D. the retinal image must be upside down to be recognizes E. pattern recognition is better in normal sighted individuals than in nearsighted or far sighted individuals Ross Kinnaird/ Allsport/ Getty Images 98 Module 98

Color Blindness Genetic disorder in which people are blind to green or red colors. This supports the Trichromatic theory. Monochromatic – one color Dichromatic – two color Tricromatic – three color Dogs have limited dichromatic vision (Neitz) Most common in men, it is a sex linked trait Some 10 million American men—fully 7 percent of the male population—either cannot distinguish red from green, or see red and green differently from most people. This is the commonest form of color blindness, but it affects only .4 percent of women. More than 95 percent of all variations in human color vision involve the red and green receptors in men's eyes. It is very rare for anyone—male or female—to be "blind" to the blue end of the spectrum. Nathans provided a genetic explanation for this phenomenon. He showed that the gene coding for the blue receptor lies on chromosome 7, which is shared equally by men and women, and that this gene does not have any neighbor whose DNA sequence is similar. Blue color blindness is caused by a simple mutation in this gene. The most common form of color blindness is related to deficiencies in the (AP94) (A) blue-yellow system (B) red-green system (C) Process of visual summation (D) Bipolar cells (E) Secretion of rhodopsin Ishihara Test 99 Module 99

Opponent Process Theory
Hering proposed that we process four primary colors combined in pairs of red-green, blue-yellow, and black-white. Proposed because of problems with Young Helmholtz. Mix red and green and get yellow, but red and green color blinds often see yellow Yellow appears as a pure color not a mix like purple. Wikipedia The color opponent process is a color theory that states that the human visual system interprets information about color by processing signals from cones and rods in an antagonistic manner. The three types of cones (L for long, M for medium and S for short) have some overlap in the wavelengths of light to which they respond, so it is more efficient for the visual system to record differences between the responses of cones, rather than each type of cone's individual response. The opponent color theory suggests that there are three opponent channels: red versus green, blue versus yellow, and black versus white (the latter type is achromatic and detects light-dark variation, or luminance).[1] Responses to one color of an opponent channel are antagonistic to those to the other color. That is, opposite opponent colors are never perceived together – there is no "greenish red" or "yellowish blue". The retina processes info according to Young Helmholtz (trichromatic) and the information is further processed by opponent processes cells in route to the visual cortex If Carmelita stares at a red spot for one minute and then shifts her gaze to a white piece of paper, she is likely to experience an afterimage that is (AP94) (A) Green (B) Red (C) Blue (D) Violet (E) Black 100 Module 100

Opponent Colors Gaze at the middle of the flag for about 60
Opponent process theory Blue-yellow Red-green Black-white Tire our green response, look at white, only red part active Project, design opponent process French flag. Trichromatic theory problems Cannot explain some aspects of color vision, such as afterimage. Example: Stare at the dot on slide 68 for thirty seconds. Gaze at the middle of the flag for about 60 Seconds. When it disappears, stare at the dot and report whether or not you see Britain's flag. 101 Module 101

The Other Senses Module 12
Online link Module

Frequency (pitch): Determined by the wavelength of sound.
The star player FREQUENTLY PITCHES. Wavelength: The distance from the peak of one wave to the peak of the next. 10. The perceived pitch of a tone is largely determined by its (AP12) A. loudness B. timbre C. amplitude D. complexity E. Frequency The star player FREQUENTLY PITCHES. Module

The Ear Preview Question 9: How does the ear transform sound energy into neural messages? Sketch ear assignment Receptors that are especially important for helping a person maintain balance are located in the (AP94) (A) gyrus cinguli (B) Inner ear (C) Tendons (D) ossicles (E) Ligaments Auditory Illusions Shepherds ascending scale Dr. Fred Hossler/ Visuals Unlimited Link Shepherds ascending scale Module

The Ear Outer Ear/Pinna: Collects and sends sounds to the eardrum.
Middle Ear: Chamber between eardrum and cochlea containing three tiny bones (hammer, anvil, stirrup) that concentrate the vibrations of the eardrum on the cochlea’s oval window. Inner Ear: Innermost part of the ear, containing the cochlea, semicircular canals, and vestibular sacs. The general function of the bones in the middle ear is to (AP99) (A) Convert the incoming sound from pounds per square inch to decibels (B) Protect the cochlea (C) Regulate changes in the air pressure of the inner ear (D) Transfer sound information from the tympanic membrane to the oval window (E) Provide information to the vestibular system The human vestibular sense is most closely associated with the (AP04) (A) Skin (B) Semicircular canals (C) Taste buds (D) Olfactory bulb (E) Rods and cones 11. Balance is influenced by the (AP12) A. cochlea B. basilar membrane C. eardrum D. auditory nerve E. semicircular canals Module

Cochlea Cochlea: Coiled, bony, fluid-filled tube in the inner ear that transforms sound vibrations to auditory signals. 16,000 hair cells Deflect the hair cell by the width of an atom and the cell generates a neural response At highest perceived frequency the cell can respond 1000 times a second. Can wither and fuse with overly loud sounds. Damage can cause deafness or tinnitus…want to know what tinnitus sounds like…. 12 8. The coiled tube in the inner ear that contains the auditory receptors is called the (AP99) (A) Semicircular canal (B) ossicle (C) pinna (D) Cochlea (E) Oval window Which of the following is the correct sequence of anatomical structures through which an auditory stimulus passes before it is perceived as sound? (AP04) (A) Cochlea, ossicles, eardrum, oval window, auditory canal (B) Eardrum, cochlea, auditory canal, ossicles, oval window (C) Oval window, auditory canal, eardrum, cochlea, ossicles (D Ossicles, eardrum, cochlea, auditory canal, oval window (E) Auditory canal, eardrum, ossicles, oval window, cochlea Module

Localization of Sounds
Because we have two ears, sounds that reach one ear faster than the other ear cause us to localize the sound. 1. Intensity differences 2. Time differences 2 ears better than 1 Sound 750 mph, ears can detect difference JND second Time differences as small as 1/100,000 of a second can cause us to localize sound. The head acts as a “shadow” or partial sound barrier. When participants in dichotic listening experiments are repeating aloud a message presented in one ear, they are most likely to notice information on the unattended channel if that channel (AP99) (A) Switches from one language to another (B) Switches to a nonlanguage (C) Mentions the participant's name (D) Presents information similar to that on the attended channel (E) Presents information in a foreign language Module

Taste Traditionally, taste sensations consisted of sweet, salty, sour, and bitter tastes. Recently, receptors for a fifth taste have been discovered called “Umami”. Preview Question 11: How do we experience taste? Fussy eating an adaptation? -Possibly evolutionary/adaptive….picky eaters Umami – MSG Gustatory receptors are sensitive to all of the following taste qualities EXCEPT (AP99) (A) bitter (B) Sweet (C) Salty (D) Spicy (E) Sour Bitter taste at NOVA Sweet Sour Salty Bitter Umami (Fresh Chicken) Taste link at Nova Blocking bitter taste at Nova Module

Chemical Senses: The Flavors and Aromas of Life
Olfaction Olfactory epithelium – top of nasal cavity Pheromone detection of sweat and urine Vomeronasal organ Influence human female reproductive cycles Inhalation of male sex hormone and mood changes Males may respond to sex hormones Menstrual cycles synchronized of females who smelled other women’s sweat The smell of trust….Oxytocin “Investor” given 12 coins, and they can give any number to a “trustee” the coins will quadruple in value and the trustee can return as many or as few as they want. Without oxytocin 1/5th gave the trustee all their coins, in the oxytocin condition about ½ gave the trustee all their coins…..oxytocin had no effect on the number of coins returned by the trustee. (Kosfeld 2005 cited in Brain Candy) 12 1. The longer an individual is exposed to a strong odor, the less aware of the odor the individual becomes. This phenomenon is know as sensory (AP04) (A) Acuity (B) Adaption (C) Awareness (D) Reception (E) Overload Module

Perceptual Organization Module 13
Online link Perceptual Organization Module 13 Module

Perceptual Organization: Gestalt
Gestalt--an organized whole tendency to integrate pieces of information into meaningful wholes a school of psychology founded in Germany in the 1900s that maintained our sensations are processed according to consistent perceptual rules that result in meaningful whole perceptions, or gestalts. Gestalt psychologists showed that a figure formed a “whole” different from its surroundings. Law of Pragnanz: we perceive things in the simplest way possible In psychology, Gestalt principles are used to explain (AP99) (A) Statistical probabilities (B) Somatic behavioral disorders (C) Perceptual organization (D) stimulus-detection thresholds (E) Altered states of consciousness Which of the following is NOT a Gestalt principle of perceptual organization? (AP04) (A) Proximity (B) Similarity (C) Closure (D) Intensity (E) Continuity Module 111

Figure Ground Organization of the visual field into objects (figures) that stand out from their surroundings (ground). Preview Question 15: How do the principles of figure-ground and grouping contribute to our perception of form? 43. (Graphic not included) (AP12) The reversible figure above illustrates the Gestalt organizing principle of A. proximity B. figure-ground C. closure D. common fate E. simplicity Time Savings Suggestion, © 2003 Roger Sheperd. Module

Perceptual Organization: Gestalt
Grouping Principles proximity--group nearby figures together similarity--group figures that are similar continuity--perceive continuous patterns closure--fill in gaps connectedness--spots, lines, and areas are seen as unit when connected The tendency of most people to identify a three sided figure as a triangle, even when one of its sides is incomplete, is the result of a perceptual process known as (AP94) (A) Closure (B) Proximity (C) Similarity (D) Feature analysis (E) Shape constancy Have students illustrate each of these rules, a Gestalt album. Module 113

Depth Perception Depth perception enables us to judge distances. Gibson and Walk (1960) suggested that human infants (crawling age) have depth perception. Even newborn animals show depth perception. Preview Question 16: How do we see the world in three dimensions? Use to test perception and acuity with infants of all sorts Each species by the time it is mobile has abilities it needs. Eleanor Gibson and her colleagues have used the visual cliff to measure an infant's ability to perceive (AP94) (A) Patterns (B) Depth (C) Size constancy (D) Shape constancy (E) Different hues Innervisions Visual Cliff Module

Binocular Cues Convergence: Neuromuscular cues. When two eyes move inward (towards the nose) to see near objects and outward (away from the nose) to see faraway objects. OBJECTIVE 6| Describe two binocular cues for perceiving depth, and explain how they help the brain to compute distance. Climbing an irregular set of stairs is more difficult for an individual who wears a patch over one eye primarily because (AP99) (A) Some depth perception is lost (B) Half of the visual field is missing (C) The ability to perceive interposition is lost (D) The patch disrupts the functioning of the vestibular system (E) The patch alters the ability of the open eye to compensate Module 115

Monocular Cues Relative motion: Objects closer to a fixation point move faster and in opposing direction to those objects that are farther away from a fixation point, moving slower and in the same direction. A person with sight in only one eye lacks which of the following visual cues for seeing in depth? (AP94) (A) Retinal disparity (B) Linear perspective (C) Motion parallax (D) Relative size (E) Texture gradient Module

Perceptual Constancy Preview Question 17: How do perceptual constancies help us to organize our sensations into meaningful perceptions? Example pg 181 AP 43 Yr old who gained sight at 40 lacked perceptual constancy,…people walking away appeared to be shrinking. (Bower 2003) 28. As you watch a friend walk away from you, your retinal image of your friend gets smaller. Despite this, you do not perceive him to be shrinking. This is an example of (AP12) A. a motion parallax B. retinal disparity C. size constancy D. continuity E. common fate Perceiving objects as unchanging even as illumination and retinal images change. Module

Perceptual Interpretation Module 14
Online link Module

Waking and Sleeping Rhythms Module 15
Online link Myoclonic Jerk – that twitch you have just as you are trying to go to sleep From the Mayo Clinic website Myoclonus refers to a quick, involuntary muscle jerk. For example, hiccups are a form of myoclonus. So are the sudden jerks, or "sleep starts," you may experience just before falling asleep. These forms of myoclonus occur in healthy people and rarely present a problem. Module

Biological Rhythms and Sleep
Circadian Rhythms occur on a 24-hour cycle and include sleep and wakefulness. Termed our “biological clock,” it can be altered by artificial light. Preview Question 2: How do our biological rhythms influence our daily functioning and our sleep and dreams? SCN pair of pinhead sized clusters of 20,000 cells in the hypothalamus Vid about guys in cave? Circa –about Diem – Day Body temp rises as morning approaches, peaks during the day and dips in the afternoon and drops again before we go to sleep Bright light at night helps delay sleep (Oren 1998) Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) is a mood disorder people experience during dark winter months. Which of the following is a circadian rhythm? (AP99) (A) The ebb and flow of an individual's emotions during a 24-hour period (B) Jet lag experienced after an airline flight from Los Angeles to Tokyo (C) A cycle of biological functioning that lasts about 25 hours (D) The series of five stages that people go through during a normal night's sleep (E) The systematic alternation between alpha waves and delta waves during the different sleep stages A student participates in a month-long sleep study designed to examine free-running circadian rhythms. If all time cues are removed, the student’s total sleep-wake cycle is likely to (AP04) (A) Average about 25 hours (B) Average about 12 hours (C) Average whatever it had averaged when the student began the study (D) Become even more dependent than usual on the student’s activity level (E) Become extremely variable 15. The biological clock that operates in human beings to adjust their functioning to night-and-day periodicity is referred to as? (AP12) A. a spontaneous neural activity B. the biofeedback monitor C. a fixed-interval schedule D. a circadian rhythm E. active consciousness Illustration © Cynthia Turner 2003 Light triggers the suprachiasmatic nucleus to decrease (morning) melatonin from the pineal gland and increase (evening) it at nightfall. Module

Sleep Stages 1-2 During early, light sleep (stages 1-2) the brain enters a high-amplitude, slow, regular wave form called theta waves (5-8 cps). A person who is daydreaming shows theta activity. Stage 1 may have hallucinations Spindles – Bursts or rapid rhythmic brainwave activity. Which of the following is characterized by a periodic appearance of sleep spindles? (AP04) (A) Stage 2 sleep (B) Stage 3 sleep (C) Stage 4 sleep (D) REM sleep (E) Night terrors Theta Waves Module

Stage 5: REM Sleep After reaching the deepest sleep stage (4), the sleep cycle starts moving backward towards stage 1. Although still asleep, the brain engages in low- amplitude, fast and regular beta waves (15-40 cps) much like awake-aroused state. REM – Rapid Eye Movement Heart rate rises, breathing rapid and irregular, eyes dart around Discovered in 1952 Severe depressives fall directly into REM sleep (Nova) REM dreams have more negative emotions, amygdala very activated, works with aggression and fear. Genital arousal – regardless of dream’s sexual content (Karchan 1966) In young men erections outlast REM, a 25 year old may have an erection half the night, a 65 year old 1/4th the night. Muscles relaxed – essentially paralyzed REM sleep, generally an "active" state of sleep, is accompanied by which of the following paradoxical characteristics? (AP99) (A) Slowed heart rate (B) Slowed respiration rate (C) Lowered blood pressure (D) Lowered muscle tone (E) Reduced eye movements Module

Sleep Disorders Insomnia: A persistent inability to fall asleep. Fatal Insomnia Link 43:19 Narcolepsy: Overpowering urge to fall asleep that may occur while talking or standing up. Narcoleptic dog 1:49 Narcolepsy 4:00 Sleep apnea: Failure to breathe when asleep. Link 2:27 Preview Question 5: What are the major sleep disorders? 9. Rafael has a sleep disorder for which he takes medically prescribed amphetamines. For which of the following sleep disorders is Rafael most likely being treated?(AP12) A. Sleep Apnea B. Narcolepsy C. Insomnia D. Circadian rhythm sleep disorder E. Somnambulism Sleep apnea link Lethal Insomnia Active psych 2/3 Consciousness #13 Narcoleptic dogs Module

Hypnosis Module 16 Credit for the popularity of hypnosis goes to Franz Anton Mesmer, a physician, who mistakenly thought he discovered “animal magnetism.” Some of his patients experienced a trancelike state and felt better upon waking up. According to Mesmer, “animal magnetism” could be activated by any magnetized object and manipulated by any trained person. Disease was the result of “obstacles” in the fluid’s flow through the body, and these obstacles could be broken by “crises” (trance states often ending in delirium or convulsions) in order to restore the harmony of personal fluid flow. Mesmer devised various therapeutic treatments to achieve harmonious fluid flow, and in many of these treatments he was a forceful and rather dramatic personal participant. . Module

Hypnosis Hypnosis Posthypnotic Amnesia
a social interaction in which one person (the hypnotist) suggests to another (the subject) that certain perceptions, feelings, thoughts, or behaviors will spontaneously occur Posthypnotic Amnesia supposed inability to recall what one experienced during hypnosis induced by the hypnotist’s suggestion used by some clinicians to control undesired symptoms and behaviors Hypnosis is best described as a state that (AP99) (A) Gives the hypnotist complete control over the thoughts and emotions of the hypnotized individual (B) Induces heightened suggestibility in the hypnotized individual (C) is similar to an obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (D) Is similar to the condition produced by excessive alcohol consumption (E) is similar to the REM stage of sleep Module

Hypnosis: Pain Relief Dissociation (divided consciousness)
a split in consciousness allows some thoughts and behaviors to occur simultaneously with others Hidden Observer Hilgard’s term describing a hypnotized subject’s awareness of experiences, such as pain, that go unreported during hypnosis #1 is an explanation of how hypnosis helps relieve pain Hypnosis has been found useful in the treatment of (AP94) (A) Pain (B) Autism (C) Dementia (D) Paranoia (E) Schizophrenia Dissociates pain from emotional suffering Evidence - PET scans show hypnosis reduces brain activity in a region that processes painful stimuli but not in the sensory cortex (Rainville 1997) Divided Consciousness Theory: Hypnosis is a special state of dissociated (divided) consciousness (Hilgard, 1986, 1992). Selective attention also an explanation 10% can be so hypnotized as to undergo major surgery without amnesia 50% can get some pain relief from hypnosis AM Mind 2 Hypnotic Dissociation and Pain Relief Describes what goes on during hypnosis and looks at states of consciousness, hypnosis as a phenomenon, and the therapeutic use of hypnosis in treating arthritis. Module

Drugs and Consciousness Module 17
Interestingly consciousness does not come from the whole brain. Vilayanur S. Ramachandran The Tell Tale Brain pg 149 It is possible to have disorders where you do not know that you might be able to do something…as in blindsight. The idea excited all those involved except the person not guaranteed to remain vertical. TN refused to participate.17 He may have had some success in the face test, but what blind man would consent to navigating an obstacle course? The researchers implored him, in effect, to just do it. And they kindly offered to have an escort trail him to make sure he didn't fall. After some prodding, he changed his mind. Then, to the amazement of everyone, including himself, he zigged and zagged his way perfectly down the corridor, sidestepping a garbage can, a stack of paper, and several boxes. He didn't stumble once, or even collide with any objects. When asked how he'd accomplished this, TN had no explanation and, one presumes, requested the return of his cane. The phenomenon exhibited by TN in which individuals with intact eyes have no conscious sensation of seeing but can nevertheless respond in some way to what their eyes register is called "Hindsight." This important discovery "elicited disbelief and howls of derision" when first reported and has only recently come to be accepted. From Subliminal: How your unconscious mind rules your behavior. Online link Module

Dependence & Addiction
Continued use of a psychoactive drug produces tolerance. With repeated exposure to a drug, the drug’s effect lessens. Thus it takes greater quantities to get the desired effect. Preview Question 10: What are dependence and addiction? Can substance abusers overcome their addictions? Tolerance is neuroadaptation 77. An individual who drinks alcohol daily finds it necessary to drink increasing amounts to achieve the state of well-being attained in the past. This individual is showing (AP12) A. withdrawal symptoms B. alcohol-induced psychosis C. alcohol tolerance D. delirium tremens Module

Withdrawal & Dependence
Withdrawal: Upon stopping use of a drug users may experience undesirable side effects. Dependence: Absence of a drug may lead to a feeling of physical pain, intense cravings (physical dependence), and negative emotions (psychological dependence). 17 1. The painful experience associated with termination of the use of an addictive substance is known as (AP94) (A) Discontinuance (B) Tolerance (C) Withdrawal (D) Forced independence (E) Transduction Module

Depressants Alcohol affects motor skills, judgment, and memory…and increases aggressiveness while reducing self awareness. Alcoholics have brain shrinkage (especially in women), women have less of a stomach enzyme that helps digest alcohol (Wuethrich 2001) Alcohol is not a stimulant Disrupts processing of recent experiences into long term memory, heavy drinkers may have recall problems. Lessens impulse control (Steele 1990) Intoxicated college students less likely to use condoms (Macdonald 1996) Expectations effect the effects of alcohol, (vid?) Fake alcohol experiments Drinking contributes to 1400 college student deaths, 70,000 sexual assaults and 500,000 injuries per year (Hingson 2002) Cocktails for kids! Does alcohol have a good side…Moderate drinkers 26% less likely to develop dementia later in life…is it the alcohol or the fact that they are more social? Kaarin & Mack 2009 cited in Brain Candy Daniel Hommer, NIAAA, NIH, HHS Module

(B) Success in developing a social network (C) Agility
In terms of the effect on the central nervous system, alcohol is most accurately classified as which of the following types of drug? (AP94) (A) Depressant (B) Narcotic (C) Psychoactive (D) Stimulant (E) Hallucinogen The psychological effects of alcohol are powerfully influenced by the users (AP04) (A) Expectations (B) Success in developing a social network (C) Agility (D) Intelligence quotient (IQ) (E) Brain dopamine level A central nervous system depressant that produces a false feeling of well-being and efficiency and results in slower reaction time to stimulation is (AP04) (A) Cocaine (B) Marijuana (C) Dopamine (D) Alcohol (E) Nicotine AM The Mind 29. Alcohol Addiction: Hereditary Factors Deals with alcoholism, addiction, biological evidence for hereditary traits, and how science progresses through replication and the development of new technologies. Module

Depressants 2. Barbiturates: Drugs that depress the activity of the central nervous system, reducing anxiety but impairing memory and judgment. Nembutal, Seconal, and Amytal are some examples. Tranquilizers Which of the following will NOT increase behavioral and mental activity? (AP99) (A) Cocaine (B) Caffeine (C) Benzedrine (D) Amphetamines (E) Barbiturates Module

Hallucinogens Hallucinogens are psychedelic (mind-manifesting) drugs that distort perceptions and evoke sensory images in the absence of sensory input. Preview Question 13: What are hallucinogens, and what are their effects? An individual who sees and feels imaginary spiders crawling on his arms and legs is experiencing (AP04) (A) A fixation (B) A hallucination (C) An illusion (D) An eidetic image (E) A phobia Housewife on acid on cnn Another person on acid Leary turn on, tune in, drop out Leary: High priest of lsd Brit troops on lsd LSD – the beyond within, a guy drops acid and then talks about it later in life 9:45 Housewife on Acid on CNN 5:01 Another person on Acid 8:46 Leary and kids who dropped acid…creepy 1:14 Module

Classical Conditioning Module 18
Scene from “Clockwork Orange” Classical Conditioning Module 18 Module

Classical Conditioning
It was the Russian physiologist Ivan Pavlov who elucidated classical conditioning. His work provided a basis for later behaviorists like John Watson. Preview Question 2: How does classical conditioning demonstrate learning by association? Behaviorism – studies behavior without reference to mental processes,…. no place for cognition In Ivan Pavlov's experiments in classical conditioning, the dog's salivation was (AP94) (A) An unconditioned stimulus only (B) An unconditioned response only (C) A conditioned response only (D) Both an unconditioned and a conditioned stimulus (E) Both an unconditioned and a conditioned response Pavlov had a little dog His saliva was clear as spit And when he rang his little bell Pavlov was sure of it Sovfoto Ivan Pavlov ( ) Module

Classical Conditioning is learning that takes place when an originally neutral stimulus comes to produce a conditioned response because of its association with an unconditioned stimulus. Which of the following responses was most likely acquired through classical conditioning? (AP94) (A) The startle response of a baby the first time the baby hears thunder (B) A child's fear of dogs after the child has been bitten by a dog (C) The cry of pain expressed by a man whose hand has been cut on a piece of broken glass (D) The uncontrollable blinking of a woman who has just gotten dust in her eye (E) The salivation of a dog that is halfway through a bowl of its favorite food Module

Pavlov’s Experiments Before conditioning, food (Unconditioned Stimulus, US) produces salivation (Unconditioned Response, UR). However, the tone (neutral stimulus) does not. Preview Question 3: How does a neutral stimulus become a CS, and what are the processes of acquisition, extinction, spontaneous recovery, generalization, and discrimination in classical conditioning? In operant conditioning, the concept of contingency is exemplified by an "if A, then B" relationship in which A and B, respectively, represent (AP99) (A) stimulus, response (B) Response, reinforcement (C) Stimulus, reinforcement (D) Response, stimulus (E) Stimulus, stimulus Module

Pavlov’s Experiments During conditioning, the neutral stimulus (tone) and the US (food) are paired, resulting in salivation (UR). After conditioning, the neutral stimulus (now Conditioned Stimulus, CS) elicits salivation (now Conditioned Response, CR) Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS): A stimulus that automatically and naturally triggers a response. Unconditioned Response (UCR): A unlearned, naturally occurring response to the unconditioned stimulus, like salivation in the dog when food is in the mouth. Conditioned Stimulus (CS): Originally a neutral stimulus that, after association with an unconditioned stimulus, comes to trigger a conditioned response. Conditioned Response (CR): A learned response to a previously neutral conditioned stimulus. 19 3. After several trials during which a dog is given a certain kind of food at the same time that a specific tone is sounded, there is evidence of conditioning if the dog salivates when (AP94) (A) The tone only is presented (B) The food only is presented (C) The food and tone are presented together (D) A different tone is presented with the food (E) A different kind of food is presented without a tone Module

Acquisition Acquisition is the initial learning stage in classical conditioning in which an association between a neutral stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus takes place. Factors affecting the learning of a conditioned response Timing Forward conditioning = CS then UCS Most effective (bell then food0 Backward conditioning = UCS then CS Less effective (food then bell) Simultaneous conditioning = Same time Least effective (food and bell at the same time) Predictability Signal Strength Attention to Stimulus Second-Order Conditioning i.e. Dr.’s waiting room (cs) and shot (ucs)– waiting room could begin to act as ucs… eventually magazines become cs. While adaptive, can cause problems. Predicting Alzheimer’s Disease – ability of patients to be conditioned to blink (air puff = ucs, light =cs) deteriorates. 62. Robert Rescorla’s contingency model of classical conditioning states that (AP12) A. conditioning occurs only when one even reliably predicts the other B. contiguity of stimuli is sufficient for conditioning to occur C. reinforcement contingencies predict extinction D. any stimulus can become conditioned when paired with an unconditioned stimulus E. the only difference between the conditioned response and the unconditioned response is the stimulus used to elicit them In most cases, for conditioning to occur, the neutral stimulus needs to come before the unconditioned stimulus. The time in between the two stimuli should be about half a second. One must reliably predict the other. Module

Acquisition The CS needs to come half a second before the US for acquisition to occur. Because studies of learning show that events occurring close together in time are easier to associate than those occurring at widely different times, parents should probably avoid which of the following? (AP94) (A) Corporal punishment (B) Mild punishment (C) Consistent punishment (D) Inescapable punishment (E) Delay of punishment Module

Extinction When the US (food) does not follow the CS (tone), CR (salivation) begins to decrease and eventually causes extinction. Responses extinguish fastest when they are learned through which type of reinforcement schedule? (AP94) (A) Continuous (B) Negative (C) Variable-interval (D) Variable-ratio (E) Fixed-interval An individual's fear of dogs that is lost as the individual is exposed to dogs in nonthreatening situations is referred to by behaviorists as a fear that has been (AP99) (A) Satiated (B) Suppressed (C) Repressed (D) Extinguished (E) Punished 53. For extinction to occur, which of the following must be true of the conditioned response (CR), the conditioned stimulus (CS), and the unconditioned stimulus (UCS)? (AP12) A. The CR occurs after the CS but does not occur after the other stimuli B. The CR occurs after a stimulus that is similar to the CS C. The CS and the UCS are repeatedly paired, and the CR gains strength. D. The CS is repeatedly presented in the absence of the UCS and the CR loses strength E. When the CR loses strength, a rest period is given, after which the CS again elicits the CR A disappeared CR is called extinguished, not extinct. Module

Stimulus Generalization
Tendency to respond to stimuli similar to the CS is called generalization. Pavlov conditioned the dog’s salivation (CR) by using miniature vibrators (CS) on the thigh. When he subsequently stimulated other parts of the dog’s body, salivation dropped Can be adaptive, toddlers taught to fear cars…..and trucks and motorcycles etc. Or fear snake, fear all snakes 19 7. A two year old child is frightened by a small dog. A few weeks later the same child sees a cat and becomes frightened. The child’s reaction is most likely an example of which of the following? (AP04) (A) Stimulus discrimination (B) Second-order conditioning (C) Stimulus generalization (D) Sensory preconditioning (E) Spontaneous recovery 55. A child who learns that spoons are tableware and the correctly calls forks and knives tableware is demonstrating (AP12) A. rote learning B. imitation training C. discrimination training D. stimulus generalization E. classical conditioning Module

Stimulus Discrimination
Discrimination is the learned ability to distinguish between a conditioned stimulus and other stimuli that do not signal an unconditioned stimulus. Can be used to discover what various organisms perceive Which is a definition of discrimination that most directly applies to classical conditioning? (AP04) (A) Prototype matching to organize information into categories (B) Maintaining information in memory through repetition (C) Differential treatment, usually negative, based on group membership (D) Recognizing an object as distinct from its surroundings (E) Learning to respond differently to similar stimuli Module

Biological Predispositions
John Garcia Conditioned taste aversions Not all neutral stimuli can become conditioned stimuli. Internal stimuli—associate better with taste External stimuli—associate better with pain Biological preparedness Rats developed aversions to tastes but not sights or sounds Nausea could follow stimuli by several hours Get sick after a restaurant visit, you become averse to the taste of the food, not the plates, the shapes of the silverware, the friends you were with, the music you heard. John Garcia showed that when rats ingested a novel substance before becoming nauseated from radiation of drugs, the acquired a (AP04) (A) Conditioned taste preference for the substance (B) Generalized taste preference for similar substances (C) Conditioned taste aversion for the substance (D) Conditioned taste aversion for any novel substance (E) Conditioned taste preference for any novel substance Research indicates that many animals are more likely to associate sickness with a taste they experienced in conjunction with the illness than with a tone or light. This finding supports which of the following claims (AP04) (A) The tone or light must not have been appropriately paired with the onset of illness (B) Illness is not necessarily punishing to subjects (C) Animals may be biologically prepared to learn some things over other things (D) Extrinsic reinforcers may be more effective than intrinsic reinforcers (E) Positive reinforcers are more effective than punishers Rats in an experiment learned to associate sweetened water with a drug that causes immune suppression. Later, the sweetened water alone produced the immune suppression. This outcome is an example of which of the following? (AP04) (A) Learned helplessness (B) Systematic desensitization (C) Operant conditioning (D) Classical conditioning (E) Biofeedback Studies of learning have shown that animals develop an aversion for tastes associated with (AP99) (A) electric shock (B) Extinguished associations (C) Sickness (D) Novel stimuli (E) Starvation Module

Behaviorism John B. Watson viewed psychology as objective science
generally agreed-upon consensus today recommended study of behavior without reference to unobservable mental processes not universally accepted by all schools of thought today Unobservable mental processes – Cognition – thinking 1 or Which of the following statements is true of behaviorism? (AP94) (A) It was formulated to account for cognitive development. (B) It is rooted in Sigmund Freud's view of the importance of early experiences. (C) It focuses on the development of thought processes and knowledge. (D) It holds that development is largely a product of learning. (E) It emphasizes the dominance of heredity over environment. 60. John B. Watson is best known as the founder of (AP12) A. behaviorism B. functionalism C. rationalism D. structuralism E. mechanism Module

Remember that Little Albert generalized his fear of rats into fear of anything with white fur, including a Santa Claus mask, a rabbit, etc. Similar stimuli 19 7. A two year old child is frightened by a small dog. A few weeks later the same child sees a cat and becomes frightened. The child’s reaction is most likely an example of which of the following? (AP04) (A) Stimulus discrimination (B) Second-order conditioning (C) Stimulus generalization (D) Sensory preconditioning (E) Spontaneous recovery Module

Operant Conditioning Module 19

Shaping Shaping is the operant conditioning procedure in which reinforcers guide behavior towards the desired target behavior through successive approximations. link Shape behavior in class The technique of strengthening behavior by reinforcing successive approximations is called (AP94) (A) Positive reinforcement (B) Negative reinforcement (C) Distributed practice (D) Modeling (E) Shaping 45. Which of the following is the best example of shaping? (AP12) A. A child receives five dollars each time he cleans his room B. An employee receives a termination notice after coming into work late every day over a period of three months C. A child gets a candy from a dispenser one time but gets nothing from the dispenser the nest two times. D. A teacher rewards a student for sitting quietly for ten minutes on Monday, fifteen minutes on Tuesday, twenty minutes on Wednesday, and thirty minutes on Thursday E. A rat receives a mild shock each time it tries to open the door of its cage. Link Shaping a lever press in rats Khamis Ramadhan/ Panapress/ Getty Images Fred Bavendam/ Peter Arnold, Inc. A rat shaped to sniff mines. A manatee shaped to discriminate objects of different shapes, colors and sizes. Module

Types of Reinforcers Reinforcement: Any event that strengthens the behavior it follows. A heat lamp positively reinforces a meerkat’s behavior in the cold. Preview Question 7: What are the basic types of reinforcers? Taking a painkiller to relieve a toothache is behavior learned through which of the following processes? (AP99) (A) Shaping (B) Punishment (C) Positive reinforcement (D) Negative reinforcement (E) Omission training Reuters/ Corbis Module

Types of Reinforcement
Positive reinforcer (+) Adds something rewarding following a behavior, making that behavior more likely to occur again Giving a dog a treat for fetching a ball is an example Negative reinforcer (-) Removes something unpleasant that was already in the environment following a behavior, making that behavior more likely to occur again Taking an aspirin to relieve a headache is an example Golf claps Low grade electrical shock only removed when you performed the task 44. Staff members at a mental health hospital do not respond to patients who use threats, but praise patients who are courteous. Which of the following psychotherapeutic approaches is being used? (AP12) A. Assertiveness training B Cognitive therapy C. Behavioral therapy D. Humanistic Therapy E. Psychoanalytic therapy Module

An aversive event that decreases the behavior it follows.
Punishment An aversive event that decreases the behavior it follows. Preview Question 9: How does punishment affect behavior? If a man who is a heavy smoker is given an electric shock every time he takes a puff on a cigarette, which of the following behavior-modification techniques is being used? (AP94) (A) Systematic desensitization (B) Modeling (C) Aversive conditioning (D) Homogeneous reinforcement (E) lnterlocking reinforcement Punishment is most effective in eliminating undesired behavior when the (AP99) (A) Behavior is complex (B) Behavior was very recently acquired (C) Punishment is delivered soon after the behavior (D) Punishment is delivered by someone with authority (E) Punishment is both mental and physical Module

Schedules of Reinforcement
Variable Ratio (VR) reinforces a response after an unpredictable number of responses like gambling, fishing very hard to extinguish because of unpredictability Skinner link 3:58 Reinforcement schedules: variable ratio 86.Which of the following is a partial reinforcement schedule that is most resistant to extinction? (AP12) A. Noncontingent B. Shaping C. Variable ratio D. Fixed ratio E. Fixed interval SLOT machines show SLOwesT extinction. Module

Updating Skinner’s Understanding
Skinner’s emphasis on external control of behavior made him an influential, but controversial figure. Many psychologists criticized Skinner for underestimating the importance of cognitive and biological constraints. 19 7. One major objection to the early Skinnerian approach to psychology is that it (AP99) (A) Did not take into account internal thoughts and feelings (B) Did not take into account overt physical behaviors (C) Did not take into account accumulated experiences (D) Focused primarily on childhood experiences (E) Focused primarily on the unconscious Module

Learning By Observation Module 20
Online link Link to an essay by Ramachandran on the importance of mirror neurons. Module

Learning by Observation
Higher animals, especially humans, learn through observing and imitating others. The monkey on the right imitates the monkey on the left in touching the pictures in a certain order to obtain a reward. Preview Question 12: What is observational learning? After seeing her parents give her brother a dollar for cleaning his room, Sarah begins to clean her own room. According to social-learning theorists, Sarah’s behavior is an example of which of the following? (AP04) (A) Classical conditioning (B) Spontaneous recovery (C) Stimulus generalization (D) Discrimination training (E) Observational learning © Herb Terrace ©Herb Terrace Module

Modeling Violence Research shows that viewing media violence leads to an increased expression of aggression. Interested in cutting murder rates in half? Homicide rates doubled from , coinciding with the introduction of TV . Regions late with the introduction of tv had homicide rates increase correspondingly later (US, Canada, South Africa) Elementary school children with high exposure to media violence involved in more fights themselves. Correlation no causation Other factors that cause lots of TV may be to blame? Neglect, poverty… Tested this by assigning groups to watch violent or non-violence. Violent TV leads to aggressive behavior, especially attractive people who commit seemingly justified violence that is unpunished, caused no visible pain or harm. The terms "modeling" and "imitation" are most closely associated with which of the following? (AP94) (A) Classical conditioning (B) Gestalt theory (C) Hypothesis testing (D) Operant conditioning (E) Social learning theory 96. Gender differences most often have been found in which of the following?(AP12) A. Aggression B. Short-term memory C. Auditory discrimination D. Visual Acuity E. Pattern matching Bob Daemmrich/ The Image Works Glassman/ The Image Works Children modeling after pro wrestlers Module

Information Processing Module 21
Add slide for episodic memory Episodic memory is the memory of autobiographical events (times, places, associated emotions, and other contextual knowledge) that can be explicitly stated. Semantic and episodic memory together make up the category of declarative memory, which is one of the two major divisions in memory. The counterpart to declarative, or explicit memory, is procedural memory, or implicit memory.[1] Module

Studying Memory: Information Processing Models
Preview Question 1: How do psychologists describe the human memory system? Link to memory at pbs/nova According to the information-processing view of memory, the first stage in memory processing involves (AP99) (A) Retrieval (B) Storage (C) Rehearsal (D) Encoding (E) Transfer Link to How Memory works at Nova Keyboard (Encoding) Disk (Storage) Monitor (Retrieval) How Memory Works Nova Sequential Process Module

Encoding: Serial Position Effect
Primacy – early on list Recency – Most recent Do serial position effect lab Elena is presented with a list of 20 numbers. When asked to recall this list, she remembers more numbers from the beginning than from the end of the list. This phenomenon demonstrates which of the following types of effect? (AP94) (A) Mnemonic (B) Primacy (C) Recency (D) Secondary (E) Clustering When a list of words is learned in order, the words most likely to be forgotten are those that are (AP99) (A) At the beginning of the list (B) At the end of the list (C) In the middle of the list (D) Hardest to pronounce (E) Easiest to spell 51. A person assembling a tool one week after reading the instructions can remember the first and last steps of the procedure but not the middle ones. This best illustrates which of the following? (AP12) A. Encoding Failure B. Social Facilitation C. Retrograde Amnesia D. Repression E. The serial position effect Module

Encoding Meaning Processing the meaning of verbal information by associating it with what we already know or imagine. Encoding meaning (semantic encoding) results in better recognition later than visual or acoustic encoding. Ebbinghaus – Learning meaningful material required 1/10th the effort of meaningless material. “The time you spend thinking about material you are reading and relating it to previously stored materials is about the most useful thing you can do in learning any new subject matter” (Wickelgren 1977) 37. In a memory study, the experimenter reads the same list of words to two groups. She asks group A to count the letters in each word, and she asks group B to focus on the meaning of each word for a later memory quiz. During a recall test, participants in group B recall significantly more words than group A. Memory researchers attribute this effect to differences in (AP12) A. priming B. levels of processing C. proactive interference D. procedural memory E. episodic memory Module

Chunking F-B-I-T-W-A-C-I-A-I-B-M FBI TWA CIA IBM
You already know the capacity of the working memory may be increased by “chunking.” Suppressing rehearsal reduces the amount we can remember to about 4 chunks of info (Cowan 2001) 21 8. When rehearsal of incoming information is prevented, which of the following will most likely occur? (AP94) (A) The information will remain indefinitely in short-term memory. (B) There will be no transfer of the information to long-term memory. (C) The sensory register will stop processing the information. (D) Retrieval of the information from long-term memory will be easier. (E) Information already in long-term memory will be integrated with the incoming F-B-I-T-W-A-C-I-A-I-B-M FBI TWA CIA IBM But you didn’t know that you can handle 4 chunks Module

Stress Hormones & Memory
Flashbulb memories are clear memories of emotionally significant moments or events. Heightened emotions (stress-related or otherwise) make for stronger memories. Flashbulb memories can sometimes error Heightened emotions (stress-related or otherwise) make for stronger memories. 21 or An individual's ability to remember the day he or she first swam the length of a swimming pool is most clearly an example of which of the following kinds of memory? (AP99) (A) Semantic (B) Flashbulb (C) Procedural (D) Priming (E) Episodic Scott Barbour/ Getty Images Module

Storing Implicit & Explicit Memories
Explicit Memory refers to facts and experiences that one can consciously know and declare. Implicit memory involves learning an action while the individual does not know or declare what she knows. People with brain damage that keeps them from learning new facts can “find waldo” faster the second time around. They have no conscious recall but clearly have seen figures before Brain appears to have 2 pathways for memory Implicit memory: how does your tongue form the word carpenter, you have no idea until you do it but you can still say the word without difficulty 93. Memory for automatic activities, such as bike riding and handwriting, is known as (AP12) A. declarative B. semantic C. sensory D. procedural E. repressed Module

Figure 7.23: The anatomy of memory.
All the brain structures identified here have been implicated in efforts to discover the anatomical structures involved in memory. The hippocampus is the hub of the medial temporal lobe memory system, which is thought to play a critical role in the consolidation of long-term memories. Damage to the Hippocampus Difficulty forming new memories Diminished in Alzheimer’s patients Neurotransmitters play a role Acetylcholine Alzheimer’s patients show low levels of this Decay theory Memories deteriorate because of the passage of time Distractor Studies – information fades from STM 19. The brain scans of people with amnesia are most likely to show damage to the (AP12) A. hippocampus B. hypothalamus C. medulla D. reticular formation E. cerebellum Fig. 7-23, p. 286 Module 164

Amnesias After losing his hippocampus in surgery, patient Henry M. (HM) remembered everything before the operation but could not make new memories. We call this anterograde amnesia. Damaged on purpose to control epilepsy, the surgery would never be done again, December 5, 2008 H. M., an Unforgettable Amnesiac, Dies at 82 By BENEDICT CAREY He knew that his father’s family came from Thibodaux, La., and his mother was from Ireland, and he knew about the 1929 stock market crash and World War II and life in the 1940s. He knew his name. That much he could remember. In 1953, he underwent an experimental brain operation in Hartford to correct a seizure disorder, only to emerge from it fundamentally and irreparably changed. He developed a syndrome neurologists call profound amnesia. He had lost the ability to form new memories. But he could remember almost nothing after that. For the next 55 years, each time he met a friend, each time he ate a meal, each time he walked in the woods, it was as if for the first time. John suffered a head injury in an accident five years ago. He now has clear memories of events that occurred before the accident, but he has great difficulty remembering any of the experiences he has had since the accident. John's symptoms describe (AP99) (A) anterograde amnesia (B) Broca's aphasia (C) cue-dependent forgetting (D) Selective amnesia (E) Retroactive interference Which of the following is and example of retrograde amnesia? (AP04) (A) Ty cannot recall the face of the thief he saw running from the scene of the crime (B) Cassie’s vivid memory of the explosion of the space shuttle Challenger is not corroborated by those she was with at the time (C) Alberto is unable to remember anything since the accident that destroyed portions of his hippocampus (D) Katie attributes her poor performance on a standardized test to the fact that she took the exam in a room other than the one that she learned the material. (E) Alyse cannot remember any details of what happened right before her car accident 19. The brain scans of people with amnesia are most likely to show damage to the (AP12) A. hippocampus B. hypothalamus C. medulla D. reticular formation E. cerebellum Link to How Memory Works at Nova Anterograde Amnesia (HM) Retrograde amnesia Memory Intact No New Memories Surgery No old memories Memory intact Surgery How memory works at Nova 10:15 Module

Implicit & Explicit Memory
HM is unable to make new memories that are declarative (explicit), but he can form new memories that are procedural (implicit). HM learned the Tower of Hanoi (game) after his surgery. Each time he plays it, he is unable to remember the fact that he has already played the game. Also tracing figures in mirrors Started to have feeling he had seen a researcher…thought he might be in his HS class Also flattened affect, not that concerned about his situation Remembering how to roller skate involves which of the following kinds of memory? (AP04) (A) Semantic (B) Episodic (C) Priming (D) Procedural (E) Prospective So the formula for finding the number of steps it takes to transfer n disks from post A to post B is: 2^n - 1. From this formula you can see that even if it only takes the monks one second to make each move, it will be 2^ seconds before the world will end. This is 590,000,000,000 years (that's 590 billion years) - far, far longer than some scientists estimate the solar system will last. That's a really long time! C B A Towers of Hanoi Link Module

Forgetting, Memory Construction, and Improving Memory Module 22
Online link The seven sins of memory Convention award-winner Daniel Schacter explained the ways that memory tricks us. By BRIDGET MURRAY Monitor Staff October 2003, Vol 34, No. 9 Print version: page 28 Despite memory's obvious benefits, it can also let us down, said Daniel Schacter, PhD, longtime memory researcher and chair of Harvard University's psychology department, at an APA 2003 Annual Convention session honoring the publication of his book, "The Seven Sins of Memory: How the Mind Forgets and Remembers" (Houghton Mifflin, 2001). "Memory, for all that it does for us every day...for all the feats that can sometimes amaze us, can also be a troublemaker," said Schacter of his book, which describes the seven major categories of memory foibles being investigated by psychologists. However, noted Schacter, the same brain mechanisms account for memory's sins as well as its strengths, so investigating its negatives exposes its positives. "We shouldn't think of these fundamentally as flaws in the architecture of memory," he explained, "but rather as costs we pay for benefits in memory that make it work as well as it does most of the time." At the session, during which Schacter received the APA Div. 1 (Society for General Psychology) William James Book Award, he defined his book's seven sins. The first three are "sins of omission" that involve forgetting, and the second four are "sins of commission" that involve distorted or unwanted recollections. Transience--the decreasing accessibility of memory over time. While a degree of this is normal with aging, decay of or damage to the hippocampus and temporal lobe can cause extreme forms of it. Schacter cited as a somewhat facetious example former President Bill Clinton's "convenient lapses of memory" during the Monica Lewinsky investigation. Clinton claimed in the hearings that he sometimes couldn't remember what had happened the previous week. Absent-mindedness--lapses of attention and forgetting to do things. This sin operates both when a memory is formed (the encoding stage) and when a memory is accessed (the retrieval stage). Examples, said Schacter, are forgetting where you put your keys or glasses. He noted a particularly famous instance in which cellist Yo-Yo Ma forgot to retrieve his $2.5 million cello from the trunk of a New York City cab. Module

Forgetting as Interference
Learning some items may disrupt retrieval of other information Proactive (forward acting) Interference disruptive effect of prior learning on recall of new information Retroactive (backwards acting) Interference disruptive effect of new learning on recall of old information What's interfering? Past information? Match the P's (Proactive interference) Recent information? Match the R's (Retroactive interference) Passwords, locker combinations, phone numbers for example When Shelly first had cable television service installed, Public broadcasting (PBS) was on channel 9. Her cable company then switched PBS to channel 16. Shelly now has trouble remembering that PBS is on channel 16 and not on channel 9. This memory problem represents (AP04) (A) Memory decay (B) Retrograde amnesia (C) Reconstructive errors (D) Retroactive interference (E) Proactive interference Module

Thinking Module 23 Online link
Our brains reached full size about 300,000 years ago. Art, tool making etc. appeared only about 75,000 years ago. Vilayanur S. Ramachandran The Tell Tale Brain pg. 118 Earliest tools. Oldowan, about 2.4 million years ago. Vilayanur S. Ramachandran The Tell Tale Brain pg. 119 The Thinker is a bronze and marble sculpture by Auguste Rodin, whose first cast, of 1902, is now in the Musée Rodin in Paris; there are some twenty other original castings as well as various other versions, studies, and posthumous castings. It depicts a man in sober meditation battling with a powerful internal struggle.[1] It is often used to represent philosophy. Look for Whorf Hypothesis labs or activities. Module

Thinking Cognition Cognitive Psychologists
mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating Cognitive Psychologists study these mental activities concept formation problem solving decision making judgment formation From Lahey 9e Cognition is active Information is… Obtained through senses Transformed through interpretive processes Stored and retrieved through memory Used in problem solving and language 65. In studying the behavior of five year olds in free-play situations, a cognitive psychologist would be most interested in the children’s (AP12) A. problem solving strategies B. toy preferences C. degree of cooperative behavior D. prosocial play activities E. choice of playmates The stage had now been set for people to consider the physical brain as having a relationship with perception. In 1886, years after both Weber and Miller had died, an American named James McKeen Cattell published a paper entitled "The time taken up by cerebral operations."9 The punch line of his paper was deceptively simple: how quickly you can react to a question depends on the type of thinking you have to do. If you simply have to respond that you've seen a flash or a bang, you can do so quite rapidly (190 milliseconds for flashes and 160 milliseconds for bangs). But if you have to make a choice ("tell me whether you saw a red flash or a green flash"), it takes some tens of milliseconds longer. And if you have to name what you just saw ("I saw a blue flash"), it takes longer still. From Incognito: The Secret Lives of the Brain, David Eagleman Module

Thinking Concept Prototype
mental grouping of similar objects, events, ideas, or people Prototype mental image or best example of a category matching new items to the prototype provides a quick and easy method for including items in a category (as when comparing feathered creatures to a prototypical bird, such as a robin) We form some concepts with definitions. For example, a triangle has three sides. Mostly, we form concepts with mental images or typical examples (prototypes). For example, a robin is a prototype of a bird, but a penguin is not. Incorporates all the features we associate with a category (Rosch 1978) We recognize things closer to prototypes more quickly A prototype is best defined as (AP94) (A) An example of habituation (B) An example of bottom-up processing (C) The equivalent of feature abstraction (D) The hypothetical "most typical" instance of a category (E) An essential element of category membership Module

Thinking Algorithm methodical, logical rule or procedure that guarantees solving a particular problem contrasts with the usually speedier–but also more error-prone--use of heuristics Check every product in the supermarket until you find guava juice…slow, but eventually you will find it. Module

S P L O Y O C H Y G Algorithms
Algorithms, which are very time consuming, exhaust all possibilities before arriving at a solution. Computers use algorithms. Heuristic…throw out all YY combinations Processing every possible combination of the letters DBRI to arrive at the word BIRD is an example of the use of (AP99) (A) An algorithm (B) An expert system (C) An inference rule (D) A hypothesis (E) A heuristic S P L O Y O C H Y G If we were to unscramble these letters to form a word using an algorithmic approach, we would face 907,200 possibilities. Module

Heuristics with the psych files 15:12
Heuristics are mental shortcuts that allow us to make judgments and solve problems efficiently. Heuristics are less time consuming, but more error-prone than algorithms. Heuristics with the psych files 15:12 Look for guava juice in the juice isle or ethnic food section…may find it quicker, may not find it at all. The practice of solving problems by using a mental shortcut is an example of (AP04) (A) An insightful operation (B) A confirmation bias (C) A hypothesis test (D) The use of a heuristic (E) The use of an algorithm 83. Mental shortcuts or rules of thumb that help solve problems and reduce mental effort are called (AP12) A. heuristics B. algorithms C. syllogisms D. propositions E. concepts B2M Productions/Digital Version/Getty Images Module

Thought Puzzle #1 What got in the way of solving this problem?
Mental Set - Old pattern of problem solving is applied to a new problem. Functional Fixedness – A tendency to think about familiar objects in familiar ways which may prevent more creative use of those objects to solve the problem. A teacher asks students to think of as many uses for a brick as possible. By listing 50 uses, most of which the class finds new and unusual, Susan is displaying (AP94) (A) Computational learning (B) paired-associate learning (C) Hypothetical thinking (D) Divergent thinking (E) Convergent thinking Module

Functional Fixedness A tendency to think only of the familiar functions of an object. 100. Failure to recognize that an object typically not used for a particular purpose can, in fact, serve that purpose illustrates which of the following? (AP12) A. Schema B. Functional fixedness C. availability D. insight E. Confirmation Bias …their ability to think about information in new and unusual ways can actually be hampered when they wield too much brainpower. This seems to be even more true the more you know about a given subject. When people with lots of baseball knowledge, for example, are asked to come up with a word that forms a compound word with plate, broken and shot, they are pretty bad at this task. Baseball fanatics want to say the word is home (home-plate, broken-home, home-shot?!). This isn’t correct. The real answer is glass (glass-plate, broken-glass, shot-glass). What's interesting is that baseball fans who also have a lot of cognitive horse-power relative to their peers-those higher-working-memory baseball fans---are the ones most likely to dwell on the wrong baseball-related answer. Its as if these guys (and girls) are too good at focusing their attention on the wrong baseball information. As a result, they have trouble breaking free of their knowledge and coming up with the correct answer that has nothing to do with baseball. Baseball fanatics high in working-memory have problems thinking outside their base-ball box. From Choke, WHAT THE SECRETS OF THE BRAIN REVEAL ABOUT GETTING IT RIGHT WHEN YOU HAVE TO, SIAN BEILOCK ? Problem: Tie the two ropes together. Use a screw driver, cotton balls and a matchbox. Module

Obstacles in Solving Problems
Confirmation Bias: A tendency to search for information that confirms a personal bias. When given this problem people only test solutions that match their bias. Rule: Any ascending series of numbers. 1 – 2 – 3 would comply. Watson’s students had difficulty figuring out the rule due to a confirmation bias (Watson, 1960). 2 37. A student who strongly believes that genetic influence is the major contributor to human personality is analyzing data gathered about identical twins who had been separated at birth and reunited at adulthood. The student observes many striking similarities in personality and habits within the twin pairs but does not notice differences within the twin pairs that might argue against the student’s belief. This students behavior illustrates which of the following? (AP04) (A) Confirmation bias (B) The availability heuristic (C) An algorithmic error (D) Metacognition (E) A mnemonic 2 – 4 – 6 Discover the rule Module

Fixation Fixation: An inability to see a problem from a fresh perspective. This impedes problem solving. An example of fixation is functional fixedness. Stuck container in drain as an example On a fishing trip, Ed realizes that he has mistakenly packed the sewing box instead of the tackle box. He wants to fish but returns home because he does not have any line or hooks. Ed's failure to realize that sewing thread can be used as fishing line and that a bent needle can be used as a hook is an example of (AP94) (A) Poor problem representation (B) Cognitive accommodation (C) Backward masking (D) Functional fixedness (E) Proactive interference The Matchstick Problem: How would you arrange six matches to form four equilateral triangles? From “Problem Solving” by M. Scheerer. Copyright © 1963 by Scientific American, Inc. All Rights Reserved. Module

Language and Thought Module 24/CH 11 Sec 2
Online link How many meanings can you make by varying the vowel phoneme between B and T? Generally _____________ phonemes carry more information. Bait, bat, beat/beet, bet bit, bite, boat, boot, bought, bout, and but. The consonant phonemes. The treth ef thes stetement shed be evedent frem thes bref demenstretien. Language is so powerful that is has “…produced a species that transcends apehood to the same degree by which life transcends mundane chemistry and physics.” Vilayanur S. Ramachandran The Tell Tale Brain pg. xv Module

Language Structure Phonemes: The smallest distinct sound unit in a spoken language. For example: bat, has three phonemes b · a · t chat, has three phonemes ch · a · t Languages have these sounds in common She has mastered the Phonemes but not the meaning…Ken Lee vid 1:14 OBJECTIVE 11| Describe the basic structural units of language. Bernstein Sea different from tea Sight different from sigh 13 in Hawaiian (low) 60 in Hindi (high) Most languages between 30 and 50 English 42 79. All human languages have several basic sounds in common called (AP12) A. pheromones B. semantic units C. syntactic units D. morphemes E. Phonemes Ken Lee link 1:14 Another Ken Lee link 3:04 Module

Unforgettable = un · for · get · table
Language Structure Morpheme: The smallest unit that carries a meaning. It may be a word or part of a word. For example: Milk = milk Pumpkin = pump . kin Unforgettable = un · for · get · table Grammar a system of rules in a language that enables us to communicate with and understand others A word or part of a word that is in itself meaningful, but that cannot be broken into smaller meaningful units, is called a (AP94) (A) Grapheme (B) Morpheme (C) Phoneme (D) performative (E) Holophrase morpheme: a combination of sounds that have a meaning. A morpheme does not necessarily have to be a word. Example: the word cats has two morphemes. Cat is a morpheme, and s is a morpheme. Every morpheme is either a base or an affix. An affix can be either a prefix or a suffix. Cat is the base morpheme, and s is a suffix. Morpheme-Meaning One morpheme boy (one syllable) desire, lady, water (two syllables) crocodile (three syllables) salamander (four syllables), or more syllables Two morphemes boy + ish desire + able Three morphemes boy + ish + ness desire + able + ity Four morphemes gentle + man + li + ness un + desire + able + ity More than four morphemes un + gentle + man + li + ness anti + dis + establish + ment + ari + an + ism 1. Free Morphemes : Morphemes which can be used as a word on its own (without the need for further elements, i.e. affixes) Example: girl, system, desire, hope, act, phone, happy.. 2. Bound Morphemes: Module

Language Semantics Syntax
the set of rules by which we derive meaning from morphemes, words, and sentences in a given language also, the study of meaning Syntax the rules for combining words into grammatically sensible sentences in a given language Bernstein Fatal accidents deter careful drivers Snows sudden floods melting cause Semantics: Rapid bouquets deter sudden neighbors…syntactically correct but not semantically correct. The rules of grammar are rules of (AP99) (A) Phonemes (B) Morphemes (C) Syntax (D) Semantics (E) Pragmatics Module

Language Babbling Stage (pre-linguistic event) One-Word Stage
beginning at 3 to 4 months the stage of speech development in which the infant spontaneously utters various sounds at first unrelated to the household language Linguistic Genius of babies at TED 10:18 One-Word Stage from about age 1 to 2 the stage in speech development during which a child speaks mostly in single words Link Babies cry in their own language When scientists recorded and analyzed the cries of 60 healthy newborns when they were three to five days old — 30 born into French-speaking families, 30 into German-speaking ones — their analysis revealed clear differences in the melodies of their cries based on their native tongue. Imitating Mom - The way babies imitate melody patterns relies just on a command over their voiceboxes they had before birth, instead of the more advanced control of their vocal tracts they need for vowel sounds. As such, they can begin mimicking their mothers "at that early age," said researcher Kathleen Wermke, a medical anthropologist at the University of Würzburg in Germany. At 10 mo. A trained ear can tell the babies native language Sounds outside native language disappear 58. Which of the following is an example of a prelinguistic event? (AP12) A. Telegraphic speech B. Motherese C. Babbling D. Holophrasing E. Paraphrasing Link to twin babies babbling at each other on Youtube Show babies parent’s face with different voice babies will get upset. AM Discovering Psych Linguistic Genius of Babies on TED Patricia Kuhl shares astonishing findings about how babies learn one language over another -- by listening to the humans around them and "taking statistics" on the sounds they need to know. Clever lab experiments (and brain scans) show how 6-month-old babies use sophisticated reasoning to understand their world. Module

Explaining Language Development cont.
2. Inborn Universal Grammar: Chomsky (1959, 1987) opposed Skinner’s ideas and suggested that the rate of language acquisition is so fast that it cannot be explained through learning principles, and thus most of it is inborn. Children generate sentences they have never heard Sometimes novel errors Language will naturally occur Language acquisition device in place Universal grammar, all human languages have the same grammatical building blocks, nouns, verbs, subjects etc. Pinker agrees, he is the current foremost theorist. Noam Chomsky's view of language proposes that (AP99) (A) There is an inherent language acquisition device (B) Thinking is merely subvocal language (C) Different levels of language ability are hereditarily determined (D) Language acquisition can be explained by social modeling (E) Language is learned principally through verbal reinforcement Module

Language Influences Thinking
Linguistic Determinism (Whorf hypothesis): language determines the way we think. For example, he noted that the Hopi people do not have the past tense for verbs. Therefore, the Hopi cannot think readily about the past. Link Whorf (1956) Language and thinking intricately intertwine. Bilinguals may show different personalities when tested in different languages. Tribesmen in brazil have numbers for 1, 2 and more than that is many. They have difficulty with 1 to 1 correspondence. Put out 7 and ask them to put out the same number and they have difficulty (Gordon 2004) Naming arrows Bernstein…English speakers have more difficulty understanding place value eleven vs. Ship-il in Korean, which means ten-one English speakers have a harder time understanding math compared to many Asian languages. We say what is thirtyseven plus twenty-two, the Chinese say what is three ten seven and two tens two, the structure is implicit in the language…(Outliers, Malcom Gladwel) Average 4yo Chinese can count to 40, average 4yo American can count to 15, and can’t do 40 until they are 5 so they are already behind. …(Outliers, Malcom Gladwel) We say three/fifths many Asian languages say out of 5 parts take 3…(Outliers, Malcom Gladwel) Module

(A) lndividuals have a natural predisposition to learn language.
According to Benjamin Whorfs linguistic relativity hypothesis, which of the following is true? (AP94) (A) lndividuals have a natural predisposition to learn language. (B) Individuals learn positive instances of concepts faster than they learn negative instances. (C) Children learn their first language from their relatives and their peer group. (D) Different languages predispose those individuals who speak them to think about the world in different ways. (E) Children learn quantifying words such as "more" and "further" sooner than they do absolutes such as "every" and "all." 89. The linguistic relativity hypothesis of Benjamin Whorf suggests which of the following? (AP12) A. People of different cultures use similar words for common objects B. Languages with many words to describe certain phenomena lack deep structure C. The number of phonemes used in spoken language is universal across cultures D. People of cultures with few words to describe certain phenomena are more precise in their descriptions E. Speakers of different languages think differently due to the differences in their languages AM The Mind 28. Language and Culture Relates to language development, the nature versus nature debate, and cultural influences on behavior. Whorf hypothesis in interpersonal communication Module

Insight Chimpanzees show insightful behavior when solving problems.
Keith Chen, working with monkeys and economies, monkeys can trade tokens for food…capuchins….when food prices rose they bought less, when they fell they bought more… Showed loss aversion, …gambling game…sometimes a two grape researcher withheld a second grape, sometimes a one grape researcher added a bonus grape,….monkeys preferred the bonus grape condition. A monkey gave another monkey a token for….sex,…first case of monkey prostitution ever. (Superfreakonomics) Kohler, animals appear to like problem solving Wolfgang Kohler considered a chimpanzee's sudden solving of a problem evidence of (AP99) (A) Instinct (B) Modeling (C) Learning set (D) Insight (E) Spontaneous recovery Chimp Problem solving: Sultan uses sticks to get food. Module

Intelligence Module 25 Online link
Intelligence Module 25 Module

General Intelligence Spearman proposed that general intelligence (g) is linked to many clusters that can be analyzed by factor analysis. Charles Spearman ( ) Factor analysis identifies clusters of related items Which of the following methods is used in studies designed to determine the primary components of intelligence? (AP99) (A) Test-retest (B) Alternate forms (C) Random sampling (D) Factor analysis (E) Standardization Link BBC Horizon Battle of the Brains A variety of people have their IQ’s tested. For example, people who do well on vocabulary examinations do well on paragraph comprehension examinations, a cluster that helps define verbal intelligence. Other factors include a spatial ability factor, and a reasoning ability factor. Link Battle of the Brains 49:23 Module

Intelligence and Creativity
Creativity is the ability to produce ideas that are both novel and valuable. It correlates somewhat with intelligence. Preview Question 9: What is creativity, and what fosters this ability? Academic intelligence does not equal creativity. 1 The greater the variety of expertise the more ways we can combine that expertise in novel ways 3 must be able to tolerate ambiguity & risk and persevere in overcoming obstacles 92. To score high on a test of creativity, a person’s answers should be (AP12) A. original and valuable B. normative and divergent C. normative and convergent D. unconscious and illogical E. simple and contextual Charles limb on creativity on ted Expertise: A well-developed knowledge base. Imaginative Thinking: The ability to see things in novel ways, recognize patterns and make connections. A Venturesome Personality: A personality that seeks new experiences rather than following the pack. Intrinsic Motivation: A motivation to be creative from within, must enjoy challenges. A Creative Environment: A creative and supportive environment allows creativity to bloom. Creativity on TED Module

Alfred Binet Alfred Binet practiced a modern form of intelligence testing by developing questions that would predict children’s future progress in the Paris school system. Identify kids with special needs in France in 1904 Assuming development follows same course -some develop more rapidly -brighter kids would be ahead in development and answer “older” questions The goal was to measure mental age Alfred Binet’s most important contribution to psychology was in the area of (AP04) (A)Intelligence testing (B)Visual perception (C) Psychopathology (D) Comparative psychology (E) Classical conditioning 69. Alfred Binet’s efforts to measure intelligence were directed at (AP12) A. testing the worth of various theoretical definitions B. operationally defining one theory of intelligence C. predicting children’s success in school D. selection workers for successful job performance E. establishing the learning potential of French military recruits It was to be the beginning of a long and fruitful collaboration between the two scientists. By 1905, Binet and Simon had created their first test, labeled "New Methods for Diagnosing Idiocy, Imbecility, and Moron Status." Soon after, they introduced a revised version, for children aged three to 13, which was simply called the Binet-Simon Scale. It was revised once more in 1908, and then again in Based on their many years of observing children, Binet and Simon put together 30 tests of increasing difficulty… from unknown source. Module

The following is the formula of Intelligence Quotient (IQ)
Lewis Terman In the US, Lewis Terman adapted Binet’s test for American school children and named the test the Stanford-Binet Test. The following is the formula of Intelligence Quotient (IQ) Terman worked at Stanford French age norms worked poorly in the US Intelligence Quotient introduced by William Stern: Mental age = chronological age then IQ = 100 Does not work for adults Assess performance relative to the average performance of others the same age Average is 100 and 2/3 of people are between 85 and 115 The intelligence quotient (IQ) has traditionally been based on the relationship between an individual's mental age and his or her (AP94) (A) Stage of cognitive development (B) Level of physiological development (C) Reading ability (D) Chronological age (E) Quantitative aptitude According to the Stanford-Binet formula for an intelligence quotient (IQ), the IQ of a ten year- old child with a mental age of eight and a half years is (AP99) (A) 85 (B) 95 (C) 100 (D) 105 (E) 115 24. On individual intelligence tests such as the Stanford-Binet and Wechsler scales, an IQ of 100 indicated that the test taker (AP12) A. correctly answered all of the items on the test B. obtained the highest scores in the standardization sample C. scored average level for test takers of the same age D. scored above the level of the average American adult E. took as long as the average test taker to answer the test items. Add info about the termites Module

Normal Curve Standardized tests establish a normal distribution of scores on a tested population in a bell-shaped pattern called the normal curve. The performance of the group on which an IQ test is standardized sets the (AP99) (A) Method of administration most suitable for the test (B) Extent to which IQ is determined by environment (C) Criteria for the diagnostic significance of intelligence (D) Degree of validity of the IQ test (E) Norms against which the performance of later test takers can be evaluated Module

Reliability A test is reliable when it yields consistent results. To establish reliability researchers establish different procedures: Stanford Binet & Wais & wisc have reliabilities of .9 which is very high…..1.0 would be the highest 59. All of the following are reasons for requiring clearly specified procedures for the administration and scoring of assessment measures, such as standardized tests, EXCEPT to (AP12) A. allow comparisons among scores of various test takers B. reduce the possible effects of extraneous variables on scores C. increase the reliability and validity of the test scores D. decrease the amount of time needed to administer the test E. Increase the objectivity of the scoring procedures used. 98. The correlation between scores obtained on two halves of a single test yields information about the test’s (AP12) A. reliability B. validity C. frequency distribution of scores D. central tendency of scores E. standard error of measurement Split-half Reliability: Dividing the test into two equal halves and assessing how consistent the scores are. Test-Retest Reliability: Using the same test on two occasions to measure consistency. Module

Validity Reliability of a test does not ensure validity. Validity of a test refers to what the test is supposed to measure or predict. Predictive power of tests lessens as you get older. Past grades are better predictors. Tests not as predictive as they are reliable. Which of the following is the most appropriate criterion for evaluating the predictive validity of an intelligence test? (AP99) (A) Intelligence quotient (B) Mental age (C) Chronological age (D) Scholastic aptitude (E) School grades A test that fails to predict what it is designed to predict lacks (AP04) (A )Standardization (B) Norms (C) Fairness (D )Validity (E) Reliability 63. Which of the following types of validity is established by demonstrating that there is a correlation between scores on a test and later academic performance? (AP12) A. Content B. Predictive C. Face D. Concurrent E. Test-retest Content Validity: Refers to the extent a test measures a particular behavior or trait. Predictive Validity: Refers to the function of a test in predicting a particular behavior or trait. Module

Genetic Influences Studies of twins, family members, and adopted children together support the idea that there is a significant genetic contribution to intelligence. Intelligence scores of identical twins reared together match very well. (test reliability .9) so .85 is very high. Scores of fraternal twins are less similar 70% of intelligence score variation attributed to genetics (bochard 1996) Identical twins similar amounts of grey matter (Thompson 2001) Researchers have used genetics to make mice that learn more quickly. (Tsien 2000) The hypothesis that intelligence is in part inherited is best supported by the fact that the IQ correlation for (AP94) (A) Pairs of twins reared together is greater than the correlation for pairs of twins reared apart (B) Pairs of identical twins is greater than for pairs of fraternal twins (C) Pairs of fraternal twins is greater than the correlation for other pairs of siblings (D) Adopted children and their adoptive parents is greater than zero (E) Adopted children and their adoptive parents is greater than the correlation for the same children and their biological parents The correlations between the IQ scores of identical twins reared apart are lower than those of identical twins reared together. This difference is best explained by which of the following? (AP04) (A )Heredity plays an important role in determining IQ (B) Environment plays an important role in determining IQ (C )Heredity plays no role in determining IQ (D )Environment plays no role in determining IQ (E) Heredity and environment play an equal role in determining IQ Module

Adoption Studies Adopted children show a marginal correlation in verbal ability to their adopted parents. As time passed adoptees scores matched adopted parents better 66. Which of the following results of correlational studies implies that the environment contributes to the determination of IQ? (AP12) A. Correlations are higher for identical twins than fraternal twins B. Correlations are higher for children and their biological parents than for children and their adoptive parents C. Correlations are higher for parents and their children than for husbands and wives. D. Correlations for two children in the same family are lower when one of the children is adopted than when both are the biological offspring of the parents E. Correlations for children and their adoptive parents are statistically significant and positive From Better Angels of Our Nature Steven Pinker Intelligence itself is highly correlated with crime, duller people commit more violent crimes and are more likely to be the victims of a violent crime and though we can't rule out the possibility that the effect of self-control is really an effect of intelligence or vice versa, it's likely that both traits contribute independently to nonviolence.109 Another clue that self-control is heritable is that a syndrome marked by a shortage of self-control, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (which is also linked with delinquency and crime), is among the most heritable of personality traits.110 So far all the evidence that violence is released by a lack of self-control is correlational. It comes from the discovery that some people have less self-control than others, and that those people are likelier to misbehave, get angry, and commit more crimes. But the correlation doesn't prove causation. Module

Introduction to Motivation: Hunger Module 26 Link: Battle at Kruger 8:24
Link Battle at Kruger on youtube Module

Drive Reduction Theory Cont.
Primary Drives Unlearned Food Water Temperature regulation Secondary Drives Learned Money Shelter Job Problem with Drive-Reduction – once homeostasis is achieved we’d never do anything Not just balance we’re looking for Drive reduction as a motivational concept is best exemplified by which of the following? (AP99) (A) The sweet taste of chocolate (B) Electric stimulation to the pleasure center of the brain (C) A monkey using its tail as a fifth limb to climb higher in a tree (D) The injection of heroin by an addict to avoid withdrawal symptoms (E) The enjoyment of a frightening movie Drive Reduction Food Empty Stomach (Food Deprived) Stomach Full Organism Module

-tendency to maintain a balanced or constant internal state
Homeostasis -tendency to maintain a balanced or constant internal state -regulation of any aspect of body chemistry around a particular level Drives may be an upset in homeostasis, inducing behavior to correct the imbalance Animals do behave in accordance with their tissue needs (e.g., increasing or decreasing caloric intake, drive for salt) However, homeostasis cannot explain all drives Temperature regulation is an example Theories of motivation that assert the existence of biological motives to maintain the body in a steady state are called (AP94) (A) Mechanistic (B) Homeostatic (C) reductionistic (D) Genetic (E) Instinctual 88. Which of the following concepts provides the best explanation for why people seek to put on warmer clothing when they start to feel cold? (AP12) A. Set-point theory B. Homeostasis C. Self-serving bias D. Refractory period E. Assimilation Module

Incentive Where our needs push, incentives (positive or negative stimuli) pull us in reducing our drives. Food deprivation is a need Odor of bread is an incentive 97. Which of the following statements best depicts the concept of the incentive theory? (AP12) A. Roger has not eaten all day; therefore, he daydreams about pizza B. Pam was extremely thirsty and drank two bottles of water after running two miles C. Jennifer studies hard because her parents reward her by paying her $20 for each superior grade that she brings home D. Despite low grades, Fred continues to study because he is interested in the material E. Kevin says that he is constantly hungry and eats at least five meals a day to reduce his hunger A food-deprived person who smells baking bread (incentive) feels a strong hunger drive. Module

Hierarchy of Needs Order not universally fixed
Self esteem matters most in individualistic nations According to Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following statements is true? (AP94) (A) Individuals may have peak experiences when meeting physiological needs. (B) Self-actualization will always precede the meeting of needs for esteem. (C) There are cultural differences in the rate at which individuals attain self-actualization. (D) Women are more likely to reach self-actualization than men are. (E) Physiological needs must be met before an individual achieves self-actualization. In Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, living up to one’s potential and striving for personal fulfillment are referred to as (AP04) (A) Biological needs (B) Aesthetic needs (C) Physiological needs (D) Belonging needs (E) Self-actualization needs Module

Body Chemistry & the Brain
Levels of glucose in the blood are monitored by receptors (neurons) in the stomach, liver, and intestines. They send signals to the hypothalamus in the brain. Insulin and Glucose are two substances in the blood that are critical in regulating hunger levels The glucose level in blood is maintained. 26 1. An individual experiencing a low blood-glucose level would be best advised to do which of the following? (AP99) (A) Take a nap (B) Eat a snack (C) Drink a glass of water (D) Drink a diet soda (E) Get some exercise Rat Hypothalamus Glucose Molecule Module

LATEral is snacking [feeding] center.
Hypothalamic Centers The lateral hypothalamus (LH) brings on hunger (stimulation). Destroy the LH, and the animal has no interest in eating. The reduction of blood glucose stimulates orexin in the LH, which leads rats to eat ravenously. Hunger center If stimulated repeatedly it would cause an animal to eat. "Late night snack": LATEral is snacking [feeding] center. Therefore, ventromedial is satiety center. "Stim the lat, get fat": · Stimulating lateral increases hunger. "Stim the ven, get thin": · Stimulating ventromedial increases satiety. Lateral nucleus – Causes us to start eating and keep eating. (LATERAL) "Late night snack": LATEral is snacking [feeding] center. Module

Hypothalamic Centers The ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH) depresses hunger (stimulation). Destroy the VMH, and the animal eats excessively. Talk about rat surgery Stereotaxic atlas Stimulate the area and the rat stops eating. "Stim the lat, get fat": · Stimulating lateral increases hunger. "Stim the ven, get thin": · Stimulating ventromedial increases satiety. A brain tumor that results in obesity would most likely be located in the (AP99) (A) Left frontal lobe (B) Base of the brain stem (C) Area of the hypothalamus (D) Reticular activating system (E) somatosensory cortex Richard Howard Ventromedial nucleus - Causes us to stop eating and not be interested in food. (VomitMeal) Module

Hypothalamus & Hormones
The hypothalamus monitors a number of hormones that are related to hunger. 32. Hunger and eating are primarily regulated by which of the following? (AP94) (A) Androgens (B) Estrogens (C) The hypothalamus (D) The kidneys (E) The medulla oblongata Hormone Tissue Response Orexin increase Hypothalamus Increases hunger Ghrelin increase Stomach Insulin increase Pancreas Leptin increase Fat cells Decreases hunger PPY increase Digestive tract Module

Motivation-Hunger Set Point Basal Metabolic Rate
the point at which an individual’s “weight thermostat” is supposedly set when the body falls below this weight, an increase in hunger and a lowered metabolic rate may act to restore the lost weight Basal Metabolic Rate body’s base rate of energy expenditure Which of the following terms is used in hunger and weight control research to denote the concept that each person has a body fat level that remains fixed and resistant to change? (AP04) (A) Hyperphagia (B) Hypophagia (C) Glucagon theory (D) Set point (E) Metabolic conversion Module

Sexual Motivation Module 27
Online Link There do not appear to be any AP questions associated with this module Module

Motivation at Work Module 28
Online link Add slide for this A supervisor who doubts the competence of a new employee unwillingly criticizes everything the new employee does. If the new employee consequently performs poorly, which of the following will most likely have occurred? (AP12) A. Latent learning B. Pluralistic ignorance C. A self-fulfilling prophecy D. The halo effect E. Hawthorne effect Module

Industrial-Organizational (I/O) Psychology Overview
Applies psychological principles to the workplace. Leadership, job satisfaction, and employee motivation are all studied in which of the following psychological disciplines? (AP94) (A) Human factors psychology (B) Industrial-organizational psychology (C) Community psychology (D) Counseling psychology (E) Experimental psychology Personnel Psychology: Studies the principles of selecting and evaluating workers. Organizational Psychology: Studies how work environments and management styles influence worker motivation, satisfaction, and productivity. Human Factors Psychology: Explores how machines and environments can be designed to fit our natural perception. Module

Sources of Achievement Motivation
Why does one person become more motivated to achieve than another? Parents and teachers have an influence on the roots of motivation. Preview Question 16: Why are some of us more than others driven to excel? Leadership, job satisfaction, and employee motivation are all studied in which of the following psychological disciplines? (AP94) (A) Human factors psychology (B) Industrial-organizational psychology (C) Community psychology (D) Counseling psychology (E) Experimental psychology Carla tutors other students because she likes to be helpful, whereas Jane tutors classmates strictly for pay. Their behaviors demonstrate the difference between (AP94) (A) Primary and secondary drives (B) Instinctive and derived drives (C) Appetitive and aversive motivation (D) Intrinsic and extrinsic motivation (E) Positive and negative reinforcement 9. Rudolph spends hours painting in his studio, even though he sells few pictures. Which of the following explains Rudolph’s creative productivity? (AP04) (A) Functional fixedness (B) Inductive reasoning (C) Intrinsic motivation (D) Incubation (E) Heuristics 28? 35. Which of the following is most likely to characterize the behavior of students who have high achievement motivation and are intrinsically motivated to play a musical instrument? (AP04) (A) If promised a reward for practicing a difficult piece of music selected by the teacher, they will practice more than if they selected the piece themselves. (B) If permitted to choose there own pieces of music, they will select very difficult ones that are beyond their present ability to play. (C) If permitted to choose their own pieces of music, they will select easy pieces that they can master in one practice session. (D) If permitted to choose their own pieces of music, they will select moderately difficult pieces that they can master if they practice them conscientiously. (E) They will enjoy practicing the piano more if their parents promise them a reward for mastering each piano piece. Emotional roots: learning to associate achievement with positive emotions. Cognitive roots: learning to attribute achievements to one’s own competence, thus raising expectations of oneself. Module

Setting Specific, Challenging Goals
Specific measurable objectives -Direct Attention -Promote Effort -Motivate Persistence -Stimulate Creative Strategies When you are involved in setting goal you are more focused. All of the following are conditions that may lead to conflict within organizations EXCEPT (AP04) (A) Scarce resources (B) Jurisdictional ambiguity (C) Inequities in status (D) Insufficient communication (E) Superordinate goals Specific challenging goals motivate people to reach higher achievement levels, especially if there is feedback such as progress reports. Module

Theories and Physiology of Emotion Module 29
Online link Paper idea What would humans and humanity be like without emotions. Theories and Physiology of Emotion Module 29 Module

James-Lange Theory James-Lange Theory proposes that physiological activity precedes the emotional experience. William James and Carl Lange proposed an idea that was diametrically opposed to the common-sense view. Supported by observations of people with severed spinal cords. Those with lower spinal damage reported little change in their emotions, those paralyzed neck down reported significant decrease in emotional intensity. Reported increases in emotions above neck, weeping, lumps in throat, choked up (Hohmann 1966) In the James-Lange theory of emotion, which of the following immediately precedes an emotion? (AP99) (A) Observation of the external stimulus (B) Recollection of similar past experiences (C) Experience of physiological changes (D) Appraisal of cognitive factors (E) Initiation of a fixed-action pattern Ask if anyone has had an experience that anecdotally confirms each theory. Module

Cannon-Bard Theory Proposed that an emotion-triggering stimulus and the body's arousal take place simultaneously. Cannon suggested that body’s responses were not distinct enough to evoke different emotions. Physiological responses seemed too slow to trigger sudden emotions. Walter Cannon and Phillip Bard questioned the James-Lange Theory Cannon Bard Theory of Emotion - A cannon fires and ball flies at the same time, just like emotions and physiological arousal happen at the same time according to this theory. Module

Schachter and Singer’s Two-Factor Theory
Our physiology and cognitions create emotions. Emotions have two factors–physical arousal and cognitive label. Two factory theory on the psych files 24:17 Stanley Schachter and Jerome Singer proposed yet another theory which suggests labeling arousal depends on attribution, the process of identifying the cause of an event. Gave epinephrine injections to people, some told side effects of injections others were not. Ones told their feeling was a side effect had not emotions. If told there was no side effects they “caught” the emotion of a researchers accomplice (Schacter & Singer 1962) This aroused state was experienced as two different emotions. Racing heart, rapid breathing, perspiration Last seconds of a close basketball game…excitement Before a big exam…anxiety With your hot significant other…sexual arousal Theory not widely accepted according to Bernstein. The two components of Schachter and Singer’s theory of emotion are (AP04) (A) Love and anger (B) Instinct and motivation (C) Instinct and brain activation (D) Physiological arousal and cognitive assessment (E) Physiological arousal and behavior 75. Stanley Schachter and Jerome Singer view emotion as resulting from (AP12) A. biochemical changes in the pituitary B. cognitive labels of physiological changes C. instinctual behavior D. level of arousal E. need for affiliation Link Module

Expressing and Experiencing Emotion Module 30
Online link Module

Culture and Emotional Expression
When culturally diverse people were shown basic facial expressions, they did fairly well at recognizing them (Matsumoto & Ekman, 1989). Preview Question 6: Are nonverbal expressions of emotion universally understood? The view that human emotions are universal has been supported by studies of (AP94) (A) Facial expressions (B) Body language (C) Linguistic structures (D) Hedonic relevance (E) Biological symmetry 30 9. One of the consistent research findings in the area of facial expressions and emotion is the (AP99) (A) Universality of facial expressions across cultures (B) Vast differences in facial expressions between males and females (C) Ease with which people can learn to change their facial expressions under differing circumstances (D) Way children's facial expressions differ from adults' (E) Way in which individuals' facial expressions change as they get older Elkman & Matsumoto, Japanese and Caucasian Facial Expression of Emotion Module

Catharsis Hypothesis Venting anger through action or fantasy ----achieves an emotional release or “catharsis.” Preview Question 8: What are the causes and consequences of anger? Giving laid off employees a chance to “vent” increased their hostility. (Ebbsen 1975) Anger breeds anger, venting anger is like using gasoline to put out a fire. How to deal with anger, wait, allow arousal to cool, then exercise, talk to friends etc. Practice forgiveness (witvliet 2001) monitored subjects as they mentally rehearsed forgiveness. Perspiration, blood pressure, heart rate, facial tension all lower. Which of the following findings would support an interpretation of aggression as catharsis? (AP99) (A) Societies that value aggressive sports are generally less aggressive than societies that do not value aggressive sports. (B) On average, levels of aggression are about equal across all societies. (C) Aggressiveness in societies correlates highly with the average annual temperature. (D) Societies in which media content is particularly aggressive are more aggressive than societies that have less violent media content. (E) In most societies, aggression among individuals waxes and wanes with age. Opposing Theory-- Expressing anger breeds more anger, and through reinforcement it is habit-forming. Module

Stress and Illness Module 31
Online link Active psych disk 3 #23, 24, 23 Development of tangles and plaques, 24 immune system fights Alzheimer's AM Disorders 2. The Nature of Stress We see that stress affects many people — from the overworked and out-of-work, to survivors of suicide and homicide, to Vietnam War veterans who continually re-experience the stress of the battlefield. The program explores the long-term effects of stress and what is known about how to reduce them. Module

General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)
According to Selye, a stress response to any kind of stimulation is similar. The stressed individual goes through three phases. Like a burglar alarm that sounds no matter what intrudes. Phase 1 Heart rate zooms, blood diverted to skeletal muscles Phase 2 Blood pressure and temp up and hormones are released (persistent stress depletes your reserves) Phase 3 Exhaustion makes you more vulnerable to illness In rats stress can cut life span by 1/6th Catecholamines may interact with sex hormones to make men’s stress and women's stress different (Taylor 2000 in Bernstein) Differences appear around adolescence (Allen 1997 in Bernstein) Which of the following are the stages in Hans Selye's general adaptation syndrome? (AP94) (A) Appraisal, stress response, coping (B) Shock, anger, self-control (C) Anxiety, fighting, adapting (D) Alarm, resistance, exhaustion (E) Attack, flight, defense Hans Selye's general adaptation syndrome is an attempt to explain (AP99) (A) Personality traits (B) Artificial intelligence (C) Memory organization (D) Organic retardation (E) Reactions to stress 31. A study can be regarded as scientific only if (AP12) A. it utilizes an effective placebo B. its findings are accepted by experts in the field C. its findings are consistent with established theories D. its conclusions are based on strong correlational data E. its conclusions can be verified or refuted by subsequent studies EPA/ Yuri Kochetkov/ Landov Module

Stress and the Heart Stress that leads to elevated blood pressure may result in coronary heart disease, a clogging of the vessels that nourish the heart muscle. Preview Question 12: Why are some of us more prone than others to coronary heart disease? Leading cause of death since the 50’s Freidman measured blood cholesterol and clotting speed of accountants, Jan-March indicators normal April through the roof May & June levels return to normal 1956 Studying eating behavior of SF women & found women had less chance of heart disease when they ate as much cholesterol and fat as their husbands (Freidman 1984) Female hormones not a factor, women in lower socioeconomic classes had more heart disease. 31 6. A hostile person with a type A personality is most at risk for developing which of the following? (AP99) (A) Phobias (B) Heart disease (C) Bulimia nervosa (D) Multiple personality (E) Antisocial personality Plaque in coronary artery Artery clogged Module

Personality Types Type A is a term used for competitive, hard-driving, impatient, verbally aggressive, and anger-prone people. Type B refers to easygoing, relaxed people (Friedman and Rosenman, 1974). From Freidman study 1974 3000 men 257 heart attacks…not one pure B personality had a heart attack More recent research indicates that hostility is the main factor and that not all type A people are hostile (Stoney 1994 in Bernstein 539) And it actually my be oversensitivity to stressors that is the factor (Gianaros 2005 in Bernstein) 35. Individuals exhibiting a hostile type A personality pattern are at an increased risk for (AP12) A. Alzheimer’s disease B. cardiovascular disease C. schizophrenia D. substance abuse E. anorexia nervosa Type A personalities are more likely to develop coronary heart disease. Module

Stress and Colds People with the highest life stress scores were also the most vulnerable when exposed to an experimental cold virus. Studied subjects kept 3ft apart for 3 days, monitored for mucus etc, Punch wounds heal more quickly on summer vacation than 3 days before a big exam (Glasser 1998) Greg stays up all night during finals week studying for exams. As the week progresses, his muscles tighten and he develops a stiff neck. By the last day of finals, he is taking more frequent breaks, leaning back in the desk chair, and staring off into space. He arrives for the last test with a sore throat and headache. Which of the following best describes Greg’s response to stress? (AP04) (A) General adaption syndrome (B) Object-relations theory (C) Opponent-process theory (D) Two-factor theory (E) Type B behavioral pattern Module

Promoting Health Module 32
Online link One past ap questions from this unit Module

Promoting Health Biofeedback
An electronic technique that enables a person to control physiological responses that are normally involuntary blood pressure muscle tension Biofeedback systems use electronic devices to inform people about their physiological responses and gives them the chance to bring their response to a healthier range. Relaxation and meditation have similar effects in reducing tension and anxiety. 81. A technique that enables a person to control physiological responses that are normally involuntary such as levels of blood pressure, is known as (AP12) A. general adaptation B. positive reinforcement C. Reward training D. modeling E. biofeedback Module

The Psychoanalytic Perspective Module 33 Your conscious life, in short, is nothing but an elaborate post-hoc rationalization of things you really do for other reasons. Ramachandran in A Brief Tour of Human Consciousness Online link Lecture/Discussion Topic: Issues in Personality Theory B. R. Hergenhahn observes that while other psychologists are concerned with human perception, intelligence, motivation, or development, personality theorists are in the unique position of studying the entire person. They have the monumental task of synthesizing the best information from the diverse fields of the discipline into a coherent, holistic configuration. In the course of their work, personality theorists address fundamental issues of human nature and individual differences. Duane Schultz has suggested that a theorist’s answers to the following basic questions define his or her image of human nature. 1. Free will or determinism? Do we have a conscious awareness and control of ourselves? Are we free to choose, to be masters of our fate, or are we victims of biological factors, unconscious forces, or external stimuli? 2. Nature or nurture? Is our personality determined primarily by the abilities, temperaments, or predispositions we inherit, or are we shaped more strongly by the environments in which we live? 3. Past, present, or future? Is personality development basically complete in early childhood? Or is personality independent of the past, capable of being influenced by events and experiences in the present and even by future aspirations and goals? 4. Uniqueness or universality? Is the personality of each individual unique or are there broad personality patterns that fit large numbers of persons? 5. Equilibrium or growth? Are we primarily tension reducing, pleasure-seeking animals or are we motivated primarily by the need to grow, to reach our full potential to reach for ever-higher levels of self expression and development? 6. Optimism or pessimism? Are human beings basically good or evil? Are we kind and compassionate, or cruel and merciless? Hergenhahn, B. R., & Olson, M. H. (2007). An introduction to theories of personality (7th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Prentice Hall. Schultz, D., & Schultz, S. (2005). Theories of personality (8th ed.). Belmont, CA: Wadsworth. 228 Module 228

Dream Analysis Another method to analyze the unconscious mind is through interpreting manifest and latent contents of dreams. Manifest: Remembered content Latent: unconscious wishes 33 7. Sigmund Freud believed that dream analysis was a useful device for (AP94) (A) Decreasing repression (B) Sublimating the id (C) Strengthening the superego (D) Displacing instinctual forces (E) Gaining insight into unconscious motives Freud kept a dream diary from his youth (biog vid) Wrote his influential dream book after conducting analysis of himself. (Biog vid) Painting The Nightmare, Henry Fuseli (1791) 229 Module 229

Id, Ego and Superego The Id unconsciously strives to satisfy basic sexual and aggressive drives, operating on the pleasure principle, demanding immediate gratification. ID: unconscious psychic energy Ego: Reality principle, executive of the personality, works out conflicts of the id and superego…develops from the id tries to get what a person wants in the real world, because of restrictions on the impulses of the id… also responsible for preventing anxiety or guilt we would feel if we became aware of our socially unacceptable id impulses or if we thought about violating the superego’s rules (Engler 2003) Superego: The voice of our moral compass, focuses on how we ought to behave. Libido – source of psychic energy Eros - constructive drive Thanatos – Death instinct or drive which Fred said were responsible for aggression & destruction (Hergenhahn 2007)..a primary need to desrtoy himself if left unfettered Veruca Salt, “I want it NOW!” 39. According to Freudian theory, the component of the personality that is “blind, impulsive, and irrational,” is the (AP12) A. ego B. superego C. id D. libido E. superego The ego functions as the “executive” and mediates the demands of the id and superego. The superego provides standards for judgment (the conscience) and for future aspirations. 230 Module 230

Defense Mechanisms 3. Reaction Formation causes the ego to unconsciously switch unacceptable impulses into their opposites. People may express feelings of purity when they may be suffering anxiety from unconscious feelings about sex. 3. “I hate him” becomes “I love him,” timidity becomes daring, inadequacy becomes bravado. 4. “I don’t trust him” becomes “He doesn’t trust me.” Projection: “the thief thinks everyone else is a thief” 13. A stubborn individual who accuses peers of being uncooperative is exhibiting which of the following defense mechanisms? (AP12) A. Identification B. Denial C. Projection D. Reaction Formation E. Sublimation 4. Projection leads people to disguise their own threatening impulses by attributing them to others. 231 Module 231

Assessing Unconscious Processes
Evaluating personality from an unconscious mind’s perspective would require a psychological instrument (projective tests) that would reveal the hidden unconscious mind. Preview Question 5: What are projective tests, and what do clinicians in the Freudian tradition hope to learn from them? Presents ambiguous stimuli and asks patients to make up a story about it. 26. The rationale underlying the use of projective personality tests, such as Rorschach Test and the Thematic Apperception Test, is that they (AP12) A. Can be efficiently administered in groups and scored by a computer B. can be given by almost anyone, since they are simple to administer and score C. reveal the subjects’ personalities by eliciting responses to vague, ambiguous stimuli D. provide clues to the subjects’ personality traits by requiring responses to large number of objective questions. 232 Module 232

The Humanistic Perspective Module 34
Online link Feature Film: Dead Poets Society—Burying the True Self (14 minutes) Dead Poets Society, an older film students are sure to appreciate, and readily available on DVD, provides a good opportunity to explore some of the central themes of the humanistic perspective. Robin Williams portrays English professor John Keating, who inspires students to find and express their true selves. He tries to provide a growth-promoting environment through genuineness, acceptance, and empathy. Like Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers, Keating obviously recognizes the human need for self-actualization. At the same time, his school promotes conformity and his students’ parents, in imposing their own dreams for their children, inhibit their sons’ growth. They bury their children’s true selves. One of the most moving scenes comes 93 minutes into the film and runs approximately 14:30 minutes. Students who have wrestled with parental expectations will clearly identify with Neal Perry. Set the scene for your class by describing how, inspired by Keating, Neal is for the first time fulfilling his dream to be an actor. He does so in spite of his father’s strong objections and expectation that his son will become a doctor. The clip begins with Neal’s extraordinarily well-received performance in a community play. Clearly, Neal relishes his role as actor; he has found his true self. However, midway through the play his father unexpectedly appears in the audience. His strong disapproval is obvious. Taking his son away immediately after the play, he delivers a tongue-lashing. He announces that Neal will be transferring to a military school. Initially protesting, Neal succumbs. Asked by his father what he’s feeling, he finally responds, “Nothing.” He buries his true self. The scene concludes tragically. During the night, Neal commits suicide. Module

Humanistic Perspective
Focuses on mental capabilities that set humans apart; self awareness, creativity, planning, decision making, responsibility. Preview Question 7: What did humanistic psychologists view as the central feature of personality, and what was their goal in studying personality? Behavior motivated mainly by an innate drive toward growth that prompts people to fulfill their unique potential. People naturally inclined toward goodness. By the 1960s, psychologists became discontent with Freud’s negativity and the mechanistic psychology of the behaviorists. Focused on the ways “healthy” people strive for self-determination & self-realization At third-force perspective that emphasizes human potential & seeing the world through the person’s eyes. 34? 68. The psychologists who first developed encounter groups and sensitivity-training groups based their work on which of the following approaches to therapy? (AP04) (A) Psychodynamic (B) Humanistic (C) Behavioral (D) Cognitive (E) Biological CRAM Carl Rodgers Abraham Maslow Mnemonic CRAM Carl Rodgers Abraham Maslow Abraham Maslow ( ) Carl Rogers ( ) Module

Self-Actualizing Person
Maslow proposed that we as individuals are motivated by a hierarchy of needs. Beginning with physiological needs, we try to reach the state of self-actualization—fulfilling our potential. Actualizing tendency- an innate inclination toward growth that motivates all people. Developed his ideas studying healthy creative people rather than troubled clinical cases. Self actualization – an accurate experience of the self with all its preferences, abilities, fantasies, shortcomings & desires - if your self concept is distorted then you cant achieve self actualization. An important difference between humanistic and psychoanalytic approaches is that humanistic psychologists believe in the importance of (AP99) (A) Learning (B) Freewill (C) Determinism (D) Biological instincts (E) Unconscious processes According to Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following statements is true? (AP94) (A) Individuals may have peak experiences when meeting physiological needs. (B) Self-actualization will always precede the meeting of needs for esteem. (C) There are cultural differences in the rate at which individuals attain self-actualization. (D) Women are more likely to reach self-actualization than men are. (E) Physiological needs must be met before an individual achieves self-actualization. In Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, living up to one’s potential and striving for personal fulfillment are referred to as (AP04) (A) Biological needs (B) Aesthetic needs (C) Physiological needs (D) Belonging needs (E) Self-actualization needs Module

Person-Centered Perspective
Carl Rogers also believed in an individual's self-actualization tendencies. He said that Unconditional Positive Regard is an attitude of acceptance of others despite their failings. People basically good, to solve someone's problems you need to see the world through their eyes. All behavior seen as meaningful to the person doing it. Our growth promoting climate requires 3 conditions – genuineness, acceptance and empathy People nurture our growth by being genuine Accepting – Unconditional positive regard Empathetic – sharing our feelings According to Carl Rogers, the role of the therapist in person-centered psychotherapy is to (AP94) (A) Accept the client unconditionally so that the client's own desire for mental health and positive growth will flourish (B) Express warmth and empathy and suppress negative feelings that arise in the relationship with the client (C) Use a didactic approach to teach the client to correct maladaptive behavior (D) Establish behavior-change programs to alter the problematic behavior that is often learned in early childhood (E) Define ideal characteristics of mental health for the client and to encourage the client to incorporate these elements in his or her personality Michael Rougier/ Life Magazine © Time Warner, Inc. Module

Assessing the Self In an effort to assess personality, Rogers asked people to describe themselves as they would like to be (ideal) and as they actually are (real). If the two descriptions were close the individual had a positive self-concept. Preview Question 8: How did humanistic psychologists assess a person’s sense of self? Some disdain questionnaires as depersonalizing Prefer interviews and intimate conversations Accepting true selves very important If our self concept is positive we act and perceive the world as positive. All of our thoughts and feelings about ourselves, in an answer to the question, “Who am I?” refers to Self-Concept. Module

Contemporary Research on Personality Module 35
Online link DID YOU BUY OREOS???? Module

The Trait Perspective Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) the most widely researched and clinically used of all personality tests originally developed to identify emotional disorders (still considered its most appropriate use) now used for many other screening purposes The MMPI was developed by empirically testing a pool of items and then selecting those that discriminated between diagnostic groups. Tested normals & abnormals kept questions where normals and abnormals answered differently. Nothing in the paper interests me but the comics,…. answered yes by depressed people 84. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory is used primarily to provide information about which of the following? (AP12) A. Achievement B. Communication skills C. Intelligence D. Body Image E. Clinical disorders Module

Evaluating the Trait Perspective
The Person-Situation Controversy Walter Mischel (1968, 1984, 2004) points out that traits may be enduring, but the resulting behavior in various situations is different. Therefore, traits are not good predictors of behavior. Preview Question 13: Does research support the consistency of personality traits over time and across situations? Psychologists who emphasize the importance of personality traits are most often criticized for (AP99) (A) being naive and overly optimistic (B) Being subjective in interpreting unverifiable phenomena (C) Overestimating the number of basic traits (D) Underestimating the role of emotions (E) Underestimating the variability of behavior from situation to situation In some ways personality stable over time situationally different. Module

Social-Cognitive Perspective
In his social-cognitive theory Albert Bandura (1999; 2006) sees personality as shaped by the ways in which thoughts, behavior, and the environment interact and influence one another. Preview Question 14: In the view of social-cognitive psychologists, what mutual influences shape an individual’s personality? Bandura (1986, 2001, 2005) believes that personality is the result of an interaction that takes place between a person and their social context. Remember the bobo doll research? He points out that whether people learn through direct experience with rewards and punishments or through the observational learning processes described in the chapter on learning, their behavior creates changes in their environment. Observing these changes, in turn, affects how they think, which then affects their behavior, and so on in a constant web of mutual influence that Bandura calls reciprocal determinism. According to Bandura, an especially important cognitive element in this web of influence is perceived self efficacy the learned expectation of success. Bandura says that what we do, and what we try to do, is largely controlled by our perceptions or beliefs about our chances of success at a particular task or problem. The higher our perceived self efficacy ill relation to a particular situation or task, the greater our actual accomplishments in that situation or task (Zimmerman & Schunk, So going to a job interview with the belief that you have the skills necessary to be hired may lead to behaviors that help you get the job. From Bernstein Alicia has started a new and very different job but believes in her skills and ability to carry out the tasks required of her. Albert Bandura would refer to Alicia’s sense of confidence as which of the following? (AP12) A. Reciprocal determinism B. Self-Determination C. Psychic determinism D. Self-efficacy E. Phenomenology Albert Bandura Module

Self efficacy: learned expectations about probability of success
Personal Control External locus of control refers to the perception that chance or outside forces beyond our personal control determine our fate. Internal locus of control refers to the perception that we can control our own fate. Self efficacy: learned expectations about probability of success Preview Question 15: What are the causes and consequences of personal control? Individuals who accept personal responsibility for their life experiences may be characterized as having (AP04) (A) Unrealistic expectations (B) Delusions of grandeur (C) An internal locus of control (D) A pessimistic view of reality (E) An introverted personality 47. Judy believes that her fate is determined by her own actions. Judy’s belief best illustrates (AP12) A. self-actualization B. psychological reactance C. a preoperational schema D. the basis for psychological determinism E. an internal locus of control Social-cognitive psychologists emphasize our sense of personal control, whether we control the environment or the environment controls us. Internals achieved more in school, act independently, enjoy better health and feel less depressed than externals (Bachman 1998) Better able to delay gratification, good adjustment, better grades & social success (Who wants to be around someone who blames others?) Module

Learned Helplessness When unable/unwilling to avoid repeated adverse events an animal or human learns helplessness. Learned helplessness – Passive resignation Research w/dogs unable to avoid shocks learned helplessness (Sleigman 1975) Put in a new situation they still remained hopeless. Aaron Beck suggested that negative beliefs cause depression. To help change these negative beliefs, Beck used which of the following therapies? (AP04) (A) Cognitive (B) Psychopharmacological (C) Rational-emotive (D) Psychoanalytic (E) Social-learning 17. Individuals who believe that an unpleasant experience is unavoidable and therefore do nothing to change the course of events are exhibiting (AP12) A. self-actualization attributes B. the fight-or-flight response C. attributional deficits D. cognitive dissonance E. learned helplessness Martin Seligman’s research in the late 1960s addressed the question of how we react to repeated and unavoidable shocks or torture. In particular, Seligman studied the ability of dogs to learn avoidance behaviors when given an electric shock. He placed dogs into harnesses (much as Pavlov had done) then gave them a series of shocks paired with a conditioned stimulus (also similar to Pavlov’s experiment). He gave the dogs no opportunity to escape the shock. Low self efficacy Module

Introduction to Psychological Disorders Module 36
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Defining Psychological Disorders
Mental health workers view psychological disorders as persistently harmful thoughts, feelings, and actions. Preview Question 1: Where should we draw the line between normality and disorder? People are fascinated by the exceptional, the unusual, and the abnormal. This fascination may be caused by two reasons: During various moments we feel, think, and act like an abnormal individual. Psychological disorders may bring unexplained physical symptoms, irrational fears, and suicidal thoughts. There are 450 million people suffering from psychological disorders (WHO, 2004). Depression and schizophrenia exist in all cultures of the world. To study the abnormal is the best way of understanding the normal. William James ( ) 99. Vance is a popular honors student who, unlike his reference group, writes his best papers sitting on his motorcycle in the basement of his college dormitory. His behavior can be considered abnormal only if abnormality is defined as A. the need to rebel against authority (AP12) B. disinterest in the opinion of others C. the perception of one’s self as different D. deviation from the cultural norm E. the inability to work in a group When behavior is deviant, distressful, and dysfunctional psychiatrists and psychologists label it as disordered (Comer, 2004). Module

Deviant, Distressful & Dysfunctional
Deviant behavior in one culture may be considered normal, while in others it may lead to arrest. Deviant behavior must accompany distress. If a behavior is dysfunctional it is clearly a disorder. Wodaabe clip at youtube Exceptional athletes are deviant but this does not cause distress In the Wodaabe tribe men wear costumes to attract women. In Western society this would be considered abnormal. In cultures with ancestor worship talking to the dead may seem rational Contemporary definitions of abnormal behavior typically characterize such behavior as all of the following EXCEPT (AP99) (A) Atypical (B) Maladaptive (C) Inappropriate (D) due to inappropriate child-rearing practices (E) Disturbing to the individual exhibiting the behavior Contemporary definitions of abnormality might include all of the following criteria EXCEPT (AP04) (A) Maladaptiveness (B) Personal distress or discomfort (C) Deviance from cultural norms (D) Gender (E) Statistical Prevalence Carol Beckwith Woodabe clip at youtube Module

Goals of DSM Describe (400) disorders. Determine how prevalent the disorder is. DSM V coming out soon 60 disorders in the 50’s 36 3. The basic purpose of the DSM-IV-TR is to (AP04) (A) Provide a set of diagnostic categories for classifying psychological disorders (B) Provide a clear distinction between neurosis and psychosis (C) Describe the psychoanalytic approach to psychological disorders (D) Describe internal personality factors that are involved in psychological disorders (E) Identify childhood experiences that contribute to psychological disorders Disorders outlined by DSM-IV are reliable. Therefore, diagnoses by different professionals are similar. Others criticize DSM-IV for “putting any kind of behavior within the compass of psychiatry.” Module

Anxiety, Dissociative, Somatoform and Personality Disorders Module 37
Online link AM World of abnormal psychology 3. The Anxiety Disorders Even in the best of times, we all experience some anxiety. But millions of Americans suffer from major anxiety disorders. This program examines two of the most common, panic with agoraphobia and generalized anxiety disorder, and shows how psychologists are making headway in treating them. QR code for next SG Module

Feelings of excessive apprehension and anxiety.
Anxiety Disorders Feelings of excessive apprehension and anxiety. Preview Question 5: What are anxiety disorders, and how do they differ from ordinary worries and fears we all experience? Including maladaptive behaviors that reduce anxiety. 37 6. Distrust of others is symptomatic of (AP94) (A) Mania (B) Dementia (C) Catatonia (D) Paranoia (E) hebephrenia Not sure this belongs here Generalized anxiety disorder Panic disorder Phobias Obsessive-compulsive disorder Post-traumatic stress disorder Module

Panic Disorder Symptoms
Smokers 2-4 times more likely to have panic disorders. 1 in 75 have panic attacks 37 3. Phobic and panic disturbances are examples of which of the following kinds of disorder? (AP99) (A) Personality (B) Schizophrenic (C) Anxiety (D) Somatoform (E) Dissociative 7. Vic has unpredictable and repeated attacks of overwhelming anxiety that frequently leave him dizzy, nauseous, short of breath, and in tears. A psychologist is likely to view Vic’s behavior as indicative of (AP12) A. a panic disorder B. a psychotic breakdown C. a dissociative reaction D. a phobia E. an obsession Link Minutes-long episodes of intense dread which may include feelings of terror, chest pains, choking, or other frightening sensations. Anxiety is a component of both disorders. It occurs more in the panic disorder, making people avoid situations that cause it. link Module

Phobias Marked by a persistent and irrational fear of an object or situation that disrupts behavior. My experiences Nursery school age kids afraid of dogs, watch other kids playing happily with dogs 20 min/day…after 4 days 67% willing to play with dogs. Bandura 1967, …also worked with shy and withdrawn kids too (O’Connor 1972) Cialdini, Influence 103 70. Training in the construction of an anxiety hierarchy and in relaxation techniques is likely to be part of the treatment for which of the following (AP12) A. Schizophrenia B. Bipolar disorder C. Specific phobia D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder E. Dissociative disorder Module

Arachnophobia at National Geographic Link
Kinds of Phobias Agoraphobia Phobia of open places. Favorite phobia project Agoraphobia – also places not easy to escape from Triskaidekaphobia (from Greek tris meaning "3," kai meaning "and," and deka meaning "10") is fear of the number 13 Androphobia Fear of men - The fear of coming in contract with, engaging in activities or becoming intimate with men. Coitophobia Fear of sexual intercourse - can affect both men and women. The act of intercourse is not the challenge, it is the rejection, trust, self worth, guilt, shame and hurt from past experiences that have been associated to the event. Nomophobia: fear of being out of mobile-phone coverage Which of the following treatments is most frequently used to eliminate specific phobias? (AP04) (A) Antidepressant drugs (B) Systematic desensitization (C) Implosion therapy (D) Psychoanalysis (E) Aversion therapy Acrophobia at National Geographic 22:28 Claustrophobia at National Geographic 22:28 Arachnophobia at National Geographic 22:27 Clowns 23:29 Acrophobia Phobia of heights link. Claustrophobia Phobia of closed spaces Link . Hemophobia Phobia of blood. Arachnophobia at National Geographic Link Module

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
Persistence of repetitive thoughts (obsessions) and urges to engage in repetitive behaviors (compulsions) that cause distress. Clip Abnormal focus on things Affects 2-3% of people onset usually in late teens or twenties Effective function becomes impossible 1/5 recover, symptoms seem to lessen somewhat with age. Tesla appears to have suffered from symptoms of obsessive-compulsive disorder. His obsessions included phobias of dirt and germs, and of the number three. Tesla's compulsions included doing everything in sets of three. He worked in solitude, as interacting with ordinary humans was difficult. Perhaps this explains why, in his later years, Tesla claimed to have contacted beings from the planet Venus. Persistent repetitive thoughts that cannot be controlled are known as (AP94) (A) Compulsions (B) Obsessions (C) Phobias (D) Delusions (E) Sublimations 2. A person with obsessive-compulsive disorder is best described as an individual who experiences (AP12) A. Memory Loss B. Intense Mood Swings C. Extreme fear of open spaces D. Physical symptoms with no known cause E. Persistent anxiety-provoking thoughts Clip link Module

Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Four or more weeks of the following symptoms constitute post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD): 8.5% in Manhattan after 9/11, but 9/10 not pathological 4 mo. later 20% near the World Trade Center 32% of Vietnam vets in heavy combat, 10% among those who had never seen combat. 1/6 combat infantry has reported symptoms. 37 4. An individual survives a period of captivity and exhibits behaviors that include anxiety, inability to concentrate, depression, edginess, and the re experience of stressful events. These symptoms illustrate which of the following disorders? (AP04) (A )Generalized anxiety (B) Major depression (C) Hypochondriasis (D) Histrionic (E) Posttraumatic stress Haunting memories 2. Nightmares 3. Social withdrawal 4. Jumpy anxiety 5. Sleep problems Bettmann/ Corbis Module

Somatoform Disorders Psychological problems in which there are symptoms of a physical disorder without a physical cause. Somatic – bodily A college student experiences a loss of sensation in her right arm before exams. Doctors can find no physiological basis for her condition. This student is most likely experiencing which of the following kinds of disorders? (AP04) (A) Somatoform (B) Dissociative (C) Anxiety (D) Mood (E) Personality 90. An individual diagnosed as having somatoform disorder would be most likely to show (AP12) A. an irrational fear of social situations B. an inability to recall important life events C. a biologically unfounded loss of bodily functioning D. a complete disregard for social mores E. a tendency to engage in ritualistic behavior to avoid illness Module

Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)
A disorder in which a person exhibits two or more distinct and alternating personalities, formerly called multiple personality disorder. Link Preview Question 7: What are dissociative disorders, and why are they controversial? Three Faces of Eve: Chris Sizemore’s story Original personality denies awareness of others. Kenneth Bianchi – Hillside strangler, rapes and murders of 10 women Many DID patients profoundly abused Rarely found outside North America Usually not violent Multiple personality is a type of (AP94) (A) Dissociative disorder (B) Schizophrenia (C) Dementia praecox (D) Bipolar disorder (E) Manic-depressive psychosis AM The Brain #23 multiple personalities Chris Sizemore (DID) Lois Bernstein/ Gamma Liason Module

Personality Disorders
Personality disorders are characterized by inflexible and enduring behavior patterns that impair social functioning. Link 58:55 Preview Question 8: What characteristics are typical of personality disorders? There are clusters of personality disorders Anxiety- avoidant personality disorder Eccentric Behavior- schizoid personality disorder Dramatic- impulsive behaviors They are usually without depression, or delusions. Which of the following best characterizes individuals diagnosed as having personality disorders? (AP94) (A) They are typically afraid to leave their homes. (B) They are consistently psychotic in their cognition and affect. (C) They may function reasonably well in society. (D) Their symptoms are characterized by sudden onset and short duration. (E) They developed their problems as a result of drug abuse. AM World of Abnormal Psychology 5. Personality Disorders One in ten Americans has a personality disorder. Some are mildly annoying; others are exceedingly dangerous. Viewers will meet individuals with narcissistic, anti-social, borderline, and obsessive-compulsive personality disorders, including a murderer and a group of women who mutilate themselves, and will learn about the challenges involved in both diagnosis and treatment. Module

Antisocial Personality Disorder
A disorder in which the person (usually men) exhibits a lack of conscience for wrongdoing, even toward friends and family members. Link 6:29 Formerly, this person was called a sociopath or psychopath. Lack of conscience evident before 15, about half become antisocial adults Pic 1 Dennis Rader, killed 10 people over 30 years, BTK killer. Pic 2 Henry Lee Lucas, 32 years of crime 360 victims Elwood Toole “ I think of killing like smoking a cigarette, like another habit” (Darach 1984) slaughtered 50 people. Most criminals not antisocial, actually have concerns for friends & family members. 36 or Which of the following personality disorders is characterized by behavior that includes dishonesty, repeated trouble with authority figures, and an absence of remorse for these types of conduct? (AP99) (A) Antisocial (B) Histrionic (C) Passive-aggressive (D) Narcissistic (E) Borderline Which of the following is most descriptive of antisocial personality disorder? (AP04) (A)A pattern of limited social interaction and reluctance to enter into relationships (B) A pattern of extreme dependence on other people and acute anxiety at being left alone (C) A pattern of bizarre or unstable behavior characterized by dramatic mood shifts (D) An inability to feel empathy for others and a lack of remorse for actions that harm others (E) An exaggerated sense of self importance AM The Mind 35. The Mind of the Psychopath Presents the definition of and specific behaviors related to psychopathy, and the ongoing research on this subject. AM the Brain #24 Agresssion, violence & the Brain TED Psychopathic killers are the basis for some must-watch TV, but what really makes them tick? Neuroscientist Jim Fallon talks about brain scans and genetic analysis that may uncover the rotten wiring in the nature (and nurture) of murderers. In a too-strange-for-fiction twist, he shares a fascinating family history that makes his work chillingly personal. Mind of a serial killer DVD Module

Mood Disorders Module 38 Online link
Rates Of Anxiety, Mood Disorders High In Areas Affected By Hurricane Katrina Almost half of pre-hurricane residents of New Orleans and one-fourth of those living in other affected areas had evidence of an anxiety or mood disorder five to seven months following Hurricane Katrina, according to a new article. A total of 31.2 percent of the participants had an anxiety-mood disorder, including 49.1 percent of the New Orleans metropolitan area residents and 26.4 percent of the other participants. Among all participants, 16.3 percent had PTSD; this included 30.3 percent of New Orleans residents and 12.5 percent of the others. Individuals who were younger than age 60, female, did not graduate college, had a low family income or were unmarried or unemployed before the hurricane were more likely to have anxiety-mood disorders, and those who were Hispanic or other minorities excluding blacks had lower rates of these conditions. “The vast majority of respondents both in the New Orleans metro (91.9 percent) and in the remainder of the sample (81.7 percent) reported experiencing at least one of the 10 categories of hurricane-related stressors,” including the death of a loved one, robbery, injury or property loss, the authors write. Among New Orleans residents, the extent of exposure to these stressors was more strongly related to anxiety-mood disorders than among residents of other areas. While New Orleans residents were most likely to develop anxiety-mood disorders following physical illness or injury and physical adversity, the rest of the participants were more likely to develop such a disorder following property loss. Module

Major Depressive Disorder
Major depressive disorder occurs when signs of depression last two weeks or more and are not caused by drugs or medical conditions. 38 2. For several weeks--ever since she did not receive a raise that was given to several colleagues-Enid has lacked energy, has been unable to go to work, and has expected bad things to happen every day. Of the following, she is most likely experiencing (AP99) (A) Post traumatic stress (B) Mania (C) Hypochondria (D) Depression (E) fugue Signs include: Lethargy and fatigue Feelings of worthlessness Loss of interest in family & friends Loss of interest in activities Module

Pharmacology Bipolar disorders most effectively treated with tricyclic antidepressants and Lithium Carbonate Lithium serves as a mood stabilizer Upon ingestion, lithium becomes widely distributed in the central nervous system and interacts with a number of neurotransmitters and receptors, decreasing norepinephrine release and increasing serotonin synthesis. Graphic, lithium citrate AM The Mind 34. Treating Depression: Electroconvulsive Therapy Provides a clear and dramatic presentation of the process and some of the effects of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Bipolar disorders are most effectively treated with a combination of tricyclic antidepressants and (AP94) (A) Acetaminophen (B) antianxiety drugs (C) Beta-blockers (D) Amphetamines (E) Lithium carbonate 57. Lithium carbonate has been useful in some instances in the treatment of (AP12) A. bipolar disorder B. dissociative identity disorder C. autistic disorder D. hypochondriasis E. anorexia nervosa Module

Social-Cognitive Perspective
The social-cognitive perspective suggests that depression arises partly from self-defeating beliefs and negative explanatory styles. Magnify bad experiences Minimize good experiences The cognitive theory of depression states that depression results from (AP94) (A) Anger directed toward the self and significant others (B) An excess of certain neurotransmitters in the brain (C) Failure in adult love relationships (D) Maladaptive interpretations of life events (E) Oral fixations from disturbed mother-infant relationships Module

Schizophrenia Module 39 Online link
A talk by a schizophrenic…a bit dry… Module

Schizophrenia The literal translation is “split mind” which refers to a split from reality. A group of severe disorders characterized by the following: Mnemonic for types of schizophrenia Dr. Cup treats schizophrenia Disorganized Residual Catatonic undifferentiated Paranoid Which of the following is most characteristic of individuals with chronic schizophrenia? (AP94) (A) Extreme mood swings (B) Disordered thinking (C) Profound sadness (D) Unaccountable loss of body function (E) Loss of memory AM World of Abnormal Psychology 9. The Schizophrenias In emotionally moving interviews, this program visits people who suffer from the hallucinations, paranoia, and psychological disarray of these disabling illnesses. In addition to examining symptoms and treatments, the program helps debunk some of the myths associated with the disorder and shows its human side and the strength of those who fight to overcome it. Disorganized and delusional thinking. Disturbed perceptions. Inappropriate emotions and actions. Link 58:42 Module

Disorganized & Delusional Thinking
Unable to focus or attend Psychologist Jordan Peterson has proposed that the individual predisposed to schizophrenia may suffer from an influx of experiential sensations and possess insufficient executive functioning to cope with the influx, whereas the healthy individual low in LI and open to experience may be better able to use the information effectively while not becoming overwhelmed or stressed out by the incongruity of the situation. Indeed, this idea of "sensory gating" has been quite influential in the literature on schizophrenia. Many psychologists believe disorganized thoughts occur because of selective attention failure (fragmented and bizarre thoughts). Module

Disturbed Perceptions
A schizophrenic person may perceive things that are not there (hallucinations). Most such hallucinations are auditory and lesser visual, somatosensory, olfactory, or gustatory. Art by schizophrenics “I felt like I was walking through a dream…” Psychotic disorders frequently involve perceptions of nonexistent sensory stimulation, such as voices. Symptoms such as these are called (AP99) (A) Delusions (B) paraphilias (C) Hallucinations (D) Paranormal images (E) Psychic phenomena 68. Hallucinations are characteristic of (AP12) A. fugue B. clinical depression C. panic attacks D. psychotic disorders E. personality disorders In three other cases, Zulueta’s patients had disordered thoughts or heard voices in the language they had learned first and used most. Using a language that they spoke less frequently overall and learned later dismissed their delusions. In another case, a patient was equally psychotic in Italian and English, but heard voices only in Italian, her mother tongue. Not only that—in English she denied that she heard voices at all, whereas in Italian, she readily admitted hearing them. Other patients hear friendly voices in their native languages, hostile ones in their second languages. A subsequent researcher quipped that the more competent an insane person was in a language, the higher their degree of psychosis. Some scientists have suggested that the extra effort of using a second language jolts people out of a deluded state into reality. Others suggest that the deeper relationship to your first language makes you less inhibited, and so more likely to express what's troubling you. In a language learned later, you can hide from your true self. Babel No More by Michael Erard Photos of paintings by Krannert Museum, University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign August Natter, Witches Head. The Prinzhorn Collection, University of Heidelberg L. Berthold, Untitled. The Prinzhorn Collection, University of Heidelberg Module

Understanding Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is a disease of the brain exhibited by the symptoms of the mind. Preview Question 13: What causes schizophrenia? 6x more dopamine receptors (Seeman). Drugs that block dopamine reduce symptoms (Swerdlow) One suspected cause of schizophrenia is the abnormal increase of which of the following neurotransmitters in the brain? (AP99) (A) Acetylcholine (B) Somatotropin (C) Dopamine (D) Norepinephrine (E) Serotonin Which of the following has been most effective in the treatment of schizophrenia? (AP94) (A) Administration of L-dopa (B) Prefrontal lobotomy (C) Psychoanalytic therapy (D) Drug therapy that blocks neurotransmitter sites (E) Drug therapy that increases the activity of limbic system neurons AM the Brain #28 Schizophrenia: pharmacological treatment Brain Abnormalities Dopamine Overactivity: Researchers found that schizophrenic patients express higher levels of dopamine D4 receptors in the brain. Drugs that block these sites help schizophrenic patients. Module

Abnormal Brain Morphology
Schizophrenia patients may exhibit morphological changes in the brain like enlargement of fluid-filled ventricles. Found in people who would later develop Schizophrenia (Pantelis) The more the shrinkage of the tissue the greater the disorder The cortex is smaller than normal. Thalamus smaller than normal, possible difficulty filtering sensory information, difficulty attending Which of the following is associated with schizophrenia? (AP04) (A) Enlarged, fluid filled areas in the brain (B) Damage to the medulla (C) Malfunction of the endocrine system (D) Impairment of the spinal reflexes (E) Injury to the parasympathetic nervous system Both Photos: Courtesy of Daniel R. Weinberger, M.D., NIH-NIMH/ NSC Module

The Psychological Therapies Module 40
Online link Module

Psychoanalysis: Methods
Through free association eventually the patient opens up and reveals his or her innermost private thoughts. Developing positive or negative feelings may be transference towards the therapist. Resistance hints at anxiety, you may find yourself editing your thoughts. The psychoanalysts job is to interpret the meaning of the resistances. Freud also looked at the latent content of dreams. The phenomenon of transference is a recognized component of which of the following therapeutic treatments? (AP99) (A) Flooding (B) Systematic desensitization (C) Milieu therapy (D) Psychoanalysis (E) Family therapy] Module

Behavior Therapy Therapy that applies learning principles to the elimination of unwanted behaviors. Preview Question 3: What are the assumptions and techniques of the behavior therapies? O. H. Mower, bed wetting treatment, liquid sensitive sheet, attached to alarm, wakes child if wet…urinary relaxation associated with waking…works in 3 out of 4 cases. AM The Mind 30. Treating Drug Addiction: A Behavioral Approach Provides an example of how drug therapies incorporate the results of research on several levels of behavior, and shows how patients learn to deal with environmental triggers for cravings. AM World of abnormal psychology 6. Substance Abuse Disorders Millions of Americans abuse alcohol, cigarettes, and cocaine. Health professionals know a great deal about these dangerous and costly disorders, including how to treat them. This program examines how the concept of treatment matching is used to help individuals overcome a variety of addictions. Behaviorists skeptical about the healing power of self awareness Which of the following therapeutic approaches is most likely to be criticized because it does not treat the underlying cause of the disorder? (AP99) (A) Cognitive (B) Behavioral (C) Biological (D) Psychoanalytic (E) Phenomenological 70. Training in the construction of an anxiety hierarchy and in relaxation techniques is likely to be part of the treatment for which of the following (AP12) A. Schizophrenia B. Bipolar disorder C. Specific phobia D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder E. Dissociative disorder To treat phobias or sexual disorders, behavior therapists do not delve deeply below the surface looking for inner causes. Link AM The Mind Module

Classical Conditioning Techniques
Counterconditioning is a procedure that conditions new responses to stimuli that trigger unwanted behaviors. Example – condition relaxation as a response to being in an enclosed space…or near a spider Behavior therapists emphasize which of the following in their treatment of clients? (AP99) (A) Freedom of choice about the future (B) The uncovering of unconscious defense mechanisms (C) Responses that have been reinforced in the past (D) Early childhood conflicts (E) Repressed aggressive impulses Behaviorally oriented therapists seek to modify a client's behavior by (AP94) (A) Repressing the client's deviant thoughts (B) Relating past events to the client's current behavior (C) Removing the underlying causes of the client's behavioral problems (D) Explaining the significance of the client's dreams (E) Changing the contingencies of reinforcement for the client One perspective in clinical psychology proposes that adaptive and abnormal behaviors can be developed through similar processes. Which of the following terms best characterizes this approach to abnormal behavior? (AP04) (A) Biological (B) Psychodynamic (C) Behavioral (D) Humanistic (E) Cognitive It is based on classical conditioning and includes exposure therapy and aversive conditioning. Module

Operant Conditioning Operant conditioning procedures enable therapists to use behavior modification, in which desired behaviors are rewarded and undesired behaviors are either unrewarded or punished. In institutional settings, therapists may create a token economy in which patients exchange a token of some sort, earned for exhibiting the desired behavior, for various privileges or treats. A number of withdrawn, uncommunicative 3-year-old autistic children have been successfully trained by giving and withdrawing reinforcements for desired and undesired behaviors. Criticisms of token economies,….how durable are behaviors…counter argument, these things are better than being institutionalized. What happens when rewards stop? A teacher taught her students to take turns by giving them stars to trade for snacks at the end of the day. This technique is called (AP04) (A) Systematic desensitization (B) Token economy (C) Classical conditioning (D) Rational-emotive therapy (E) Free association A psychologist is attempting to get Wade, an eight year old autistic boy, to make eye contact when she speaks to him. She gives Wade a piece of candy every time he looks at her face. This treatment illustrates which of the following therapeutic approaches? (AP04) (A) Cognitive (B) Biological (C) Psychodynamic (D) Humanistic (E) Behavioral Module

Cognitive Therapy Teaches people adaptive ways of thinking and acting based on the assumption that thoughts intervene between events and our emotional reactions. Preview Question 4: What are the goals and techniques of the cognitive therapies? Thinking colors our feelings Focus on constructive ways of thinking. Psychology Bernstein Once these cognitive obstacles are brought to light, the therapist models and encourages the client to develop and practice and more adaptive ways of thinking. As these new cognitive skills are learned, it becomes easier and more rewarding for clients to let these new thoughts guide their behavior (Meichenbaum, 1995). 20. In treating a patient for depression, Dr. Pratt focuses on changing the ways in which the patient interprets events. Which type of therapy is Dr. Pratt using? (AP12) A. Cognitive B. Self-Efficacy C. Biomedical D. Learning E. psychodynamic 65. In studying the behavior of five year olds in free-play situations, a cognitive psychologist would be most interested in the children’s (AP12) A. problem solving strategies B. toy preferences C. degree of cooperative behavior D. prosocial play activities E. choice of playmates Module

Group & Family Therapies
Group therapy normally consists of 6-9 people attending a 90-minute session that can help more people and costs less. Clients benefit from knowing others have similar problems. Preview Question 5: What are the benefits of group therapy? Cheaper 30. An advantage of group therapy over individual therapy is that group therapy A. requires less commitment from the client (AP12) B. achieves results more quickly C. produces a significantly higher recovery rate D. produces a higher rate of spontaneous remission E. enables clients to realize their problems are not unique © Mary Kate Denny/ PhotoEdit, Inc. Module

Community Psychology A movement to minimize or prevent psychological disorders through changes in social systems and through community mental health programs. Deinstitutionalization: The release of those with mental disorders from mental hospitals for the purpose of treating them in their home communities Psychology Bernstein It has long been argued that even if psychologists knew exactly how to treat every psychological problem, there would never be enough mental health professionals to help everyone who needs it (Albee, 1968). This view fostered the rise of community psychology, an approach whose goals are to treat people in their local communities and to work for social changes (such as lower unemployment) that may help prevent psychological disorders (Nelson & Prilleltensky, 2004). One aspect of community psychology, the community mental health movement, arose during the 1960s amid growing concern that patients were not improving after years of confinement in mental hospitals. The plan was that these patients would be released from their hospitals and would receive newly available antipsychotic drugs and other mental health services in newly funded community mental health centers. This deinstitutionalization process did spare patients the boredom and isolation of the hospital environment, but the mental health services available in the community never matched the need for them (Leff, 2006). The release of those with mental disorders from mental hospitals for the purpose of treating them in their home communities is called (AP94) (A) Deinstitutionalization (B) Milieu therapy (C) Primary prevention (D) Secondary prevention (E) noncrisis intervention Module

The Biomedical Therapies Module 42
Online link Module

Psychopharmacology is the study of drug effects on mind and behavior.
Drug Therapies Psychopharmacology is the study of drug effects on mind and behavior. Preview Question 11: What are the most common forms of biomedical therapies? What criticisms have been leveled against drug therapies? The precipitous decline of the inpatient populations of state and county mental hospitals since the 1950's can be attributed to which of the following? (AP99) I. Declining incidence of severe mental illnesses II. A policy of deinstitutionalization III. New drug therapies (A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III With the advent of drugs, hospitalization in mental institutions has rapidly declined. Module

Mood-Stabilizing Medications
Lithium Carbonate, a common salt, has been used to stabilize manic episodes in bipolar disorders. It moderates the levels of norepinephrine and glutamate neurotransmitters. 7 out of 10 bipolar patients benefit (Solomon) Suicide risk 1/6th of non medicated (Tondo) 57. Lithium carbonate has been useful in some instances in the treatment of (AP12) A. bipolar disorder B. dissociative identity disorder C. autistic disorder D. hypochondriasis E. anorexia nervosa Module

Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)
Brain Stimulation Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) ECT is used for severely depressed patients who do not respond to drugs. Preview Question 12: What is electroconvulsive therapy? When is it used? The patient is anesthetized and given a muscle relaxant. Patients usually get a 100 volt shock that relieves them of depression. Produces racking convulsions & brief unconsciousness 3 weekly sessions for 2 wks, 80% of patients have improvement, some memory loss AM The Mind 34. Treating Depression: Electroconvulsive Therapy Provides a clear and dramatic presentation of the process and some of the effects of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Electroconvulsive therapy has been most successful in the treatment of (AP94) (A) Phobias (B) Schizophrenia (C) Psychogenic amnesia (D) Multiple personality (E) Clinical depression Module

Social Thinking Module 43
Online link A supervisor who doubts the competence of a new employee unwillingly criticizes everything the new employee does. If the new employee consequently performs poorly, which of the following will most likely have occurred? (AP12) A. Latent learning B. Pluralistic ignorance C. A self-fulfilling prophecy D. The halo effect E. Hawthorne effect Module

Focuses in Social Psychology
Social psychology scientifically studies how we think about, influence, and relate to one another. Does his absenteeism signify illness, laziness, or a stressful work atmosphere? Was the horror of 9/11 the work of crazed evil people or ordinary people corrupted by life events? Social thinking involves thinking about others, especially when they engage in doing things that are unexpected. 43 2. Which type of psychologist would be interested primarily in studying whether people behave differently in groups than they do when alone? (AP04) (A) Experimental (B) Cognitive (C) Developmental (D) Social (E) Clinical “We cannot live for ourselves alone.” Herman Melville Module

Attributing Behavior to Persons or to Situations
Attribution Theory: Fritz Heider (1958) suggested that we have a tendency to give causal explanations for someone’s behavior, often by crediting either the situation or the person’s disposition. Preview Question 1: How do we tend to explain others’ behavior? How do we explain our own behavior? Sometimes attributions are valid According to attribution theory, Pablo is most likely to attribute his high score on a difficult exam to (AP94) (A) Good luck (B) His intelligence (C) His instructor's teaching ability (D) The low level of difficulty of the exam (E) His classmates' inadequate preparation for the exam Fritz Heider Module

Fundamental Attribution Error
Fundamental Attribution Error. The tendency to overestimate the impact of personal disposition and underestimate the impact of the situations in analyzing the behaviors of others. Woman acts aloof & critical or warm and friendly… some subjects told spontaneous, others told acting…. effect of telling subjects…nothing If she acted friendly they said she was friendly & vice versa. Attributed behavior to personal disposition even though it was situational. Especially in western individualistic cultures – disposition Asian cultures attribute more things to situations-possibly because they are more collective According to the theory of fundamental attribution error, when explaining the failures of others we usually underestimate the significance of (AP04) (A) Situational factors (B) Dispositional factors (C) Motivational factors (D) Support systems (E) Inherited traits 76. The tendency to believe that another person’s behavior is caused by dispositional factors rather than by environmental factors is called (AP12) A. situational attribution B impression management C. the fundamental distribution error D. an implicit personality theory E. identification We see Joe as quiet, shy, and introverted most of the time, but with friends he is very talkative, loud, and extroverted. Module

Small Request – Large Request
Foot-in-the-Door Phenomenon: The tendency for people who have first agreed to a small request to comply later with a larger request. Small sign, large sign Large ugly sign 17% agreed to have it in their yard. Other subjects after agreeing to have small sign placed, 76% later agreed to a large sign (Freedman 1966) In the years after racial segregation ended racial prejudice diminished. 54. Which of the following behaviors is most closely associated with the foot-in-the-door phenomenon? (AP12) A. Beth continues to participate in class because she is positively reinforced B. Adam is sleeping while the rest of his classmates are working on their group project C. Sutan asks his father for $5 and when he agrees, Sutan asks him for $15 more D. James feels pressure to go to the movies with his friends even though he prefers to go bowling E. Diana feels guilty because she did not help her family clear the table after dinner. In the Korean War, Chinese communists solicited cooperation from US army prisoners by asking them to carry out small errands. By complying to small errands they were likely to comply to larger ones. Module

Actions Can Affect Attitudes
Why do actions affect attitudes? One explanation is that when our attitudes and actions are opposed, we experience tension. This is called cognitive dissonance. Link 4:54 We rationalize “If I choose to do it I must believe it” Less coercion and more responsible we feel for a troubling act the more dissonance we feel. Festinger concluded that cognitive dissonance, or at least the avoidance of it, makes a man of strong conviction unlikely to change his opinion in the face of contradiction; he is immune to evidence and rational argument. As Festinger explains: 'Tell him you disagree and he turns away. Show him facts or figures and he questions your sources. Appeal to logic and he fails to see your point." all about psych – I think According to cognitive dissonance theory, human beings are motivated to (AP99) (A) Respond to an inborn need to pass their genes to the next generation (B) Maintain an optimal level of arousal (C) Satisfy basic needs such as hunger before proceeding to higher needs such as self actualization (D) Reduce tensions produced by inconsistent thoughts (E) Satisfy needs resulting from tissue deficits Which of the following do individuals experience when their behavior is inconsistent with their attitude? (AP04) (A) Approach-avoidance conflict (B) Cognitive dissonance (C) Intrinsic motivation (D) Homeostatic motivation (E) Overjustification 91. “It belongs to human nature to hate those you have injured.” This belief is best explained by (AP12) A. cognitive dissonance theory B. the two-factor theory of emotion C. evolutionary psychology D. the availability heuristic E. drive-reduction theory Link To relieve ourselves of this tension we bring our attitudes closer to our actions (Festinger, 1957). Module

Social Influence Module 44
Online link Module

Group Pressure & Conformity
Suggestibility is a subtle type of conformity, adjusting our behavior or thinking toward some group standard. Solomon Asch 1955 5 ringers one subject 2 normal trials, trial 3 confederates say 3 matches the standard, subjects say 3 1/3rd of the time. Alone they err only about 1 in 100 times Which of the following was true of Solomon Asch’s experiments on conformity? (AP94) (A) People conformed if they knew and respected the authority figure present. (B) An increase from 7 to 12 confederates increased conformity by experimental subjects. (C) Experimental subjects conformed less frequently when their judgments were made known to the group. (D) About 99% of the judgments made by the experimental subjects were wrong. (E) If the confederates' judgments were not unanimous, the degree of conformity by experimental subjects decreased. Candid camera video of people facing wrong way in elevator…on hard drive. Module

Group Pressure & Conformity
Informational Social Influence: An influence resulting from one’s willingness to accept others’ opinions about reality. Link 1:58 A scene from one of Asch’s trials Solomon Asch’s findings on conformity might best be used to explain why (AP04) (A) Members of a family all like the taste of bananas (B) Adolescents follow fads in dress and hairstyle (C) People are less likely to accept blame for their failures than to accept credit for their successes (D) Bystander intervention is more likely to occur when few, rather than many, bystanders are present (E) Performance is enhanced in the presence of others Laugh tracks make us laugh longer and more often when humorous material is presented and we rate the material as funnier. (Fuller 1974) Cialdini Influence 99 People receiving shocks in presence of someone showing very little distress will show less distress. (Craig 1978) Cialdini Influence 101 William Vandivert/ Scientific American Module

Conditions that Increase Conformity
One is made to feel incompetent or insecure. The group has at least three people. (but no appreciable increase over 3) The group is unanimous. One admires the group’s status and attractiveness. One has no prior commitment to a response. The group observes one’s behavior. One’s culture strongly encourages respect for a social standard. Influence Cialdini Free-Thinking Youth We frequently think of teenagers as rebellious and independent-minded. It is important to recognize, however, that typically that is true only with respect to their parents. Among similar others, they conform massively to what social proof tells them is proper. 82. (NO GRAPHIC) which of the following is the best interpretation of Solomon Asch’s findings, pictured above, concerning conformity in perceptual judgments? (AP12) A. The larger the group the greater conformity of the group members B. The smaller the group the greater the conformity of the group members C. Conformity increases as group sizes increases to about four persons D. Conformity decreases as group size decreases to about four persons E. There is no relationship between group size and conformity Module

Milgram’s Study: Results
Repeat experiment 65% followed instructions Highest obedience -Person giving orders nearby & perceived as legitimate authority figure More if authority associated with prestigious institution -Depersonalized or at a distance, (combat phenomenon, not fire at enemy) No role models for defiance Milgram on youtube Which of the following studies has had the most profound impact on ethical issues in psychological research? (AP94) (A) Stanley Milgram's study of obedience (B) Solomon Asch's study of conformity (C) Daryl Bem's study of self-perception (D) William McGuire's study of self-concept (E) Leon Festinger's study of cognitive dissonance Milgram on Youtube Module

Diffusion of Responsibility/Bystander Intervention Effect
The phenomenon where a person is less likely to take responsibility for an action or inaction when others are present. The greater number of bystanders who witness an emergency the less likely it is that any one of them will intervene to help. Link 3:36 Bystander effect Link The failure of bystanders to give victims of automobile accidents needed assistance is sometimes explained as an instance of (AP94) (A) Group polarization (B) deindividuation (C) Situational attribution (D) Diffusion of responsibility (E) Mere exposure effect The more people present at a scene, the less likely it is that anyone will help a person in need. This phenomenon is a manifestation of (AP99) (A) Diffusion of responsibility (B) Social facilitation (C) Situational ambiguity (D) A social norm (E) Reciprocity Which of the following is considered an explanation of why bystander intervention is less likely to occur if there is a large number of witnesses to a crime? (AP04) (A) Prejudice (C) Diffusion of responsibility (D) Group polarization (E) Self-efficacy 1st link 2nd link the bystander effect from heroic imagination tv Module

Lessons from the Conformity and Obedience Studies
In both Asch's and Milgram's studies, participants were pressured to choose between following their standards and being responsive to others. In Milgram’s study, participants were torn between hearing the victims pleas and the experimenter’s orders. “Normal people can become agents of a terrible destructive process” Milgram We succumb gradually to evil (foot in the door phenomena) In Stanley Milgram's obedience experiments, subjects were LEAST likely to deliver maximum levels of shock when the (AP99) (A) Experiment was conducted at a prestigious institution (B) "Learner" screamed loudly in pain (C) Experimenter told hesitant subjects, "You have no choice, you must go on" (D) "Learner" said that he had a heart condition (E) Subjects observed other subjects who refused to obey the experimenter's orders Module

Individual Behavior in the Presence of Others
Social facilitation: Refers to improved performance on tasks in the presence of others. Triplett (1898) noticed cyclists’ race times were faster when they competed against others than when they just raced against the clock. Preview Question 4: How does the mere presence of others influence our actions? How does our behavior change with we act as part of a group? How do groups affect our behavior? Social psychologists study various groups: One person affecting another Families Teams Committees Drivers at lights take 15% less time to travel first 100 yards if another car is beside them (Towler) If observed we become aroused. This arousal strengthens the most likely response – the correct one on and easy task, an incorrect one on a difficult task. Expert pool players hit 71% of shots alone, 80% if people watch them… Poor shooters hit 36% alone, 25% when watched Social facilitation theory focuses on situations in which the presence of others causes an individual’s performance to (AP04) (A) Remain unchanged (B) Decline (C) Improve (D) Spontaneously recover (E) Become fixated Michelle Agnis/ NYT Pictures Module

Social Loafing The tendency of an individual in a group to exert less effort toward attaining a common goal than when tested individually (Latané, 1981). Why – People in groups feel less accountability Especially common among men in individualistic cultures. 43 or A club president discovers that contributions of club members drop when the total contribution of all members is published rather than the contributions of individuals. This drop can be explained by the phenomenon of (AP04) (A) Group polarization (B) Learned helplessness (C) Social loafing (D) Social facilitation (E) Socialization Module

Deindividuation The loss of self-awareness and self-restraint in group situations that foster arousal and anonymity. Tribal warriors who depersonalize themselves with face paint or masks more likely to kill, torture or mutilate captured enemies. (Watson 1973) Zimbardo 1970, hooded women delivered 2x more electric shock to a victim than identifiable women did. Second pic Which of the following concepts was advanced by social psychologists to help explain why people who are part of a crowd sometimes commit aggressive, antisocial acts that they would not commit if they were alone? (AP94) (A) Groupthink (B) Cognitive dissonance (C) Social facilitation (D) Deindividuation (E) Catharsis Which of the following explains the behavior of normally law-abiding people who act destructively when they are part of a crowd? (AP04) (A) Group polarization (B) The mere exposure effect (C) Deindividuation (D) Entrapment (E) Fundamental attribution error Mob behavior Module

Effects of Group Interaction
Group Polarization enhances a group’s prevailing attitudes through a discussion. If a group is like-minded, discussion strengthens its prevailing opinions and attitudes. Preview Question 5: What are group polarization and groupthink? Prejudiced students became more prejudiced. Conservatives more conservative, liberals more liberal. Terrorists Gangs Conspiracy theorists Alien enthusiasts Liberals/conservatives 94. After discussing a topic, a group makes a decision that is more extreme than average position of all the group members prior to discussion. The group’s action is an example of (AP12) A. group consensus B. group polarization C. group consistency D. the mere-exposure effect E. diffusion of responsibility Module

Social Relations Module 45
Online link Add slide for stereotype 8. A stereotype is defined as which of the following? (AP12) A. An adjustment of one’s behavior in response to peer pressure B. An action performed in response to authority C. A belief that one’s own culture is superior to all others D. A generalization about a social group E. A negative action taken against someone who is a member of a social group. Module

Influences Genetic Influences: Animals have been bred for aggressiveness for sport and at times for research. Twin studies show aggression may be genetic. In men, aggression is possibly linked to the Y chromosome. Wired dominant monkey w/ electrode to curb aggression, another monkey learned to press the button when the dominant male became threatening Electrode in the amygdala of woman,…she became aggressive when activated 15 death row inmates, all had had severe head trauma and diminished activity in the frontal lobes (Amen 1996). 96. Gender differences most often have been found in which of the following?(AP12) A. Aggression B. Short-term memory C. Auditory discrimination D. Visual Acuity E. Pattern matching Neural Influences: Some centers in the brain, especially the limbic system (amygdala) and the frontal lobe, are intimately involved with aggression. Module

The Psychology of Attraction
Proximity: Geographic nearness is a powerful predictor of friendship. Mere exposure effect: Repeated exposure to novel stimuli increases its attraction. Preview Question 11: Why do we befriend or fall in love with some people but not with others? People more likely to marry someone whose first name resembles their own (Jones 2004) Familiarity breeds fondness Have women visit a 200 person class, 5, 10, or 15 sessions. The ones the students had seen the most rated most attractive. 27. The tendency to develop a positive attitude toward a product that has been advertised repeatedly in the media is referred to as (AP12) A. impressive management B. the Purkinje shift C. the mere-exposure effect D. reaction formation E. subliminal suggestion Module

Psychology of Attraction
4. Similarity: Similar views among individuals causes the bond of attraction to strengthen. Opposites retract We like people who like us Dating sites try to find similarity….e-harmony etc. Research findings in the area of interpersonal attraction indicate that individuals are most likely to be attracted to others who are (AP94) (A) Critical of them (B) Similar to them in attitudes and values (C) Like their parents (D) Willing to do favors for them (E) Indulgent of their failings According to research on attraction, people are most likely to be attracted to others who are (AP99) (A) Very different from themselves (B) Similar to themselves in many ways (C) Barely known or complete strangers (D) More physically active than they themselves are (E) Less physically attractive than they themselves are 36. The factors chiefly responsible for interpersonal attractions include (AP12) A. proximity and similarity B. contrasting values C. similar tendencies to dominate or submit D. similar attitudes toward authority E. shared atrributional biases Similarity breeds content! The more people are alike the more their liking endures. (Byrne 1971) Module

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