Presentation is loading. Please wait.

Presentation is loading. Please wait.

Chemistry EOC Review Compiled by M. Wilds Enka High School 2007-2008 Revised 2010.

Similar presentations


Presentation on theme: "Chemistry EOC Review Compiled by M. Wilds Enka High School 2007-2008 Revised 2010."— Presentation transcript:

1 Chemistry EOC Review Compiled by M. Wilds Enka High School 2007-2008 Revised 2010

2 2 In what way do currently accepted models of the atom differ from the model in the drawing? A. Electrons do not have an elliptical orbit. B. The nucleus contains only protons. C. All electrons are the same distance from the nucleus. D. Electrons do not have a negative charge.

3 3 Isotopes of an atom could be detected based on which of the following characteristics? A.atomic radius B.nuclear charge C.nuclear mass D.number of electrons

4 4 What is the electron configuration for ? A.1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 3d 1 B.1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 1 C.1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3p 6 4s 2 4p 1 D.1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 2 3d 10 4p 6 5s 2 4d 1

5 5 What is the formula of iron(III) oxide? A. FeO 3 B. Fe 3 O C. Fe 2 O 3 D. FeO

6 6 What mass of KCl is necessary to form a saturated solution if the KCl is dissolved in 200.g of water at 50.0ºC? A. 21.0g B. 42.0g C. 55.0g D. 84.0g

7 7 If 90.0 grams of KNO 3 were added to 50.0 grams of water at 50.0 C, how many grams of KNO 3 would settle out? A. 0 grams B. 20.0 grams C. 45.0 grams D. 150. grams

8 8 If water is allowed to evaporate from an unsaturated saltwater solution, how will the concentration of the solution change? A. The concentration will decrease. B. The concentration will first increase, then decrease. C. The concentration will remain the same. D. The concentration will increase.

9 9 In which system is the pressure in the test tube greater than atmospheric pressure? ABCD

10 10 An ideal gas is confined to a 10.0-L balloon at STP. What is the new volume of the balloon when it is placed under 800. mmHg at 100°C? A. 14.4 L B. 13.0 L C. 7.70 L D. 7.00 L

11 11 What is the shape of a molecule which has two shared pairs of electrons and no unshared pairs? A. tetrahedral B. bent C. trigonal planar D. linear

12 12 The following data was collected during an experiment. A. The conductivity of solution B and its low freezing point are a result of more ions being released in the solvent by the solute. B The freezing points of solutions A and C are nearly the same because they contain solutes that do not dissolve well. C The conductivity of A is slight because, being an acid, it is a strong electrolyte. D The relationship between freezing points and conductivity cannot be explained without more data. Which of the following statements contains a correct explanation of the observed data?

13 13 A substance dissolves well in water but not in benzene. Which of the following can be concluded about the substance? A. The substance may be either polar or nonpolar. B. The substance is nonpolar. C. The substance is polar. D. The substance is neither polar nor nonpolar.

14 14 When bonded with sulfur, which element will most likely form an ionic compound? A. oxygen B. calcium C. hydrogen D. chlorine

15 15 Which of the following pairs of substances will mix to produce a solution that can conduct an electric current? A. sodium chloride (NaCl) and benzene (C 6 H 6 ) B. iodine (I 2 ) and benzene (C 6 H 6 ) C. benzene (C 6 H 6 ) and water (H 2 O) D. lithium nitrate (LiNO 3 ) and water (H 2 O)

16 16 Which idea of John Dalton is no longer considered part of the modern view of atoms? A. Atoms are extremely small. B. Atoms of the same element have identical masses. C. Atoms combine in simple whole number ratios to form compounds. D. Atoms of different elements can combine in different ratios to form different compounds.

17 17 Which best describes the current atomic theory? A. Atoms consist of electrons circling in definite orbits around a positive nucleus. B. Atoms are composed of electrons in a cloud around a positive nucleus. C. Atoms can easily be split, at which time they become radioactive. D. An atom’s mass is determined by the mass of its neutrons.

18 18 What is the nuclear composition of uranium-235? A. 92 electrons + 143 protons B. 92 protons + 143 electrons C. 143 protons + 92 neutrons D. 92 protons + 143 neutrons

19 19 Which best describes the relationship between subatomic particles in any neutral atom? A. The number of protons equals the number of electrons. B. The number of protons equals the number of neutrons. C. The number of neutrons equals the number of electrons. D. The number of neutrons is greater than the number of protons.

20 20 What is the name of the compound PbO 2 ? A. lead oxide B. lead(II) oxide C. lead oxide(II) D. lead(IV) oxide

21 21 What is the name of HCl (aq)? A. chloric acid B. hydrochloric acid C. hydrogen chloride D. perchloric acid

22 22 What is the chemical formula for calcium nitrate? A. CaNO 3 B. Ca(NO 2 ) 2 C. Ca(NO 3 ) 2 D. Ca 3 N 2

23 23 Which is the correct formula for dinitrogen pentoxide? A. N 4 O B. NO 2 C. N 2 O 5 D. NO 4

24 24 If the volume of an 18.5-g piece of metal is 2.35 cm 3, what is the identity of the metal? A. iron B. lead C. nickel D. zinc

25 25 Which substance listed in the table is a liquid at 27°C? A. I B. II C. III D. IV

26 26 Which will increase the solubility of most solid solutes? A. decreasing the temperature B. decreasing the amount of solvent at constant temperature C. increasing the amount of solute at constant temperature D. increasing the temperature

27 27 What happens to the pressure of a constant mass of gas at constant temperature when the volume is doubled? A. The pressure is doubled. B. The pressure remains the same. C. The pressure is reduced by ½. D. The pressure is reduced by ¼.

28 28 The total pressure in a closed vessel containing N 2, O 2 and CO 2 is 30 atm. If the partial pressure of N 2 is 4 atm, and the partial pressure of O 2 is 6 atm, what is the partial pressure of CO 2 ? A. 20 atm B. 30 atm C. 40 atm D. 50 atm

29 29 What is the pressure, in atmospheres, exerted by a 0.100-mol sample of oxygen in a 2.00-L container at 273°C? A. 4.48 × 10 -1 atm B. 2.24 × 10 0 atm C. 1.12 × 10 3 atm D. 2.24 × 10 3 atm

30 30 What type of bonding is associated with compounds that have the following characteristics: high melting points conduct electricity in the molten state solutions conduct electricity normally crystalline solids at room temperature. A. covalent B. ionic C. hydrogen D. metallic

31 31 Which is a unique characteristic of the bonding between metal atoms? A. Atoms require additional electrons to reach a stable octet. B. Atoms must give away electrons to reach a stable octet. C. Atoms share valence electrons only with neighboring atoms to reach a stable octet. D. Delocalized electrons move among many atoms creating a sea of electrons.

32 32 Which pair of elements would most likely bond to form a covalently bonded compound? A. sodium and fluorine B. barium and chlorine C. phosphorus and oxygen D. magnesium and sulfur

33 33 Based on the VSEPR theory, what is the molecular geometry of a molecule of PI 3 ? A. linear B. tetrahedral C. trigonal planar D. trigonal pyramidal

34 34 Consider the phase diagram below. At what temperature does the normal boiling point occur? A. 45°C B. 60°C C. 100°C D. 110°C

35 35 What happens when energy is removed from liquid water? A. Molecules slow down, and more hydrogen bonds are formed. B. Molecules slow down, and more hydrogen bonds are broken. C. Molecules move faster, and more hydrogen bonds are formed. D. Molecules move faster, and more hydrogen bonds are broken.

36 36 A violent reaction occurs when sodium is placed in water. Which element would produce a similar reaction with water? A. Mg B. S C. K D. Cr

37 37 An element with the electron configuration [Ne] 3s 2 3p 2 would be expected to react similarly to which of the following elements? A. aluminum B. carbon C. phosphorus D. neon

38 38 A student placed a strip of copper in a container of iodine vapor. A chemical reaction occurred that produced a white powder on the strip of copper. The following data were collected: Use this information to answer the next question.

39 39 How many moles of copper were in the original strip? A. 0.4557 mole B. 2.194 moles C. 1840. moles D. 6.020 x 10 23 moles Go back to the data

40 40 A student placed a strip of copper in a container of iodine vapor. A chemical reaction occurred that produced a white powder on the strip of copper. The following data were collected: Use this information to answer the next question.

41 41 What is the percent by mass of iodine in the product? A. 6.22 % B. 20.2 % C. 25.4 % D. 79.8 % Go Back to Data

42 42 A student placed a strip of copper in a container of iodine vapor. A chemical reaction occurred that produced a white powder on the strip of copper. The following data were collected: Use this information to answer the next question.

43 43 The product contains copper(II) ions; which of the following is an acceptable balanced equation for this reaction? A. Cu 2(s) +I 2(g)  2CuI (s) B. Cu (s) +I (g)  CuI (s) C. Cu (s) +I 2(g)  CuI 2(s) D. 4Cu (s) +I 2(g)  2Cu 2 I (s) Go back to the data

44 44 How many moles of sodium carbonate are in 500. mL of a 0.300-M solution of sodium carbonate? A. 0.150 mole B. 0.840 mole C. 3.18 moles D. 150. moles

45 45 Butane C 4 H 10 is used as the fuel in many portable lighters. When butane is completely combusted in oxygen, what is the coefficient for the water produced in the properly balanced equation that represents the reaction? A. 10 B. 8 C. 6 D. 4

46 46 Consider the following balanced equation: 2KClO 3(s)  2KCl (s) + 3O 2(g) How many moles of O 2 will be obtained by decomposing 3.50 moles of KClO 3 ? A. 5.25 moles B. 3.00 moles C. 2.30 moles D. 0.530 moles

47 47 Consider the following balanced equation: 5CO + I 2 O 5  5CO 2 + I 2 Which substance is the oxidizing agent? A. CO B. I 2 O 5 C. CO 2 D. I 2

48 48 Use the graph below to answer the next question.

49 49 In the graph, which of the following is represented by the letter L? A. reaction heat B. progress of reaction C. catalytic effect D. activation energy Go back to the graph

50 50 Use the graph below to answer the next question.

51 51 The reaction represented in the graph is best described by which of the following terms? A unreactive B nonreversible C exothermic D endothermic Go back to the graph

52 52 Use the graph below to answer the next question.

53 53 On the graph, which dimension would be changed if the rate of reaction were to be altered by a catalyst? A. K B. L C. N D. O Go back to the graph

54 54 How can the reaction rate be increased for a reaction between hydrogen gas and chlorine gas? A. increase the size of the container B. decrease the temperature of the reactants C. decrease pressure on the molecules of the reactants D. increase the concentration of either or both reactant molecules

55 55 What volume of 0.2-M potassium hydroxide (KOH) is needed to neutralize 40 mL of 0.2-M sulfuric acid (H 2 SO 4 ) ? A. 20 mL B. 40 mL C. 80 mL D. 160 mL

56 56 The compound formed between element X and oxygen has the chemical formula X 2 O. Which element would X most likely represent? A. Fe B. Zn C. Ag D. Sn

57 57 Which electron configuration represents a transition element? A. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 3 B. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 C. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 2 3d 7 D. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 2 3d 10 4p 4

58 58 Given the electronic configuration of 1s 2 2s 2 2p 4, how many electrons does this element have in its outer level? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

59 59 Which correctly lists four atoms from smallest to largest radii? A. I, Br, Cl, F B. F, I, Br, Cl C. Si, P, S, Cl D. Cl, S, P, Si

60 60 Which best explains why cations are smaller than the atoms from which they are formed? A The metallic atom gains electrons, causing a larger effective nuclear pull. B The metallic atom loses electrons, resulting in loss of an entire energy level. C The nonmetallic atom gains electrons, causing a larger effective nuclear pull. D The nonmetallic atom loses electrons, resulting in loss of an entire energy level.

61 61 Which have the lowest electronegativities? A. alkali metals B. halogens C. rare earth elements D. transition metals

62 62 How many moles are in 59.6 grams of BaSO 4 ? A. 0.256 mole B. 3.91 moles C. 13.9 moles D. 59.6 moles

63 63 What is the volume of two moles of hydrogen gas at STP? A. 44.8 L B. 22.4 L C. 11.2 L D. 2.00 L

64 64 How many molecules are contained in 55.0 g of H 2 SO 4 ? A. 0.561 molecule B. 3.93 molecules C. 3.38 x 10 23 molecules D. 2.37 x 10 24 molecules

65 65 If a sample of magnesium has a mass of 60. g, how many moles of magnesium does the sample contain? A. 1.1 moles B. 1.2 moles C. 2.0 moles D. 2.5 moles

66 66 How many grams of KCl are necessary to prepare 1.50 liters of a 0.500-M solution of KCl? A. 224 g B. 74.6 g C. 56.0 g D. 24.9 g

67 67 What is the molarity of a solution containing 20.0 g of sodium hydroxide dissolved in 1.00 L of solution? A. 0.500 M B. 0.400 M C. 0.300 M D. 0.200 M

68 68 Analysis shows a compound to be, by mass, 43.8% N, 6.2% H, and 50.0% O. Which is a possible molecular formula for the substance? A. NH 4 NO 2 B. NH 4 NO 3 C. NH 3 OH D. N 2 OH

69 69 A compound has an empirical formula of CH 2 O and a molecular mass of 180 g. What is the compound’s molecular formula? A. C 3 H 6 O 3 B. C 6 H 12 O 6 C. C 6 H 11 O 7 D. C 12 H 22 O 11

70 70 Under standard conditions, the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is 20.95%. What is the partial pressure of the oxygen at these standard conditions? A. 760 mm Hg B. 20.95 mm Hg C. 159.22 mm Hg D. 79.05 mm Hg

71 71 What is the percent by mass of iron in the compound Fe 2 O 3 ? A. 70% B. 56% C. 48% D. 30%

72 72 Metallic sodium reacts violently with water to form hydrogen and sodium hydroxide according to the balanced equation: 2Na + 2H 2 O→2NaOH + H 2 How many moles of hydrogen gas are generated when 4.0 moles of sodium react with excess water? A. 1.0 mole B. 2.0 moles C. 3.0 moles D. 4.0 moles

73 73 Consider this reaction: 3Ca (s) +2H 3 PO 4(aq) → Ca 3 (PO 4 ) 2(s) + 3H 2(g) How many moles of calcium are required to produce 60.0 g of calcium phosphate? A. 0.145 mole B. 0.194 mole C. 0.387 mole D. 0.581 mole

74 74 According to the equation 2H 2 O (l) → 2H 2(g) + O 2(g), what mass of H 2 O is required to yield 22.4 L of O 2 at STP? A. 12 g B. 18 g C. 24 g D. 36 g

75 75 Consider this reaction: 3Mg (s) +2H 3 PO 4(aq)  Mg 3 (PO 4 ) 2(s) + 3H 2(g) How many grams of magnesium phosphate should be produced if 5.40 grams of magnesium react with excess phosphoric acid? A. 1.80 grams B. 19.5 grams C. 58.4 grams D. 175 grams

76 76 Methane (CH 4 ) is burned in oxygen according to this balanced chemical equation: CH 4(g) +2O 2(g)  CO 2(g) +2H 2 O (g) What volume of carbon dioxide is formed when 9.36 liters of methane are burned in excess oxygen at STP? A. 9.36 L B. 15.0 L C. 18.7 L D. 22.4 L

77 77 In the figure below, what do the unshaded particles represent? A.electrons B.neutrons C.positrons D.protons

78 78 Consider the spectrum for the hydrogen atom. In which situation will light be produced? A. Electrons absorb energy as they move to an excited state. B. Electrons release energy as they move to an excited state. C. Electrons absorb energy as they return to the ground state. D. Electrons release energy as they return to the ground state.

79 79 Which statement regarding red and green visible light is correct? A. The speed of green light is greater than that of red light. B. The wavelength of green light is longer than that of red light. C. The energy of green light is lower than that of red light. D. The frequency of green light is higher than that of red light.

80 80 Which color of light would a hydrogen atom emit when an electron changes from the n = 5 level to the n = 2 level? A. red B. yellow C. green D. blue

81 81 What energy level transition is indicated when the light emitted by a hydrogen atom has a wavelength of 103 nm? A. n = 2 to n = 1 B. n = 3 to n = 1 C. n = 4 to n = 2 D. n = 5 to n = 2

82 82 A piece of metal is heated in a Bunsen burner flame and then immersed in a beaker of cool water. Which statement best describes the effect of the temperature changes on the kinetic energy of the particles? A. Kinetic energy of metal atoms decreases in the flame. B. Kinetic energy of water molecules increases when the heated metal is immersed. C. Kinetic energy of water molecules decreases when the heated metal is immersed. D. Kinetic energy of metal atoms increases when immersed in the cooler water.

83 83 The gases helium, neon, and argon are in separate containers at 55°C. Which is true about the kinetic energy of the gases? A. Helium has the lowest mass and therefore greatest kinetic energy. B. They each have a different kinetic energy. C. Argon has the greatest mass and therefore the greatest kinetic energy. D. They all have the same average kinetic energy.

84 84 This is a heating curve for a substance. Between points X and Y, which would be observed? A. Solid and liquid will be present. B. Only vapor will be present. C. Liquid and vapor will be present. D. Only liquid will be present.

85 85 An open container of water is brought to a boil and heated until all of the water is converted to water vapor. Which describes the changes in the water molecules? A. The molecules speed up and move farther apart. B. The molecules speed up and move closer together. C. The molecules slow down and move farther apart. D. The molecules slow down and move closer together

86 86 Which element is necessary for the combustion of paper? A. F B. N C. O D. Cl

87 87 If 6.00 g of gold was heated from 20.0°C to 22.0°C. How much heat was applied to the gold? A. 1.55 J B. 15.5 J C. 17.0 J D. 32.5 J

88 88 A student has a beaker containing 55 g of water at 100°C. How much heat is needed to convert the water to steam? A. 120,000 J B. 18,000 J C. 2,200 J D. 330 J

89 89 How many grams of ice will melt at 0°C if the ice absorbs 420. J of energy? A. 0.186 g B. 0.795 g C. 1.26 g D. 5.38 × 10 4 g

90 90 An 18.0-g piece of an unidentified metal was heated from 21.5°C to 89.0°C. If 292 J of heat energy was absorbed by the metal in the heating process, what was the identity of the metal? A. calcium B. copper C. iron D. silver

91 91 This graph represents the change in energy for two laboratory trials of the same reaction. Which factor could explain the energy difference between the trials? A. Heat was added to trial #2. B. A catalyst was added to trial #2. C. Trial #1 was stirred. D. Trial #1 was cooled.

92 92 Consider this phase diagram. What process is occurring when a substance changes from point X (-130°C and 50 kPa) to point Y (30°C and 100 kPa)? A. boiling B. freezing C. melting D. sublimation

93 93 When a chemical cold pack is activated, it becomes cool to the touch. What is happening in terms of energy? A. An exothermic reaction is occurring, absorbing cold from its surroundings. B. An exothermic reaction is occurring, releasing heat to its surroundings. C. An endothermic reaction is occurring, releasing cold to its surroundings. D. An endothermic reaction is occurring, absorbing heat from its surroundings.

94 94 Consider this diagram: Which of the three types of radiation will penetrate the paper and wood? A. alpha, beta, gamma B. alpha and beta only C. gamma only D. beta only

95 95 The half-life of phosphorus-32 is 14.30 days. How many milligrams of a 20.00 mg sample of phosphorus-32 will remain after 85.80 days? A. 3.333 mg B. 0.6250 mg C. 0.3125 mg D. 0.1563 mg

96 96 In the figure below, what type of nuclear activity is represented? A. fission B. fusion C. alpha emission D. beta emission

97 97 Which particle will complete this reaction? 59 27 Co + ? → 60 27 Co A. electron B. neutron C. nucleus D. proton

98 98 Which element has the greatest electronegativity? A. O B. Cl C. P D. F

99 99 Which will complete this equation? 238 92 U → 234 90 Th + ____ A. 0 1 e − B. 0 0  C. 1 1 H D. 4 2 He

100 100 Consider this reaction: NH 3(g) + HCl (g) → NH 4 Cl (s) Which type of reaction does this equation represent? A. combustion B. decomposition C. single replacement D. synthesis

101 101 Which equation represents a single replacement reaction that can occur? A. F 2 + 2NaCl → 2NaF + Cl 2 B. Cl 2 + 2NaF → 2NaCl + F 2 C. Cu + 2NaCl → CuCl 2 + 2Na D. Zn + 2NaF → ZnF 2 + 2Na

102 102 What products are formed when the metal potassium is added to water? A. K and H 2 O B. KOH and H 2 O C. K 2 O and H 2 D. KOH and H 2

103 103 When Na 2 O reacts with H 2 O, what is produced? A. HNaO 2 B. Na + H 2 O C. NaO + H 2 D. NaOH

104 104 Which equation is correctly balanced? A. Cu + H 2 SO 4 → CuSO 4 + H 2 O + SO 2 B. 2Na + 2H 2 O → 2NaOH + H 2 C. 2Fe + 3O 2 → Fe 2 O 3 D. 4Cu + S 8 → 8Cu 2 S

105 105 What coefficients are required to balance this equation? _Fe 2 O 3 + _CO → _Fe + _CO 2 A. 2, 6, 3, 6 B. 1, 3, 2, 3 C. 1, 1, 2, 2 D. 1, 1, 2, 1

106 106 An aqueous solution of silver nitrate is added to an aqueous solution of iron(II) chloride. Which is the net ionic equation for the reaction that occurs? A. AgNO 2(aq) +FeCl (aq) → AgCl (s) + FeNO 2(aq) B. 2AgNO 3(aq) + FeCl 2(aq) →2AgCl (s) +Fe(NO 3 ) 2(aq) C. 2Ag + (aq) + NO 3 - (aq) + Fe 2+ (aq) + Cl 2(g) → 2AgCl (s) D. 2Ag + (aq) + 2Cl - (aq) → 2AgCl (s)

107 107 Which example indicates that a chemical change has occurred? A. When two aqueous solutions are mixed, a precipitate is formed. B. As ammonium nitrate dissolves in water, it causes the temperature of the water to decrease. C. Alcohol evaporates when left in an open container. D. Water is added to blue copper(II) chloride solution. The resulting mixture is lighter blue in color.

108 108 Consider this chemical equation: NH 3(aq) +HCl (aq) →NH 4 + (aq) + Cl − (aq) In this reaction, why is the ammonia considered a base? A. NH 3 increases the hydronium ion concentration. B. NH 3 decreases the hydroxide ion concentration. C. NH 3 accepts a proton. D. NH 3 donates a proton.

109 109 Phenolphthalein is an indicator that turns pink when added to a basic solution. In which solution would phenolphthalein turn pink? A. NaOH B. HCl C. H 2 O D. NaCl

110 110 A water sample was found to have a pH of 6 at 25°C. What is the hydroxide concentration in the water sample? A. 1×10 −8 M B. 6×10 −8 M C. 1×10 −6 M D. 6×10 −6 M

111 111 What is the pH of a solution of KOH with a hydroxide concentration of [OH]=1×10 −4 M? A. -10 B. -4 C. 4 D. 10

112 112 In a titration experiment, if 30.0 mL of an HCl solution reacts with 24.6 mL of a 0.50-M NaOH solution, what is the concentration of the HCl solution? A. 0.41 M B. 0.61 M C. 1.5 M D. 370 M

113 113 What is the oxidation number of the chromium atom in the Cr 2 O 7 −2 ion? A. -6 B. - 4 C. +4 D. +6

114 114 Consider this oxidation-reduction reaction: 16H + +2MnO 4 - +5Sn 2+ → 5Sn 4+ + 2Mn 2+ + 8H 2 O Which represents the oxidation half reaction? A. Sn 4+ + 2e - → Sn 2+ B. Mn 6+ + 4e - → Mn 2+ C. Sn 2+ → Sn 4+ + 2e - D. Mn → Mn 2+ + 2e -

115 115 This balanced equation represents a chemical reaction: 3Ag +4HNO 3 →3AgNO 3 +NO +2H 2 O Which substance undergoes reduction? A. Ag 0 B. H + C. N 5+ D. O 2−

116 116 Consider this chemical equation: 2AgBr (s) + energy → 2Ag (s) + Br 2(l) Which is true about the reaction? A. Silver is reduced. B. Bromine is reduced. C. Silver loses electrons. D. Bromine gains electrons.

117 117 Consider this balanced chemical equation: 2H 2 O 2(aq) → 2H 2 O (l) + O 2(g) Which will increase the rate of the reaction? A. increasing pressure on the reaction B. decreasing concentration of the reactants C. adding a catalyst to the reaction D. decreasing the temperature of the reaction

118 118 For the reaction A + (aq) + B - (aq) → AB (s) increasing the temperature increases the rate of the reaction. Which is the best explanation for this happening? A. The pressure increases, which in turn increases the production of products. B. The concentration of reactants increases with an increase in temperature. C. The average kinetic energy increases, so the likelihood of more effective collisions between ions increases. D. Systems are more stable at high temperatures.

119 119 Which statement explains why the speed of some reactions is increased when the surface area of one or all the reactants is increased? A. increasing surface area changes the electronegativity of the reactant particles B. increasing surface area changes the concentration of the reactant particles C. increasing surface area changes the conductivity of reactant particles D. increasing surface area enables more reactant particles to collide

120 120 The metric unit used to measure linear dimensions is A. Kelvin B. meter C. candela D. kilogram

121 121 10 1, 10 -1, and 10 –2 represent, respectively, the prefixes A.mega, hecto, milli B.deci, centi, milli C.hecto, deka, deci D.deka, deci, centi

122 122 Why does sodium show a +1 oxidation number? A. Because it gains one electron in order to form a bond. B. Because it loses one electron in order to form a bond. C. Because it gains one proton in order to form a bond. D. Because it loses one proton in order to form a bond.

123 123 The metric system is preferred by scientists because the units of dimension are related to each other by an integral power of A.12 B.1 C.10 D.5

124 124 Which of the following is an incorrect statement about compounds? A.All molecular compounds conduct electricity. B.Compounds have a definite composition C.Compounds can be solids D.Compounds are composed of elements in definite proportions

125 125 An example of a derived unit is A.cm B.kg C.lb D.km/h

126 126 The charge on tin in Sn(SO 4 ) 2 is A.+2 B.–2 C.+4 D.+16

127 127 The least metallic elements in the periodic table are located toward the A.upper right B.lower left C.upper left D.lower right

128 128 Adding the atomic masses of all elements in a molecule provides the A. formula unit B. formula mass C. molar mass D. mass of the molecule

129 129 Subscripts are used to indicate the number of atoms of each element in a compound in formulas of _____. 1.All ionic compounds 2.Ionic compounds with polyatomic ions 3.Binary compounds of nonmetals 4.All compounds

130 130 There are 6.02 x 10 23 A. particles in one mole B. moles in an atom C. atoms in 1/12 gram of carbon D. grams in one mole

131 131 Which of the following does not involve a chemical change? A.Cube of sugar dissolving in hot coffee B.Exploding dynamite C.Tarnishing silver D.Burning hydrogen gas

132 132 The mass of two moles of nitrogen gas is _____. A. 2 g B. 56 g C. 17 g D. 14 g

133 133 The formula for a compound of potassium and nitrogen A.P 3 Ni B.P 3 N C.K 3 N D.KN 3

134 134 If the empirical formula of a compound is CH, then the molecular formula of this compound could be _____. A.CH 4 B.C 2 H 2 C.C 2 H 4 D.CH 2

135 135 The name of the compound that has the formula NH 4 ClO 3 is A. Ammonium chlorate B. Ammonium hypochlorite C. Ammonia chlorite D. Tetraammonium trichlorate

136 136 Chemical substances written to the left of the arrow in an equation are called _____. A.coefficients B.subscripts C.products D.reactants

137 137 Which of the following is not a possible compound of copper? A.CuO B.Copper (I) chloride C.Copper (II) oxide D.Cu 2 F

138 138 Numbers placed in front of formulas in an equation are called _____. A.coefficients B.subscripts C.products D.reactants

139 139 The name of the compound in which phosphorous with a charge of +5 is combined with nitrogen with a charge of –3 is A.Pentanitrogen triphosphide B.Triphosphorous pentanitride C.Triphosphorous pentanitrite D.Phosphorous nitride

140 140 The symbol that indicates that a substance is dissolved in water is _____. A. (l) B. (H 2 O) C. (aq) D. (w)

141 141 What is the charge on manganese in the compound MnCl 2 ? A.+5 B.+2 C.+7 D.+4

142 142 A reaction in which simpler substances combine to form a more complicated substance is called a _____. A.decomposition B.single replacement C.synthesis D.double replacement

143 143 Which of the following should be used to convert grams to kilograms? A.1 kg x 1000 g B.1000 kg x 1 g C.1000 g 1 kg D.1 kg 1000 g

144 144 A reaction in which one element takes the place of another in a compound is called a _____. A.decomposition B.single replacement C.synthesis D.double replacement

145 145 6.02 x 10 23 molecules are contained in what mass of diatomic hydrogen gas? A. 6.02 grams B. 23 grams C. 6.02 x 10 23 grams D. 2 grams

146 146 Any reaction that releases energy is called a(n) _____ reaction. A. exothermic B. combustion C. endothermic D. hydrolytic

147 147 Mass divided by volume is called ___ A. density B. mass intensity C. relative volume D. specific gravity

148 148 A reaction in which a substance breaks down to form simpler substances is called a _____. A.decomposition B.single replacement C.synthesis D.double replacement

149 149 Which of the following is a double replacement reaction? A.3K (s) + FeCl 3(aq)  3KCl (s) + Fe (s) B.2KBr (S)  2K (S) + Br 2(g) C.3H 2(g) + N 2(g)  2NH 3(g) D.NaCl (aq) +AgNO 3(aq)  AgCl (s) +NaNO 3(aq)

150 150 Which of the following is a single replacement reaction? A.3K (s) + FeCl 3(aq)  3KCl (s) + Fe (s) B.2KBr (S)  2K (S) + Br 2(g) C.3H 2(g) + N 2(g)  2NH 3(g) D.NaCl (aq) +AgNO 3(aq)  AgCl (s) +NaNO 3(aq)

151 151 Which of the following is a synthesis reaction? A.3K (s) + FeCl 3(aq)  3KCl (s) + Fe (s) B.2KBr (S)  2K (S) + Br 2(g) C.3H 2(g) + N 2(g)  2NH 3(g) D.NaCl (aq) +AgNO 3(aq)  AgCl (s) +NaNO 3(aq)

152 152 What is the missing coefficient in the equation ___NO + O 2  2NO 2 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

153 153 What is the missing coefficient in the equation C 3 H 8 + ___O 2  3CO 2 + 4H 2 O A.2 B.3 C.4 D.5

154 154 The number of moles of nitrogen that will react with four moles of oxygen in the reaction N 2 + O 2  N 2 O 4 is _____. A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8

155 155 A phase of matter that does not have a fixed volume is the A. solid state B. liquid state C. gas state D. none of the above

156 156 For a given amount of gas at a constant temperature, the volume of the gas is A.inversely proportional to its pressure B.directly proportional to its pressure C.proportional to the square of its pressure D.equal to the atmospheric pressure minus water vapor pressure

157 157 The average kinetic energies of different samples of gases can best be compared by measuring their A.molar masses B.pressures C.volumes D.temperatures

158 158 Which of the following is not a subatomic particle? A.neutron B.proton C.electron D.nucleus

159 159 Consider these four flasks of gas at the same temperature and pressure. Which flask contains the substance with the greatest average kinetic energy? A.Flask A B.Flask C C.Flask D D.None of these He A BCD KrArNe

160 160 John Dalton’s atomic theory included all of the following except that A. atoms are the smallest particles of matter B. atoms of different elements are different C. atoms of the same element are identical D. atoms are negatively charged

161 161 A beta particle has A. no mass at all B. a negative charge C. a large mass D. two protons and two neutrons

162 162 A chemical change directly involves A. protons B. electrons C. neutrons D. gamma rays

163 163 Uranium-235 and Uranium-238 are dissimilar because A. they have different chemical behaviors B. Uranium-238 is radioactive C. Uranium –235 is a radioisotope D. They have different numbers of neutrons

164 164 The number of waves that pass a given point per second is called _____. A. frequency B. amplitude C. wavelength D. speed

165 165 The distance between similar points on a wave is called its _____. A. frequency B. amplitude C. wavelength D. speed

166 166 The height of a wave is called its _____. A. frequency B. amplitude C. wavelength D. speed

167 167 The color of light that has waves of the lowest frequency is A. yellow B. red C. blue D. violet

168 168 Which of the following is true for atoms? A.Light is released when electrons in atoms move from higher to lower energy levels. B.The bright line spectrum of a given atom is unique to that kind of atom. C.Both A and B D.Neither A nor B

169 169 The letter that symbolizes the principle quantum number is _____. A. m l B. l C. n D. K

170 170 The number of orbitals in the second energy level is _____. A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8

171 171 The modern organization of the periodic table is based upon the law that the properties of the elements occur periodically when the elements are arranged in increasing order by their _____. A. molar masses B. reactivity with oxygen C. mass numbers D. atomic numbers

172 172 Which of the following is a nonmetallic group of elements? A. Li, Na, K, Rb B. H, He, Li, Be C. F, Cl, Br, I D. B, Al, Sc, Y

173 173 A period of the periodic table is the same as a _____ A. row B. column C. group D. family

174 174 The scientist who is credited with discovering the periodicity of elements was _____. A. Dalton B. Mendeleev C. Rutherford D. Thomson

175 175 An unlikely chemical combination is _____. A. NaK B. NaCl C. MgH 2 D. ScF 3

176 176 A reasonable formula for selenium fluoride is _____. A. SeF B. SeF 2 C. SeF 3 D. SeF 4

177 177 Atom with the electron configuration is 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 2 3d 10 4p 5 should show chemical behavior similar to that of an atom of which element? A. radon B. fluorine C. selenium D. strontium

178 178 A transition element with seven 3d electrons is _____ A. manganese B. bromine C. chlorine D. cobalt

179 179 An element with an electron configuration of 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 would most likely react to form a compound with the element _____. A. sulfur B. magnesium C. argon D. helium

180 180 Between atoms in a covalent bond, A. the attractions are weaker than the repulsions B. electrons are shared C. no electrons are located D. the electronegativity difference is 1.7 or greater

181 181 Exceptions to the octet rule arise when A. a stable molecule possesses a central atom with fewer than eight electrons B. a stable molecule possesses a central atom surrounded by more than eight electrons C. both A and B D. neither A nor B

182 182 In which of the following are electrons shared unequally? A. H 2 B. S 8 C. HCl D. Cl 2

183 183 The electron dot formula for an atom X which has the electron configuration 1s 2 2s 2 2p 5 is _____. ABCD

184 184 The ability of a metal to be hammered or shaped without breaking is called _____. A. alloying B. ductility C. malleability D. conductivity

185 185 Allotropes of sulfur differ in _____. A. number of neutrons per atom B. number of atoms per molecule C. valence D. electron affinity

186 186 As temperature increases, molecules tend to _____ A. move more rapidly B. move less rapidly C. be more strongly attracted to each other D. move closer together

187 187 Liquids boil when _____ A. the temperature equals 100 o C B. the rates of evaporation and condensation are equal C. the atmospheric pressure falls below 1 atm D. the vapor pressure equals the atmospheric pressure

188 188 While a liquid boils, its _____. A. temperature rises B. temperature falls C. temperature remains constant D. temperature cannot be measured

189 189 A mixture whose components are obviously separate is called a _____ A. homogeneous mixture B. heterogeneous mixture C. solvent D. solution

190 190 Solutions that will not dissolve additional solute are said to be _____. A. saturated B. unsaturated C. supersaturated D. soluble

191 191 In a solution at equilibrium, the rate of dissolving … A. equals zero B. equals the rate of crystallization C. is less than the rate of crystallization D. is greater than the rate of crystallization

192 192 Which of the following pairs of liquids forms a homogeneous mixture? A. sand and water B. sugar and water C. oil and water D. oil and vinegar

193 193 Which of the following pairs is said to be immiscible? A. oil and gasoline B. oil and water C. alcohol and water D. oil and mineral spirits

194 194 Thermodynamics is the study of _____. A. reaction rate B. spectra C. energy transformations D. none of the above

195 195 A reaction that absorbs energy is said to be _____. A. endothermic B. exothermic C. spontaneous D. nonspontaneous

196 196 A negative enthalpy change always accompanies a reaction that is _____ A. spontaneous B. exothermic C. endothermic D. impossible

197 197 The randomness, or number of ways energy can be distributed in a system is called _____ A. enthalpy (H) B. Gibbs Free Energy (G) C. temperature (T) D. entropy (S)

198 198 The minimum amount of energy needed to bring about a reaction is called _____ A. entropy (S) B. activation energy (E A ) C. mechanism energy (M E ) D. none of these

199 199 A substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without being used up is called a(n) _____. A. catalyst B. inhibitor C. activated complex D. none of these

200 200 Which of the following is not a property of acidic solutions? A. they feel slippery B. they taste sour C. they conduct an electric current D. they cause indicators to change colors

201 201 The substances produced in a neutralization reaction are _____. A. an acid and water B. a base and water C. water and a salt D. water and an indicator

202 202 A hydronium ion is ____. A. an OH - ion B. an H + ion C. an H 3 O + ion D. none of these

203 203 pH is equal to A. log[H 3 O + ] B. - log[H 3 O + ] C. [H 3 O + ] D. -[H 3 O + ]

204 204 Which of the following is a polyprotic acid? A. HNO 3 B. HC 2 H 3 O 2 C. Ca(OH) 2 D. H 3 PO 4

205 205 In a redox reaction, the substance that is oxidized _____. A. gains electrons B. serves as the oxidizing agent C. serves as the reducing agent D. does none of the above

206 206 When a substance is reduced, it _____. A. gains a positive charge B. loses electrons C. becomes the reducing agent D. gains a negative charge

207 207 What is the total number of electrons transferred from cadmium to silver in the equation 2Ag + + Cd  2Ag + Cd 2+ A. 3 B. 6 C. 2 D. 5

208 208 Which of the following is NOT a physical property? A. The boiling point of H 2 O is 100 o C at 1 atm pressure B. Na is highly reactive in H 2 O C. One allotrope of sulfur is yellow D. Silver is a solid at room temperature

209 209 Solid product that separates from a solution is known as a A. soluble solid B. precipitate C. chemical substance D. none of these

210 210 Which of the following numbers has four significant digits? A. 0.07080 B. 0.123 C. 9.8000 D. 0.078

211 211 How many significant digits would the answer to this problem have? 61.2 + 9.35 + 8.6 A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. none of these

212 212 The space matter occupies is termed A. density B. length C. mass D. volume

213 213 The atomic number indicates _____. A. #p + - #n o B. the number of protons an atom has C. the mass number D. none of these

214 214 The nucleus of the atom is composed of _____. A. electrons and protons B. neutrons and protons C. neutrons only D. electrons only

215 215 The mass number indicates the _____ A. average mass of all known isotopes of an element B. number of electrons only C. number of protons and neutrons only D. number of neutrons only

216 216 Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons are called _____. A. compounds B. isotopes C. molecules D. isomers

217 217 For the symbol, the number on top indicates _____. A. the atomic number B. the isotope number C. the mass number D. none of these

218 218 Naturally occurring chlorine consists of two isotopes, chlorine-35 with a 75% abundance and chlorine-37 with a 25% abundance. Calculate the average atomic mass of chlorine. A. 35.0 B. 35.5 C. 36.0 D. 37.5

219 219 Which of the following would be a polar molecule? A. H 2 B. SO 3 C. H 2 O D. CCl 4

220 220 What is the shape of the water molecule? A. linear B. angular C. tetrahedral D. trigonal pyramidal

221 221 What is the pH of a solution whose hydronium ion concentration is 5.03 x 10 -1 M? A. 5.03 B. 1.54 C. 0.513 D. 0.298

222 222 What is the pOH of a solution whose pH is 5? A. 14 B. 9 C. 5 D. 7

223 223 What is the pH of a 0.00162 M NaOH solution? A. 11.2 B. 9.92 C. 5.33 D. 3.84

224 224 In order to slow down a reaction, one must _____. A. decrease the temperature of the reactants B. increase the concentrations of the reactants C. add a catalyst D. increase the surface area of the reactants

225 225 At 25 o C, if [OH - ] = 1.0 x 10 -9 M then [H 3 O + ] = A. 1.0 x 10-5 M B. 1.0 x 10-7 M C. 1.0 x 10-9 M D. 1.0 x 10-14 M

226 226 All of the following will ionize completely in aqueous solution EXCEPT ____ A. HCl B. HBr C. H 3 PO 4 D. HNO 3

227 227 When 25 grams of water is cooled from 20 o C to 10 o C, the amount of heat released in Joules is _____. A. 39.18 J B. 1045 J C. 1.045 J D. 250 J

228 228 A strontium isotope consists of 38 protons, 38 electrons, and 52 neutrons. What is the mass number of this isotope? A.38 B.52 C.76 D.90

229 229 Which of the following materials would boil at room temperature and standard pressure? A. alcohol (liquid) B. gasoline (liquid) C. oxygen (liquid) D. water (liquid)

230 230 Which is a characteristic of solid table salt? A. high melting point B. very malleable C. conducts electricity D. high vapor pressure

231 231 Which of the following isotopes contains 143 neutrons? A. B. C. D.

232 232 Which part of the atom was discovered by the gold foil experiment? A. electron B. proton C. neutron D. nucleus

233 233 A cylinder is filled with equal amounts of hydrogen, carbon dioxide, ammonia, and oxygen. The cylinder is punctured allowing the gases to escape. Which gas will most likely be the last to escape the cylinder? A. Hydrogen B. Carbon dioxide C. Ammonia D. Oxygen

234 234 Which of the following is a salt? A.H 2 CO 3 B.NH 3 C.NaOH D.BaCl 2

235 235 This is the beginning of the end. Study the EOC Vocabulary list I gave you Study the Stuff to Know for the EOC sheet I gave you Use the Standard Course of Study, your notes, and your textbook to study the topics listed for Chemistry Relax, you can do this!


Download ppt "Chemistry EOC Review Compiled by M. Wilds Enka High School 2007-2008 Revised 2010."

Similar presentations


Ads by Google