LOCAL 223 POWER PLANT MAINTENANCE SELECTION SYSTEM TRAINING GUIDE DRAFT October 20,2010 1.

LOCAL 223 POWER PLANT MAINTENANCE SELECTION SYSTEM TRAINING GUIDE DRAFT October 20,2010 1

2 POWER PLANT MAINTENANCE SELECTION SYSTEM TRAINING GUIDE Table of Contents SUBJECTPAGES Test Anxiety, Test Timing, Test Difficulty 3 - 5 Assembly Practice Test, Answers, Study Guide 6 - 18 Mechanical Concepts Practice Test, Answers, Study Guide 19 - 61 Reading For Comprehension Practice Test, Answers, Study Guide 62 - 72 Mathematical Usage Practice Test, Answers, Study Guide 73 - 89 Reading For Comprehension Additional Practice Questions 90 - 104 Mathematical Usage Additional Practice Questions 105 - 109

3 Test Anxiety It probably will not surprise anyone that test anxiety has been identified as a debilitating psychological syndrome by the Americans with Disabilities Act. Before using test anxiety as an excuse, however, you should know that very high standards apply before an applicant can be accommodated under the law. In order to be accommodated, the anxiety experienced by an individual must be clinically debilitating and of such magnitude that it limits “one or more of the major life activities” and is concomitant with another listed psychological disorder. Should this definition apply to an applicant, he or she might be granted accommodation. This could include taking the test in a separate room or without the customary time constraints. While many test takers feel they need to be “accommodated,” most do not. Test anxiety is, for most people, unpleasant but controllable. Some kind of physical or emotional anxiety is common to most test takers. Some people live in dread of a moment when their brains “go blank.” Others experience gastrointestinal problems, headaches, or profuse sweating. Whatever the physical or psychological manifestation, the test taker should begin to condition themselves early on by preparing thoroughly, participating in practice exams and courses, and performing physical conditioning exercises. Time management, good study habits, and attention to organization are practical activities that alleviate the anxieties of test day. Stretching and breathing exercises do not require a great deal of exertion and can be performed anywhere, even during the test in most cases. Yoga practitioners may develop the art of calming themselves down by focusing on relaxation techniques. Even posture and clothing can play a part. Sitting properly will free the diaphragm and allow for easier breathing. Loose, comfortable clothing suitable to the interior climate will also aid in relaxation. Keep in mind that there are many people who actually enjoy challenging themselves through testing. After all, isn’t that why many people participate in sports or other forms of competition? You might think it impossible to enjoy challenging yourself through computer or paper testing, but the competitive spirit thrives in everyone. Just think of an area where you have competed successfully, remember the feelings of confidence you experienced as a result, and do your utmost to channel that experience into testing practice.

4 Test Timing When taking any kind of test, it is important to stay within the time constraints imposed by the test proctors. If a particular test section grants thirty minutes before the test taker is instructed to put pencils away and prepare to take the next section, then it behooves you to use the thirty minutes wisely. The way to do this is to develop a strategy beforehand. Your test timing technique should be constant and strategic. In defining your strategy, you need to address the necessary components of test-taking. For instance, an important first step would be to thoroughly read the instructions. Some people may hurry through the instructions, spot reading or speed reading, believing they are saving time. The trouble with this method is that oftentimes, the instructions are not completely understood, requiring the test taker to go back and read them again. This doesn’t save time; on the contrary, it wastes time. A more deliberate and reliable approach would require that the test taker or student calmly read through the instructions to obtain a full and complete understanding of how the test questions are to be addressed and answered. Once the instructions are completely understood, there will usually be little need to go back and read the instructions again. But the key to a full understanding of the instructions is to thoroughly digest the information before answering the questions. While a thorough reading of the instructions may seem a slow process, it will help you understand and analyze the problems you encounter on the test. If the instructions say that you are to analyze the logical arguments in a series of paragraphs, and you understand that from the beginning, then you will be better equipped to separate the “wheat from the chaff.” In other words, the instructions will help you see through to the logical arguments made in the paragraph and separate those arguments from the extraneous elements. Another important strategic technique is to peruse the entire section to get a feeling for the length of time required to answer questions. During this quick eyeball “review”, you may identify areas of particular difficulty and areas that are easy for you to answer. It is very important that you have an idea, at the beginning, of the length of time you will need to a given number of questions. A third and final stratagem is to move through the questions confidently and at a predetermined pace. This doesn’t mean you should shirk the difficult questions. Give them a try; perhaps they’re not as difficult as you imagined. However, should a single question obstruct you, then you should mark it and move ahead to the next question. Most tests measure your skills on the basis of the number of answers you can answer correctly, so do not hamper yourself by getting stuck on a single difficult question and thereby failing to answer some easy ones.

5 Test Difficulty Test difficulty is a relative phenomenon. Just because you’ve heard that the GMAT, LSAT, ACT or any other standardized test is difficult does not mean that you will find it so. A great deal of time goes into preparing for any kind of test. Testing is not based upon what you learned in the last week or the last month; it is based upon years of learning. Considering that you have chosen to embark on a path toward a particular career objective, it is likely that you will have learned a great deal about your chosen field. You will have developed an extended vocabulary, a skill of analysis within the context of a particular field, and a host of other skills that will help you overcome the difficult parts of a test. Even so, there will be some test questions that will require additional effort. You should pay attention and orient yourself to the time interval allotted for completion of the test; also, you should move through the easier questions, note the ones that require more time, and go back to address them sequentially after you’ve answered the easier questions. Certainly, you will still find yourself unable to address confidently some of the questions. Don’t let the difficulty of a few test questions frustrate. Test examiners expect a certain number of wrong answers, and tests are designed accordingly. The intent is not to find the perfect person, but rather to find one with sufficient skill and reasoning power to fit a specific field of endeavor. While you might feel bad about your test performance, you will likely feel better when the percentile scoring report indicates how few students come close to a perfect score.

6 ASSEMBLY The Assembly selection test measures a candidate's ability to visualize the properly assembled form of an object. ASSEMBLY PRACTICE TEST This practice test is similar in content and structure to the real selection test. We recommend that you time yourself while taking the practice test to get a feel for how much time you will have to complete the real selection test. It may be to your advantage to complete all practice test questions. Answers and explanations for the practice test questions are provided at the end of the practice test. You should consult these answers only after completing all the practice test questions. Directions In this test you are to figure out how something would look if it were put together properly. The parts to be put together are shown at the beginning of each problem and are followed by five pictures showing five different ways the parts could be put together. Only one of them is correct. Each part is marked with one or more letters, each of which stands for a place on the part. Letters referring to places that do not show are placed outside the part, with a dotted line pointing to the underneath side, or the place that you can't see.

7 In figure 1 below, the letter A refers to the bottom of the cube. B points to the back of the cube. C refers to the upper front edge of the cube. In the test, you are to assemble the parts so that the places having the same letter are put together. Look at the first sample below. Try to figure out which of the five assemblies is correct. Look at the ends marked A. If the ends marked A were put together, how would they look? Of the five pictures, only pictures 2, 4, and 5 have the ends marked A put together. Now look at the first of the parts marked with a B. Note how the dotted line from B points to the underside, which you cannot see. Which of the pictures 2, 4, and 5 shows the two places marked B put together? Of these three, only picture 2 has the places marked B put together. Therefore, picture 2 is the correct answer. This is the only picture of the five that has all the parts put together in the way the letters show they should be. Therefore, circle 2 has been filled in for Sample 1.

8 Now work the sample below and blacken the circle in front of your answer. You should have blackened circle 5. When the parts marked A are put together, they look like those in either picture 3 or picture 5. In both of these pictures, the places on the parts marked B have been put together. But when the places on the parts marked C are put together, they look like picture 5.In deciding how the parts should be put together, do not think about what the completed thing is or what it does. Just follow the letters on the parts that show you how they are to be put together. This practice test has 9 questions and should take you 5 minutes to complete.

9 ASSEMBLY PRACTICE TEST 1. 2.

10 5. 4. 3.

11 6. 7. 8.

12 9. End of Practice Test Check your time and move on to the practice test answers and explanations.

13 ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS. 1.The correct answer is picture #4. Look at the ends marked A. If the ends marked A were put together, how would they look? Of the five pictures, only pictures 1, 4, and 5 have the ends marked A put together. Now look at the parts marked with a B. Which of pictures 1, 4, and 5 show that the two places marked B are put together? Of the three, only picture 4 has the places marked B put together. Therefore, picture 4 is the correct answer. This is the only picture of the five that has all the parts put together in the way they should be. Therefore, you need to fill circle 4 on your answer sheet. 2.The correct answer is picture #1. Look at the ends marked A. If the ends marked A were put together, how would they look? Of the five pictures, only pictures 1 and 4 have the ends marked A put together. Now look at the parts marked with a B. Which of pictures 1 and 4 show that the two places marked B are put together? Of the two, only picture 1 has the places marked B put together. Therefore, picture 1 is the correct answer. This is the only picture of the five that has all the parts put together in the way they should be. Therefore, you need to fill circle 1 on your answer sheet. 3.The correct answer is picture #5. Look at the ends marked A. If the ends marked A were put together, how would they look? Of the five pictures, pictures 2, 4, and 5 have the ends marked A put together. Now look at the parts marked with a B. Which of pictures 2, 4, and 5 show that the two places marked B are put together? Of the four, only pictures 4 and 5 have the places marked B put together. Now look at the parts marked with a C. Which of pictures 4 and 5 show that the two places marked C are put together? Of the two pictures only picture 5 has the places marked C put together. Therefore, picture 5 is the correct answer. This is the only picture of the five that has all the parts put together in the way they should be. Therefore, you need to fill circle 5 on your answer sheet. 4.The correct answer is picture #3. Look at the ends marked A. If the ends marked A were put together, how would they look? Of the five pictures, only pictures 1 and 3 have the ends marked A put together. Now look at the first of the parts marked with a B. Which of pictures 1 and 3 show that the two places marked B are put together? Of the two, only picture 3 has the places marked B put together. Therefore, picture 3 is the correct answer. This is the only picture of the four that has all the parts put together in the way they should be. Therefore, you need to fill circle 3 on your answer sheet. *Please ignore the fourth box.

14 5.The correct answer is picture #4. Look at the ends marked A. If the ends marked A were put together, how would they look? Of the five pictures, only pictures 1, 4, and 5 have the ends marked A put together. Now look at the parts marked with a B. Which of pictures 1, 4, and 5 show that the two places marked B are put together? Of the three, only picture 4 has the places marked B put together. Therefore, picture 4 is the correct answer. This is the only picture of the five that has all the parts put together in the way they should be. Therefore, you need to fill circle 4 on your answer sheet. 6.The correct answer is picture #5. Look at the ends marked A. If the ends marked A were put together, how would they look? Of the five pictures, only pictures 2 and 5 have the ends marked A put together. Now look at the first of the parts marked with a B. Which of pictures 2 and 5 show that the two places marked B are put together? Of the two, only picture 5 has the places marked B put together. Therefore, picture 5 is the correct answer. This is the only picture of the five that has all the parts put together in the way they should be. Therefore, you need to fill circle 5 on your answer sheet. 7.The correct answer is picture #3. Look at the ends marked A. If the ends marked A were put together, how would they look? Of the five pictures, only pictures 3 and 4 have the ends marked A put together. Now look at the first of the parts marked with a B. Which of pictures 3 and 4 show that the two places marked B are put together? Both pictures 3 and 4 have the places marked B put together. Now look at the first of the parts marked with a C. Which of pictures 3 and 4 show that the two places marked C are put together? Only picture 3 has the places marked C put together Therefore, picture 3 is the correct answer. This is the only picture of the five that has all the parts put together in the way they should be. Therefore, you need to fill circle 3 on your answer sheet. 8.The correct answer is picture #2. Look at the ends marked A. If the ends marked A were put together, how would they look? Of the five pictures, only pictures 2, 3, and 5 have the ends marked A put together. Now look at the parts marked with a B. Which of pictures 2, 3, and 5 show that the two places marked B are put together? Of the three, only picture 2 has the places marked B put together. Therefore, picture 2 is the correct answer. This is the only picture of the five that has all the parts put together in the way they should be. Therefore, you need to fill circle 2 on your answer sheet. 9. The correct answer is picture #5. Look at the ends marked A. If the ends marked A were put together, how would they look? Of the five pictures, only pictures 2, 4, and 5 have the ends marked A put together. Now look at the parts marked with a B. Which of pictures 2, 4 and 5 show that the two places marked B are put together? Of the three, only picture 5 has the places marked B put together. Therefore, picture 5 is the correct answer. This is the only picture of the five that has all the parts put together in the way they should be. Therefore, you need to fill circle 5 on your answer sheet. ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS ( cont. )

15 ASSEMBLY PRACTICE TEST “Crib Notes” 1. 2. Start with A – Only pictures 1,4, and 5 are a possibility Next, look at B - Picture 4 is the only is the only picture where the two B’s fit together correctly. Therefore, 4 is the correct answer 2 nd eliminate 1 st eliminate 1 st eliminate CORRECT 2 nd eliminate Start with A – Only pictures 1, and 4 are a possibility Next, look at B - Picture 1 is the only possible choice. Therefore,1 is the correct answer CORRECT 1 st eliminate 1 st eliminate 2 nd eliminate 1st eliminate

16 5. 4. 3. 1 st eliminate 2 nd eliminate 1 st eliminate 3 rd eliminate CORRECT 2 nd eliminate 1 st eliminate CORRECT 1st eliminate 1 st eliminate 2 nd eliminate 1 st eliminate 1 st eliminate CORRECT 2 nd eliminate Start with A – Only pictures 2,4, and 5 are a possibility Next, look at B - Only pictures 4 and 5 have B together. Next, look at C - Only 5 has C together. Therefore, 5 is the correct answer Start with A – Only pictures 1 and 3 have A together. Next, look at B - Only 3 has B together. Therefore,3 is the correct answer. Start with A – Only pictures 1,4,and 5 have A together. Next, look at B - eliminate 1 and 5 because B doesn’t fit together. Therefore, picture 4 is the correct answer.

17 6. 7. 8. 2nd eliminate 1st eliminate 1 st eliminate 1 st eliminate CORRECT Start with A – Only pictures 1 and 5 are a possibility ( A together). Eliminate 2,3,and 4 Next, look at B - Only picture 5 has B in the proper hole. Therefore, 5 is the correct answer 1st eliminate 1st eliminate CORRECT 2 nd eliminate 1 st eliminate 1st eliminate 1st eliminate 2nd eliminate CORRECT 2nd eliminate Start with A – Only pictures 3 and 4 are a possibility. Eliminate 1,2,and 5. Next, look at B - Only picture 3 has C fitting together. Therefore, 3 is the correct answer Start with A – Only pictures 2,3 and 5 are a possibility. Eliminate 1,2,and 5. Next, look at B - pictures 3 and 5 do not have B together. Therefore, 4 is the correct answer

18 9. 1st eliminate 2nd eliminate 1 st eliminate 2nd eliminate CORRECT Start with A – Only pictures 2,4 and 5 are a possibility ( A together). Eliminate 1 and 3 Next, look at B - Only picture 5 has B fitting properly. Therefore, 5 is the correct answer

19 MECHANICAL CONCEPTS Practice Test MECHANICAL CONCEPTS The Mechanical Concepts selection test measures a candidate's ability to understand mechanical principles. Each question contains a pictorial description of a mechanical situation, a question and three possible answers. MECHANICAL CONCEPTS PRACTICE TEST This practice test is similar in content and structure to the real selection test. We recommend that you time yourself while taking the practice test to get a feel for how much time you will have to complete the real selection test. It may be to your advantage to complete all practice test questions. Answers and explanations for the practice test questions are provided at the end of the practice test. You should consult these answers only after completing all the practice test questions.real selection test Directions This is a test of your ability to understand mechanical concepts. Each question has a picture, a question, and three possible answers. Read each question carefully, study the picture, and decide which answer is correct. This practice test has 26 questions and should take you 13 minutes to complete.

20 MECHANICAL CONCEPTS PRACTICE TEST 1. Which of the two wagons of equal weight (A or B) requires less force to pull? (If equal, mark C.) 2. Which of the two persons (A or B) will have to exert more effort to pull the box up? (If equal, mark C.)

21 3. In which direction will gear Z spin if wheel X is spinning clockwise? (If both, mark C.) 4. If the car and truck are moving at the same speed, in which direction will the truck tend to go when it collides with the car at point X?cartruckcar at point

22 5. On which side of the pipe (A or B) would the water speed be slower? (If equal, mark C.) 6. Which of the two chairs (A or B) with equal size and weight would be easier to drag across the room? (If equal, mark C.)

23 7. Two tanks with different capacities contain the same amount of oxygen, 500 liters. In which of the tanks (A or B) will the gas pressure be greater? (If equal, mark C.) 8. A spark ignites the gas within the cylinder. In which direction (A or B) would the piston move? (If it will not move in either direction mark C.)

24 9. Among this arrangement of three pulleys, which pulley (A, B or C) turns fastest? 10. In the picture below which of the angles (A, B or C) is braced more solidly?

25 11. An object is thrown in the air. At which point (A, B, or C) will it be traveling slowest? 12. In which of the two figures (A or B) will the person require less force to lift a 50 pound weight? (If equal, mark C.)

26 13. Which of the three switches (A, B, or C), if broken and cannot be closed, will prevent the flow of electricity in the terminal? 14. Which switch (A, B, or C) should be closed to light the bulb?

27 15. The weight of the box is being carried entirely on the shoulders of the two men shown below. Which of the two men is carrying more weight? (If equal, mark C.)weight of the box 16. Which of the two saws (A or B) will allow you to cut faster? (If equal, mark C.)

28 17. The water in container A contains 50% salt. The water in container B contains 20% salt. In which of the two containers (A or B) is the object more likely to float? (If equal, mark C.) 18. Given two water towers with identical water tanks and identical amounts of water in each tank, which tower (A or B) will have a greater water pressure coming out of the hose? (If equal, mark C.)

29 19. Which situation (A or B) requires more force to load the barrel onto the truck? (If equal, mark C.) 20. In which of the two tanks (A or B) will water that is boiled to the exact same temperature cool faster? (If equal, mark C.)

30 21. In which of the three positions (A, B, or C) will it be easiest to accurately measure the amount of water in the bucket? 22. Which of the two trucks (A or B) carrying the same amount of weight is less likely to turn over when reaching a sharp curve? (If both, mark C.)

31 23. Suppose that a valve between the bucket and hose has been closed. If the valve opened, which of the pictures (A or B) would show a more accurate representation of the way in which the water will flow? (If neither, mark C.) 24. Which of the two identical objects (A or B) will travel a greater distance when the springs are released? (If equal, mark C. )

32 25. Which point on the wheel (A or B) is going to be traveling a greater distance when the wheel turns? (If equal, mark C.) 26. Container A contains 200cc pure water and container B contains 200cc cooking oil. Assume an object is thrown into either of these two containers; in which container is the object more likely to float? (If equal, mark C.)

33 MECHANICAL CONCEPTS ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS 1.The correct answer is B. In both pictures, the man has to overcome gravity in order to pull the wagon up the hill. As the hill becomes less steep, less force is required to overcome gravity. 2.The correct answer is B. In picture A, we have two pulleys, whereas in picture B we have a single pulley. When you have a single pulley that does not move (as in picture B where the pulley is attached to the ceiling) the force needed to lift the weight does not change. In picture B the pulley allows the person to use his own weight to pull downward on the rope and pull the box. In picture A, the two pulleys distribute the weight of the box equally among the two sides of the rope, half of the weight on each side. This means that the man in picture A has to apply only half the force to pull the box up. 3.The correct answer is B. Since gear X is turning clockwise, it will turn gear Y counterclockwise. Gear Y, turning counterclockwise, will turn gear Z clockwise, which is answer B. 4.The correct answer is C. This question deals with momentum. Momentum is a combination of weight and speed. It will determine the direction in which two colliding objects will go. The objects will move in the direction of the one with the higher sum of weight and speed. The truck and car are driving at the same speed. The truck, however is three times the weight of the car. Thus, after the collision, the truck will tend to continue in its original direction, toward point C. 5.The correct answer is B. The flow rate of fluids is the amount of fluid that passes through the pipe in a given time. As a rule, a single pipe has the same flow rate from beginning to end, even if the width of the pipe changes. The flow rate going into the pipe must be equal to the flow rate coming out of it. The pipe is wider on the right side than it is on the left side. In order to compensate for the changes in the width of the pipe and maintain an equal flow rate, the water speed would be slower in the wider section of the pipe. 6.The correct answer is B. This question deals with friction resistance. Friction resistance is the resistance of one surface (e.g., a floor) to the movement of another surface (e.g., a chair). The floor in picture B is smoother in comparison to the one in picture A. Thus, friction resistance in picture B is smaller, making it easier to drag the chair across the floor. 7. The correct answer is B. In this question you have two gas containers. Container A can contain 1,000 liters and container B can contain 750 liters. When the same amount of gas is put into two different sizes of containers, the pressure of the gas in the smaller container will be greater. 8.The correct answer is A. The ignition of the gas raises the temperature, which increases the pressure of the gas. The increased pressure of the gas forces the piston upward. 9.The correct answer is A. Pulley A has the smallest circumference and therefore is going to turn faster than the other larger pulleys. 10. The correct answer is C. Pole C covers more area of the hole, so it is more solidly braced.

34 MECHANICAL CONCEPTS ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS 11.The correct answer is B. At the height of the arc, the ball has no upward or downward momentum; thus, point B would be the point where the object's speed is slowest. 12.The correct answer is B. This question deals with levers. A lever is a simple machine that uses a fulcrum (point of support) to increase the effect of effort. The fulcrum, or point of support, is immovable. The area to the right of the fulcrum is called the resistance arm and the area to the left of the fulcrum (where the weight is placed) is called the effort arm. As a rule, when the ratio of the effort arm to the resistance arm is greater, the amount of force needed to lift an object decreases. Looking at the two drawings you can see that person A has a short effort arm and a long resistance arm, and person B has a short resistance arm and a long effort arm. Therefore, person B requires less force to lift the weight. 13.The correct answer is C. Electricity must be sent along a path of a closed circuit. If switch A is broken, electricity can flow through switch B. If B is broken, electricity can flow through switch A. However, if switch C is broken, electricity does not have an alternate route, and thus will not be able to flow in the circuit. 14.The correct answer is C. In order for the bulb to light, electricity must flow in a closed circuit. The only way electricity can flow from pole to pole is by closing switch C. 15.The correct answer is B. For the weight to be equally distributed, the object being carried needs to be centered. In the present question, the weight is not centered, rather it is closer to man B. Thus, man B is carrying more of the load. 16.The correct answer is B. Saw B is larger; thus, it has a larger radius. One revolution of the saw will cover a greater distance and will cut faster. 17.The correct answer is A. The density of the water in container A containing 50% salt is greater than that of the water in container B containing only 20% salt. The likelihood of an object to float increases as the density of the water increases. Therefore, the object is more likely to float in container A than in container B. 18.The correct answer is B. There are two downward forces operating to push the water down the hose. The first is gravity, that pulls the water down with more force as the height of the tower increases. The second is the weight of the water, or the column of water, that is pressing the water down with greater force in the taller tower. 19. The correct answer is B. The force required to lift a given weight is dependent upon the length of the ramp. Longer ramps require less force, but force needs to be sustained over a longer distance (the distance of the ramp). Shorter ramps, on the other hand, require more force over a shorter distance.

35 MECHANICAL CONCEPTS ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS 20.The correct answer is A. When more of a liquid's surface is in contact with air, it cools down faster. 21.The correct answer is A. Measuring liquids is easiest on leveled surfaces. On unleveled surfaces (such as shown in pictures B and C) water tends to shift from the highest to the lowest point, making measurement much more complicated. 22.The correct answer is B. When the weight of cargo is evenly distributed (such as in truck B) and does not shift around during travel, a vehicle is more stable on the road. On the contrary, a vehicle with an uneven distribution of weight (such as the truck in A) is less stable. Such a vehicle is more likely to turn over when reaching a curve in the road. 23.The correct answer is B. As a rule, water always seeks its own level. Thus, the water in the bucket will migrate until it is at exactly the same level as the water in the hose. 24.The correct answer is B. When a spring is compressed (or stretched) a force, called restoring force, will push to return the spring to its normal length. The more compressed (or stretched) the spring is, the larger this pushing force. The spring in picture B is more compressed than the one in picture A. This makes the force pushing the object (resulting from the restoring force) in picture B larger than the one in picture A. 25.The correct answer is A. The further from the center of the wheel a point is, the greater distance it will travel. 26. The correct answer is A. When put into liquid, objects are more likely to float the heavier or more dense the liquid. Since water is a more condensed liquid than oil, an object is more likely to float in the container that contains water.

36 MECHANICAL CONCEPTS “CRIB NOTES” 1. Which of the two wagons of equal weight (A or B) requires less force to pull? (If equal, mark C.) B…Because, everything being equal, less force is needed to move the wagon due to the steepness of the angle

37 2. Which of the two persons (A or B) will have to exert more effort to pull the box up? (If equal, mark C.) B…Because of the single pulley arrangement the man must use both his weight and strength

38 3. In which direction will gear Z spin if wheel X is spinning clockwise? (If both, mark C.) B…Because if X is rotating clockwise it will drive Y counterclockwise which will turn Z clockwise

39 4.. If the car and truck are moving at the same speed, in which direction will the truck tend to go when it collides with the car at point X? C…Because the truck is heavier it will tend to overpower the car and tend to go in then same direction it is traveling

40 5. On which side of the pipe (A or B) would the water speed be slower? (If equal, mark C.) B…Because the pipe grows larger towards B it causes the pressure and flow to decrease at the outlet

41 6. Which of the two chairs (A or B) with equal size and weight would be easier to drag across the room? (If equal, mark C.) B…Because the chair will roll easier on a flat surface than it will a rough surface when both chairs are the same.

42 7. Two tanks with different capacities contain the same amount of oxygen, 500 liters. In which of the tanks (A or B) will the gas pressure be greater? (If equal, mark C.) B…Because, given the same volume of oxygen the smaller container has less area to hold the gas therefore increasing the pressure

43 8. A spark ignites the gas within the cylinder. In which direction (A or B) would the piston move? (If it will not move in either direction mark C.) A…Because force created in the enclosed gas cylinder must move the piston upwards…If the gas was on top and the piston turned upside down the opposite would be true.

44 9. Among this arrangement of three pulleys, which pulley (A, B or C) turns fastest? A… A smaller pulley will always turn faster when driven by a larger pulley

45 10. In the picture below which of the angles (A, B or C) is braced more solidly? C…This support has a greater angle and can support more surface area (stronger)

46 11. An object is thrown in the air. At which point (A, B, or C) will it be traveling slowest? B… Because an object always moves slowest when it is at its peak

47 B…The larger the lever the less force required to move an object 12. In which of the two figures (A or B) will the person require less force to lift a 50 pound weight? (If equal, mark C.)

48 13. Which of the three switches (A, B, or C), if broken and cannot be closed, will prevent the flow of electricity in the terminal? C…If this switch is open there cannot be electric flow from + to -

49 14. Which switch (A, B, or C) should be closed to light the bulb? C…This will allow flow from + to – through the light bulb. Always look for the path through the load( bulb).

50 15. The weight of the box is being carried entirely on the shoulders of the two men shown below. Which of the two men is carrying more weight? (If equal, mark C.) B…Because the weight is closer to the man in position B

51 16. Which of the two saws (A or B) will allow you to cut faster? (If equal, mark C.) B…Because the blade has a larger diameter it will cut more surface on each revolution

52 17. The water in container A contains 50% salt. The water in container B contains 20% salt. In which of the two containers (A or B) is the object more likely to float? (If equal, mark C.) A… Because a greater % of salt will increase density ( and surface tension) of the water in container A. This allows the object to float longer.

53 18. Given two water towers with identical water tanks and identical amounts of water in each tank, which tower (A or B) will have a greater water pressure coming out of the hose? (If equal, mark C.) B..Because the greater height of the tower will create greater pressure at the outlet (gravitational pull)

54 19. Which situation (A or B) requires more force to load the barrel onto the truck? (If equal, mark C.) B…Because of the more dramatic angle created by the smaller ramp.

55 20 In which of the two tanks (A or B) will water that is boiled to the exact same temperature cool faster? (If equal, mark C.) A…Because of the greater surface (area) in tank A. This will cause a greater transfer of heat thus causing a faster cooling effect.

56 21. In which of the three positions (A, B, or C) will it be easiest to accurately measure the amount of water in the bucket? A…Because water will take the same angle of the surface the bucket needs to be on a level surface to get the most accurate measurement

57 22. Which of the two trucks (A or B) carrying the same amount of weight is less likely to turn over when reaching a sharp curve? (If both, mark C.) B…Because the load is even it makes the truck more stable.

58 23. Suppose that a valve between the bucket and hose has been closed. If the valve opened, which of the pictures (A or B) would show a more accurate representation of the way in which the water will flow? (If neither, mark C.) B..Always remember that water seeks its own level.

59 24. Which of the two identical objects (A or B) will travel a greater distance when the springs are released? (If equal, mark C.) B…Because the spring is tighter it creates more tension( force) thus forcing the object to travel further. Both objects must be equal in size and weight and travel on the same type of surface.)

60 25. Which point on the wheel (A or B) is going to be traveling a greater distance when the wheel turns? (If equal, mark C.) A…Because A is on the furthest edge of the wheel ( diameter) as the wheel turns A will travel farther.

61 26. Container A contains 200cc pure water and container B contains 200cc cooking oil. Assume an object is thrown into either of these two containers; in which container is the object more likely to float? (If equal, mark C.) A… Because of density. Remember that an object will always float longer in denser liquid. Think of oil floating on Water when you make Spaghetti. In this case, the oil is less dense.

62 READING FOR COMPREHENSION Practice Test READING FOR COMPREHENSION The Reading for Comprehension selection test measures a candidate's ability to read and understand written materials. The test consists of three reading passages, each followed by several multiple-choice questions about the passage. READING FOR COMPREHENSION PRACTICE TEST This practice test is similar in content and structure to the real selection test. We recommend that you time yourself while taking the practice test to get a feel for how much time you will have to complete the real selection test. It may be to your advantage to complete all practice test questions. Answers and explanations for the practice test questions are provided at the end of the practice test. You should consult these answers only after completing all the practice test questions. Directions This is a test of your ability to read and understand written materials. This practice test includes three passages, each followed by questions about the passage. You are to read each passage and then answer the corresponding questions. All questions should be answered based strictly on the information presented in the passage. Do not answer on the basis of experiences you have had, or any information not specifically presented in the passage. To do so might result in choosing an incorrect answer. For each question, select the best answer from the choices given. Answer all the questions regarding one passage before moving on to the next. You may look back at the passage while you answer the question. This practice test has 24 questions and should take you 23 minutes to complete.

63 PASSAGE 1: STATIC ELECTRICITY Most of us remember a painful incident when sparks blasted our hands after touching metal objects. Do you remember the game we used to play as kids where we would rub a balloon against a wool sweater and then see how the balloon would stick to the wall? These are examples of "static electricity." Though static electricity is a common phenomenon its cause is quite mysterious and often unknown. Static electricity can result from the friction of two objects rubbing against each other, like the sole of your shoes against the carpet. However, friction is not required for static electricity to occur. It is a common misconception that friction is required to create static electricity. It is true that friction can increase the likelihood of static electricity, but it is not the cause. The true cause is the separation of negative and positive charges. Every object is composed of a collection of positive and negative electric charges. Usually, the number of positive charges and the number of negative charges is equal. Static electricity (more correctly called "net electric charge") occurs whenever the number of positive and negative electric charges is not perfectly equal. How does it happen? Let's take the example of walking across a carpeted room. When we walk, the soles of our shoes absorb some negative charge found in the carpet. We leave behind electric positive footprints and our bodies acquire some negative charges. This process goes on for some time until our body achieves a high level of negative electric charge. The next time that we touch someone or some objects we will get zapped as the imbalanced charge is shared between us and the other person or object. The spark is painful because it is extremely hot. It creates tiny burned areas on our skin that hurt for a couple of seconds. There is a simple way to avoid shocks caused by static electricity. Before touching objects such as a doorknob or a car door, first touch the object with a car key. The electric static sparks will blast the key rather than your hand, and will painlessly discharge from your body. After the static electricity has been discharged you can safely touch metal objects. Of course, if you walk around on the carpet again, you will once again acquire static electricity. Answer questions 1-8 based on information presented in the above passage. 1.Why is touching a door knob with a key considered a simple way to avoid static electricity? 1.The key will discharge your body without pain 2.The key will prevent your body from getting charged 3.The static electric sparks will blast the key and not your hand 4.The key charges you with negative electricity 2.When does static electricity occur? 1.Whenever the number of positive and the number of negative charges in a person's body is out of balance 2.Whenever people touch a car knob with a key or any other metal object 3.Any time there is a friction between shoe soles and a rug or a carpet 4.In the winter when the air is very dry and the chance of free sparks in the air increases

64 3.What is "net electric charge"? 1.The number of positive and negative electric charges in one's body 2.An alternative name for static electricity 3.The electric positive footprints we leave behind when we walk 4.The total likelihood of getting zapped 4.Based upon information given in the passage, which of the following statements is not true? 1.Friction is not necessary for static electricity to happen 2.When the number of positive and negative electric charges is equal, static electricity will not happen 3.Static electricity is painful because it is hot and burns the skin 4.Some people are much more prone to getting zapped by static electricity than others 5.The last paragraph of the passage deals primarily with 1.Describing ways to prevent static electricity 2.Describing ways to prevent being zapped by static electricity 3.Describing ways to grab a metal door knob 4.Warning people against sitting in plastic car seat 6.What is the main idea of the entire passage? 1.Educate people about static electricity 2.Prevent people from dragging their feet while walking on carpets 3.Tell a story of people who were hurt by static electricity 4.Warn people about static electricity 7.According to the passage, how common is "static electricity"? 1.It is very common 2.It is quite rare 3.It happens only in winter 4.The paragraph does not provide sufficient information to answer this question 8. What line from the passage best illustrates the fact that most people don't know what causes static electricity? 1."Though static electricity is a common phenomenon its cause is quite mysterious and often unknown" 2."There is a simple way to avoid shocks caused by static electricity" 3."Every object is composed of a collection of positive and negative electric charges" 4."Static electricity is usually caused by friction of two objects against each other"

65 PASSAGE 2: THOMAS ALVA EDISON Thomas Alva Edison, an American inventor, was born in February 1847, as the seventh and last child of Samuel and Nancy Edison. Contrary to popular belief, Thomas Edison was not born into poverty in a backwater mid-western frontier town. Actually, he was born to middle-class parents in the lively port of Milan, Ohio, a community that next to Odessa, Russia, was the largest wheat shipping center in the world. In 1854, when little Edison was 7 years old, his family moved to Port Huron, Michigan. During childhood Edison learned eagerly by asking questions and reading numerous books. Unable to adapt himself to the routine of school, he quit three months after beginning when his teacher called him "addled". His mother, a former teacher, continued his education through home schooling. At the age of 9 she gave him his first physics book. This book described scientific experiments that Edison could perform himself. Young Edison was hooked! The next year he set up a chemical laboratory in his family's basement. By the age of 12, Edison had become a virtual adult. He had talked his parents into letting him go to work selling newspapers, snacks, and candy on the railroad. To avoid wasting time he moved his basement laboratory to the baggage car and read in the public library during layovers in Detroit. Edison filed papers with various inventions, from an electric vote recorder to a diplex and quadruplex telegraph. However, the invention for which he is best known is the commercial introduction of the incandescent lamp. He did not invent the lamp, but he did devise and manufacture the first lamp and electrical distribution system that could be operated economically together. This was by far much more significant than the invention of the lamp itself in promoting the general use of electricity. Edison was awarded a special Congressional gold medal in 1928 for his many contributions to the nation's welfare. He died at 9 PM in October 1931. Recognizing that his death marked the end of an era in the progress of civilization, countless individuals, communities, and corporations throughout the world dimmed their lights, or, briefly turned off their electric power in his honor on the day he was laid to rest. Answer questions 9-16 based on information presented in the above passage. 9.Which of the following sentences does not accurately describe Edison's background? 1.He was the youngest child in the family 2.He was born to a poor family 3.His mother was a school teacher 4.His first job was selling goods on a train 10.According to the passage, at what age did Edison start his laboratory experiments? 1.7 2.9 3.10 4.12 11.Which of the following inventions did Edison not invent? 1.Electric vote recorder 2.Diplex telegraph 3.Quadruplex telegraph 4.Incandescent lamp

66 12.Why is Edison's work on the incandescent lamp considered to be very significant? 1.He was the first man to invent a lamp 2.It promoted the use of electricity 3.It has rewarded him with a Congressional gold medal 4.It made people acknowledge his importance as an inventor 13.According to the first paragraph what was Milan, Ohio famous for? 1.Wheat shipping center 2.The birth place of Edison 3.Being a mid-western frontier town 4.Being close to Port Huron, Michigan 14. What is the main idea of the entire passage? 1.Describe Edison as a child 2.Tell us that Edison was awarded a congressional gold medal 3.Inform us about Thomas Edison's life 4.Describe Edison's inventions 15. What does it mean in the third paragraph when it says that Edison became "a virtual adult"? 1.Edison looked like an adult 2.Edison dressed like an adult 3.Edison worked like an adult 4.Edison liked to watch adults 16.Where did Edison get most of his education? 1.Books and studying at home 2.School 3.Selling newspaper at the train station 4.His brothers

67 PASSAGE 3: NATURAL GAS Natural gas is a vital component of the world's supply of energy. It is known to be one of the safest, most environmentally friendly, and useful energy sources known to man. Despite its importance there are many misconceptions associated with natural gas. Many of these misconceptions are due to the variety of uses of the word 'gas'. For example, we use gas to fuel our cars and motorcycles, and we barbecue on gas grills. These 'gases', however are not natural gas. They are other substances of gas such as fossil and propane. Natural gas is nothing new. In fact, most of the natural gas that is found today in reservoirs underneath the earth was manufactured millions and millions of years ago. There are many different theories as to its origin. The most widely accepted theory suggests that natural gas is formed when organic matter (such as the remains of plants and animals) is compressed under the earth's surface at a very high pressure for a very long time. Natural gas can also be formed when specific micro-organisms chemically break down organic matter. A third way in which natural gas can be produced is called the abiogenic process. This formation of natural gas is the result of an underground interaction between organic matter, gases, and minerals in a high pressure environment. Due to its methods of production, natural gas is usually found underneath the surface of the earth. Once it is formed it will rise toward the surface of the earth through loose, shale-type rock and other materials. Some of the gas will simply rise to the surface and dissipate into air. A great deal of this gas, however, will be 'trapped' under the ground and accumulate there. This happens when a rock named 'impermeable sedimentary' forms a 'dome' shape like an umbrella that catches all the natural gas that is floating to the surface. With natural gas trapped under the earth in this fashion, it can be recovered by drilling a hole through the rock. The gas that is under great pressure then flows to the surface where it is collected. Most of the natural gas reserves are located in the Middle East (34% of the world's total) and Europe and the former USSR (42% of the world's total reserves). The United States possesses 3% of the world's total natural gas reserves. Most of the gas found in the United States is concentrated in relatively distinct geographical areas; primarily around Texas and the Gulf of Mexico. Answer questions 17-24 based on information presented in the above passage. 17.Where are most of the natural gas reservoirs in the world located? 1.Russia 2.Middle East 3.Europe and former USSR 4.Texas and the Gulf of Mexico 18.In the passage it is mentioned that, in order to recover gas, a hole in the ground is drilled. After the hole is drilled, what is usually used in order to bring the gas to the surface? 1.A special gas pump 2.The force of the gas's own pressure 3.Dome shaped rocks named 'Impermeable Sedimentary' 4.Generators

68 End of Practice Test Check your time and move on to the practice test answers and explanations. 19.According to the passage, which of the following may be a common use of natural gas? 1.Cooking 2.Barbequing 3.Car fuelling 4.Motorcycle fuelling 20.According to the most widely accepted theory dealing with the origin of gas, how is natural gas created? 1.Underground high pressured interaction between minerals and gases 2.A process of highly pressured compressing of organic matter over a long period of time 3.Microorganisms chemically break down organic matter 4.A chemical interaction between underground remains of plants and animals 21.According to the passage, which of the following is not true about natural gas? 1.It is a very important source of energy 2.There are a lot of false beliefs associated with natural gas 3.Natural gas is most likely found under the earth's surface 4.Natural gas is hard to find 5. 22.Of the following, which is the best title for this passage? 1.Where can we find natural gas 2.Natural gas, common misconceptions 3.Natural gas - how it is formed and where it is found 4.Natural gas - past, present, and future 23.According to the passage, the formation of natural gas would not be possible without 1.Organic matter 2.Dome shaped rocks 3.Fossil and propane 4.Reservoirs 24.What does it mean in the first paragraph when it says that natural gas is "environmentally friendly"? 1.It does not pollute 2.It is sufficient 3.It is environmental 4.It is easy to find

69 ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS PASSAGE 1: STATIC ELECTRICITY 1.The correct answer is C. The third sentence in paragraph five states that "The electric static sparks will blast the key rather than your hand, and it will painlessly discharge from your body.“ 2.The correct answer is A. The third sentence in the third paragraph states that "Static electricity (more correctly called "net electric charge") occurs whenever the number of positive and negative electric charges is not perfectly equal.“ 3.The correct answer is B. The second sentence in the third paragraph states that "net electric charge" is the correct term for static electricity. 4.The correct answer is D. The second sentence in the second paragraph states that "However, friction is not required for static electricity to occur." This makes the information provided in answer A accurate. The third sentence in the third paragraph states that "Static electricity (more correctly called "net electric charge") occurs whenever the number of positive and negative electric charges is not perfectly equal." This makes the information provided in answer B accurate. The seventh and eighth sentences in the fourth paragraph state that "The spark is painful because it is extremely hot. It creates tiny burned areas on our skin that hurt for a couple of seconds." This makes the information provided in answer C accurate. Nowhere in the passage is it mentioned that some people are more prone to static electricity than others. This makes the information provided in answer D inaccurate. 5.The correct answer is B. The last paragraph describes a way to deal with static electricity. It does not suggest how to prevent static electricity, but rather how to prevent it from hurting you. 6.The correct answer is A. The purpose of the passage is to give information about static electricity, how it happens, and how we can prevent ourselves from getting zapped. 7.The correct answer is A. The fourth sentence in the first paragraph states that "Though static electricity is a common phenomenon….“ 8.The correct answer is A. In this answer it is stated that "A need for a friction is a common misconception held by many people." Misconception is a synonym for false impression or disbelief, indicating that people might hold a false impression regarding the way static electricity happens.

70 PASSAGE 2: THOMAS ALVA EDISON 9.The correct answer is B. The second sentence in the first paragraph states that "Contrary to popular belief, Thomas Edison was not born into poverty in a backwater mid-western frontier town". 10.The correct answer is C. In the second paragraph the author tells us that at the age of nine Edison was given his first physics book. The next year he set up his first chemical laboratory, which makes him ten at the time. 11.The correct answer is D. The third sentence in the fourth paragraph states that " he (Edison) did not invent the lamp (incandescent lamp)…." Answers A-C are all mentioned in the passage as inventions of Thomas Edison. 12.The correct answer is B. The fourth sentence in the fourth paragraph states that "This (devise and manufacture of the first lamp) is by far much more significant than the invention of the lamp itself in promoting the general use of electricity." This implies that the significance of Edison's work on the incandescent lamp is its role in promoting the use of electricity. 13.The correct answer is A. The third sentence in the first paragraph states that "...in the lively port of Milan, Ohio, a community that next to Odessa, Russia was the largest wheat shipping center in the world.“ 14.The correct answer is C. The main idea of the passage is to summarize and give us information about Thomas Edison's life. Though answers A, B, and D are correct, they each describe only a portion of the information provided in the passage. 15.The correct answer is C. The phrase "virtual adult" is mentioned in the context of describing Edison's first job, selling goods on a train. Thus, the phrase "virtual adult" applies to Edison having a job. 16.The correct answer is A. Reading the second paragraph we can learn two things about Edison's education. First, he learned by reading numerous books "During childhood Edison learned eagerly by asking questions and reading numerous books". Second, he stopped attending school three months after beginning, and continued his education at home with his mother. As stated in paragraph 2 third sentence "His mother, a former teacher, continued his education through home schooling."

71 PASSAGE 3: NATURAL GAS 17.The correct answer is C. The first sentence of the fourth paragraph states that most (42%) of the world's total reserves are located in Europe and the former USSR. The middle East has substantial amount of gas as well (34%), however this is less than the amounts found in Europe and the former USSR. 18.The correct answer is B. The last sentence of the third paragraph states that "The gas that is under great pressure then flows to the surface, where it is collected". 19.The correct answer is A. In the first paragraph the author mentions that there are many misconceptions associated with natural gas. Among the examples given are using gas for car fueling, motorcycle fueling, and gas barbecuing. Knowing that these three are not common uses of natural gas enables us to eliminate options B, C, and D and leave us option A as a possible use for natural gas. 20.The correct answer is B. The fourth sentence in the second paragraph states that "The most widely accepted theory suggests that natural gas is formed when organic matter (such as the remains of plants and animals) are compressed under the earth's surface at a very high pressure for a very long time". 21.The correct answer is D. There is evidence in the passage to support answers A, B, and C. There is no support, however, for answer D, making it the incorrect piece of information. The first sentence in the first paragraph states that, "Natural gas is a vital component of the world's supply of energy". This makes answer A true. The third sentence in the first paragraph states that "Despite its importance there are many misconceptions associated with natural gas". This makes answer B true. The second sentence in the second paragraph state that "In fact, most of the natural gas that is found today in reservoirs underneath the earth..." This makes sentence C true. 22.The correct answer is C. Answer D, is incorrect and can be eliminated. The passage does not talk about the past, neither does it try to predict the future of natural gas. The information given in answers A and B is correct, however it is only a portion of the information provided in the passage. The main idea of the paragraph is to describe the ways natural gas is formed and where it is found, and thus, "Natural gas- how it is formed and where it is found" serves as the best title for the passage. 23.The correct answer is A. In the second paragraph three theories of natural gas formation are described. The thing that is common to all three theories is the need for organic matter to produce natural gas. 24.The correct answer is A. The phrase "environmentally friendly" in the context in which it is being used describes a substance (such as natural gas) that does not pollute

72 READING FOR COMPREHENSION “CRIB NOTES” Do one Passage at a time. Before reading remember that there are no preconceived notions. No matter what the subject you must act as if you have no prior knowledge of the subject. 1.Read the passage and if you are a fast reader re-read it. 2.Answer all of the questions you recognize immediately. DO NOT waste time at this point pondering unknown questions. 3.After completing all known questions go back to the unanswered questions. Try to find the answer in the passage to the questions you left blank and answer. If you are running out of time, try to answer each question in approx 1 minute. 4.Do the tests in Modules (one at a time) on the practice test there are 24 questions (3 passages with eight questions). Remember, you have 23 minutes.

73 MATHEMATICAL USAGE PRACTICE TEST MATHEMATICAL USAGE The Mathematical Usage selection test measures a candidate's ability to solve basic mathematical problems from information provided at the beginning of the test. MATHEMATICAL USAGE PRACTICE TEST This practice test is similar in content and structure to the real selection test. We recommend that you time yourself while taking the practice test to get a feel for how much time you will have to complete the real selection test. It may be to your advantage to complete all practice test questions. Answers and explanations for the practice test questions are provided at the end of the practice test. You should consult these answers only after completing all the practice test questions. Directions This is a test of your skill in working with mathematical formulas. Read the directions carefully before working the problems. This practice test has 19 multiple-choice questions and should take you 8 minutes to complete. The use of calculators is not permitted.

74 Use the information given below to work 3) 15 acres = ? square chains problems 1 through 19. For each problema. 20 circle the letter in front of the correct answer.b. 114 If none of the answers is correct, circlec. 150 answer e, N (for none).d..25 e. N 1 mile = 5,280 feet 1 kilogram = 1,000 grams4) 0.5 kilometers = ? meters 1 kilometer = 1,000 metersa. 300 1 kilogram = 2.205 poundsb. 500 1 hand = 10 centimetersc. 120 1 yard = 36 inchesd. 790 1 centimeter = 0.394 inchese. N 1 slug = 14.59 kilograms 1 acre = 160 square rods5) 87,120 square feet = ? acres 1 mile/minute = 88 feet/seconda. 1 1 acre = 43,560 square feetb. 3 1 fathom = 6 feetc. 36 1 furlong = 40 rodsd. 2 1 hogshead = 63 gallonse. N 1 acre = 10 square chains 1 gallon = 3.785 liters6) 2 kilograms = ? pounds 1 gill =.25 pintsa. 5.36 1 rod =.25 chainsb. 4.41 1 pint =.5 quartsc. 2.12 1 pound = 16 ouncesd. 16 e. N 1) 2 yards = ? inches7) 176 ounces = ? pounds a. 72a. 10 b. 88b. 0.5 c. 36c. 11 d. 18d. 15 e. N 2) 176 feet/second = ? mile/minute8) 2 gallons = ? liters a. 1a. 7.57 b. 2b. 6.35 c. 12 d. 56d. 7.62 e. N

75 Use the information given below to work problems 1 through 19. For each problem circle the letter in front of the correct answer. If none of the answers is correct, circle answer e, N (for none). 1 mile = 5,280 feet 1 kilogram = 1,000 grams 1 kilometer = 1,000 meters 1 kilogram = 2.205 pounds 1 hand = 10 centimeters 1 yard = 36 inches 1 centimeter = 0.394 inches 1 slug = 14.59 kilograms 1 acre = 160 square rods 1 mile/minute = 88 feet/second 1 acre = 43,560 square feet 1 fathom = 6 feet 1 furlong = 40 rods 1 hogshead = 63 gallons 1 acre = 10 square chains 1 gallon = 3.785 liters 1 gill =.25 pints 1 rod =.25 chains 1 pint =.5 quarts 1 pound = 16 ounces 9) 6 gills = ? pints 14) 0.5 miles = ? fathoms a. 6a. 1200 b. 2b. 600 c. 1.5c. 440 d. 8.5d. 640 e. N 10) 80 square rods = ? acres15) 5 square chains = ? square feet a. 8a. 1,254 b. 2b. 21,780 c. 0.5c. 13,547 d. 98d. 9,078 e. N 11) 3 slugs = ? kilograms16) 0.5 slugs = ? grams a 23.97a. 8,700 b. 209b. 3,568 c. 52.4c. 7,295 d. 43.77d. 5,601 e. N 12) 7 hogsheads = ? gallons17) 3,000 grams = ? pounds a. 165a. 6.615 b. 441b. 15.9 c. 125.6c. 5.61 d. 47d. 0.9 e. N 13) 20 chains = ? furlongs18) 64 quarts = ? gills a. 29a. 128 b. 40b. 512 c. 2c. 255 d. 1d. 218 e. N 19) 16 quarts = ? pints a. 25 b. 32 c. 18 d. 18.72 e. N End of Practice Test Check your time and move on to the practice test answers and explanations.

76 MATHEMATICAL USAGE ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS ATTENTION: The relationships provided in this practice test are merely examples. The real test will include a completely different set of relationships. The relationships provided in the table are sufficient for solving problems 1 - 12 and 19. 1.The correct answer is A. You know that 1 yard equals 36 inches. In order to find how many inches are in 2 yards, you have to multiply 36 by 2. This is equal to 72. 1 yard = 36 inches 2 yards = ? inches => 2*36 = 72 inches 2.The correct answer is B. You know that 88 feet/second is 1 mile/minute. In order to find how many miles/minute are in 176 feet/second, we divide 176 by 88. This is equal to 2. 88 feet/second = 1 miles/minute 176 feet/second = ? miles/minute => 176/88 = 2 miles/minute 3.The correct answer is C. We know that 1 acre is 10 square chains. In order to find how many square chains are in 15 acres, you multiply 10 by 15. This is equal to 150. 1 acre = 10 square chains 15 acres = ? square chains => 10*15 = 150 square chains 4.The correct answer is B. You know that 1 kilometer equals 1,000 meters. To find how many meters are in.5 kilometers, you multiply 1,000 by.5. This is equal to 500. 1 kilometer = 1,000 meters.5 kilometers = ? meters => 1,000*.5 = 500 meters 5. The correct answer is D. You know that 43,560 square feet equals 1 acre. In order to find how many acres are in 87,120 square feet, you divide 87,120 by 43,560. This is equal to 2. 43,560 square feet = 1 acre 87,120 square feet = ? acres => 87,120 /43,560 = 2 acres

77 MATHEMATICAL USAGE ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS 6.The correct answer is B. You know that 1 kilogram is equal to 2.205 pounds. To find how many pounds are in 2 kilograms, you multiply 2.205 by 2. This is equal to 4.41. 1 kilogram = 2.205 pounds 2 kilograms = ? pounds => 2*2.205 = 4.41 pounds 7.The correct answer is C. You know that 1 pound is equal to 16 ounces. In order to find how many pounds are in 176 ounces, you divide 176 by 16. This is equal to 11. 16 ounces = 1 pound 176 ounces = ? pounds => 176/16 = 11 pounds 8.The correct answer is A. You know that 1 gallon is equal to 3.785 liters. To find how many liters are in 2 gallons, you multiply 3.785 by 2. This is equal to 7.57. 1 gallon = 3.785 liters 2 gallons = ? liters => 2*3.785 = 7.57 liters 9.The correct answer is C. You know that 1 gill equals.25 pints. In order to find how many pints are in 6 gills, you multiply 6 by.25. This is equal to 1.5. 1 gill =.25 pints 6 gills = ? pints =>6*.25 = 1.5 pints 10.The correct answer is C. You know that 1 acre is equal to 160 square rods. In order to find how many acres are in 80 square rods, you divide 80 by 160. This is equal to.5. 160 square rods = 1 acre 80 square rods = ? acres => 80/160 =.5 acres 11.The correct answer is D. You know that 1 slug equals 14.59 kilograms. To find how many kilograms are in 3 slugs, you multiply 3 by 14.59. This is equal to 43.77. 1 slug = 14.59 kilograms 3 slugs = ? kilograms => 3*14.59 = 43.77 kilograms 12. The correct answer is B. You know that 1 hogshead equals 63 gallons. To find how many gallons are in 7 hogsheads, you multiply 7 by 63. This is equal to 441. 1 hogshead = 63 gallons 7 hogsheads = ? gallons => 7*63 = 441 gallons

78 MATHEMATICAL USAGE ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS The relationships needed to solve problems 13-18 are not directly provided in the table. Thus, you need to identify a metric (a common multiple) that is common to the two variables in question. 13. The correct answer is C. This question is a bit more complicated since the relationship between chains and furlongs is not directly provided in the table. In order to solve the problem, you need to find a common metric between chains and furlongs. Once you find such a metric you can use it to translate both chains and furlongs and make the comparison needed to solve the problem. In the present question the common metric between chains and furlongs is rods. You will solve this as follows: You know that.25 chains is 1 rod. To find how many rods are in 20 chains we divide 20 by.25. This is equal to 80 rods..25 chains = 1 rod 20 chains = ? rods => 20/.25 = 80 rods You know that 40 rods is equal to 1 furlong. To find how many furlongs are in 80 rods we divide 80 by 40. This is equal to 2. 40 rods = 1 furlong 80 rods = ? furlongs => 80/40=2 furlongs 14.The correct answer is C. There is no direct relationship between miles and fathoms, thus you have to use a common metric for both miles and fathoms. In this question the common metric is feet. You know that 1 mile equals 5,280 feet. To find out how many feet are in.5 miles you multiply.5 by 5,280. This is equal to 2,640 feet. 1 mile = 5,280 feet.5 mile = ? feet =>.5*5,280 = 2,640 feet You know that 6 feet is equal to 1 fathom. To find how many fathoms are in 2,640 feet you divide 2,640 by 6. This is equal to 440 fathoms. 6 feet = 1 fathom 2,640 feet = ? fathoms => 2,640/6 = 440 fathoms

79 MATHEMATICAL USAGE ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS 15.The correct answer is B. The relationship between square chains and square feet is not directly provided in the table. In order to solve the problem, you have to use a common metric for both square chains and square feet. In this question the common metric is acres. You know that 10 square chains is equal to 1 acre. To find how many acres are in 5 square chains you divide 5 by 10. This is equal to.5 acres. 10 square chains = 1 acre 5 square chains = ? acre => 5/10 =.5 acres You know that 1 acre is equal to 43,560 square feet. To find how many square feet are in.5 acres you multiply 43,560 by.5. This is equal to 21,780 square feet. 1 acre = 43,560 square feet.5 acres = ? square feet => 43,560*.5 = 21,780 square feet 16. The correct answer is C. The relationship between slugs and grams is not directly provided in the table. In order to solve the problem, you have to use a common metric for both slugs and grams. In this question the common metric is kilograms. You know that 1 slug is 14.59 kilograms. To find how many kilograms are in.5 slugs you multiply 14.59 by.5. This is equal to 7.295 kilograms. 1 slug = 14.59 kilograms.5 slugs = ? kilograms => 14.59*.5 = 7.295 kilograms You know that 1 kilogram is 1,000 grams. To find how many grams are in 7.295 kilograms, you multiply 7.295 by 1,000. This is equal to 7,295 grams. 1 kilogram = 1,000 grams 7.295 kilograms = ? grams => 7.295*1,000 = 7,295 grams 17.The correct answer is A. The relationship between pounds and grams is not directly provided in the table. In order to solve the problem, you have to use a common metric for both pounds and grams. In this question the common metric is kilograms. You know that 1,000 grams is equal to 1 kilogram. To find how many kilograms are in 3,000 grams you divide 3,000 by 1,000. This is equal to 3 kilograms. 1,000 grams = 1 kilogram 3,000 grams = ? kilograms => 3,000/1,000 = 3 kilograms You know that 1 kilogram is 2.205 pounds. To find how many pounds are in 3 kilograms you multiply 3 by 2.205. This is equal to 6.615 pounds. 1 kilogram = 2.205 pounds 3 kilograms = ? pounds => 3*2.205 = 6.615 pounds

80 MATHEMATICAL USAGE ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS 18.The correct answer is B. The relationship between quarts and gills is not directly provided in the table. In order to solve the problem, you have to use a common metric for both quarts and gills. In this question the common metric is pints. You know that.5 quarts is 1 pint. To find how many pints are in 64 quarts you divide 64 by.5 (or multiply 64 by 2). This is equal to 128 pints..5 quarts = 1 pint 64 quarts = ? pints => 64*2 = 128 pints You know that 1 gill equals.25 pints. To find how many gills are in 128 pints you divide 128 by.25 (or multiply 128 by 4). This is equal to 512 gills..25 pints = 1 gill 128 pints = ? gills => 128*4 = 512 gills 19. The correct answer is B. You know that.5 quarts is 1 pint. In order to find how many pints fit into 16 quarts, you divide 16 by.5. This is equal to 32 pints..5 quarts = 1 pint 16 quarts = ? pints => 16/.5 = 32 pints

81 Mathematical Usage “Crib Notes” 1.2 yards = ? inches Since 1 yard equals 36 inches ( we multiply) 2 yards x 36 inches = 72 inches Note: When going from a larger unit of measure to a smaller unit of measure use multiplication (Multiply) 2.176 feet per second = ? miles per minute Since 88 feet per second = 1 mile per minute ( we divide) 176 feet per second / 88 feet per second = 2 miles per minute Note: When going from a smaller unit of measure to a larger unite of measure use division (Divide) 3.15 acres = ? square chains Since 1 acre = 10 square chains ( we multiply) 15 acres x 10 square chains = 150 square chains Note: When going from a larger unit of measure to a smaller unit of measure use multiplication (Multiply) 4. 0.5 kilometers = ? Meters Since 1 kilometer = 1000 meters 1000 x.5 =500 meters To multiply a decimal 1000 x.5 500.0 Remember to move the decimal point! Note: When going from a larger unit of measure to a smaller unit of measure use multiplication (Multiply) and remember to move the decimal point

5. 87,120 square feet = ? acre 87,120 / 43,560 = 2 (43,560 equals the amount of square feet in 1 acre ) Note: When going from a smaller unit of measure to a larger unite of measure use division (Divide) ( square feet are smaller than acres ) 87,120 / 43,560 = 2 acres 6. 2 kilograms = ? Pounds 2 x 2.205 Note: When going from a larger unit of measure to a smaller unit of measure use multiplication (Multiply) 2 x 2.205 2 4.410 Remember to count from the left on decimals and move appropriately in the answer 7.176 ounces = ? pounds 176 / 16 Note: When going from a smaller unit of measure to a larger unite of measure use division (Divide) ( 1 pound = 16 ounces) 176 / 16 = 11 or : 11 __ 16 176 160 Long Division 16 0

8. 2 gallons = ? liters 2 x 3.785 = Note: When going from a larger unit of measure to a smaller unit of measure use multiplication (Multiply) 3.785 2 7.570 Remember to count from the left on decimals and move appropriately in the answer 9. 6 gills = ? Pints 6 x.25 Note: When going from a larger unit of measure to a smaller unit of measure use multiplication (Multiply).25 6 1.50 Remember to count from the left on decimals and move appropriately in the answer 10. 80 square rods = ? Acres 0.5 __ 160 80.0 Note: Remember your decimals since 160 will not go into 80 you must add a decimal with a 0 after it 80.0 0 160 You can also check your answer by multiplying.5 80.0 Always remember the decimal

11. 3 slugs = ? Kilograms 14.59 Note: When going from a larger unit of measure to a smaller unit of measure use multiplication (Multiply) __3 43.77 remember the decimal rule (2 spots from the left in the answer) 3 slugs = 43.77 12. 7 hogshead = ? Gallons Note: When going from a larger unit of measure to a smaller unit of measure use multiplication (Multiply) 7 x 63 63 7 441 7 hogshead = 441 gallons 13. 20 chains = ? Furlongs This question has more than one problem to solve. First, you must find what is common between chains and furlongs. In this case it is rods. (.25 chains = 1 rod ) A. Change chain to rods ( smaller unit to larger means we divide) 20 /.25 80.25/ 20.00 2000 Remember when you move 2 decimal spots to the right you add 2 zero’s 0 80 rods = ? furlongs 80 / 40 = 2 furlongs ( smaller unit to larger means we divide )

85 14..5 miles = ? Fathoms The common measure between miles and fathoms is feet. 50 x.5 = ? feet ( going from a larger unit to a smaller unit we multiply ) 50X.5 miles = ? Feet 5280.5 2640.0 feet Part 2.5 miles = 2640 ft Note: When going from a smaller unit ( feet ) of measure to a larger ( fathom) unit of measure use division (Divide) 6 feet = 1 fathom 440 6 / 2640 2400 240.5 miles = 440 fathoms 240 0

86 15. 5 square chains = ? Square feet The common measurement between between chains and square feet is acres ? acres = 5 square chains Note: When going from a smaller unit ( feet ) of measure to a larger ( acres) unite of measure use division (Divide).5 10/ 5.0.5 acres 5.0 0 Part 2 Because 1 acre = 43560 square feet Going from a larger unit ( acre) to a smaller unit ( sq. feet) we multiply 43560.5 5 square chains = 21,783 square feet 21783.0 Remember to move the decimal

87 16..5 slugs = ? grams the common measurement is kilograms 1 slug = 14.59 kilograms ( table) so going from a larger unit ( slug 0 to a smaller unit ( kilograms ) multiply 14.59.5.5 slugs = 7.295 kilograms 7.295 move decimal 3 spots Part 2 1 kilogram = 1000 grams Going from a smaller unit to a larger unit use multiplication( Multiply) Since 1 kilogram = 1000 grams 1000 7.295 5000. 5 slugs = 7295 grams 90000 700000 7295.000 move decimal 3 spots

88 17.3000 grams = ? Pounds Common measurement = kilograms Since 1000 grams = 1 kilogram then 3000 grams = ? Kilograms. Remember that when going from a larger unit ( grams) to a smaller unit ( kilograms) we divide 3 1000/ 3000 3000 grams = 3 kilograms 3000 0 Part 2 (Table) 1 kilogram = 2.204 pounds 3 kilograms = ? Pounds Remember when going from a smaller unit to a larger unit you multiply 2.205 3 3000 grams = 6.615 pounds 6.615

89 18. 64 quarts = ? gills The common measurement = pints ( table) 15 quarts = ? pints Remember when going form a larger unit ( quarts) to a smaller unit ( pints) we divide.25 pints = 1 gill 4 gills = 1 pint 8 gills = 1 quart 64 8 64 quarts = 512 gills 512 19.16 quarts = ? Pints Remember when going from a smaller unit to a larger unit we divide 32.50/ 160 150 16 pints = 32 quarts 10 2

90 Reading Comprehension Practice tests Passage # 1 In the sixteenth century, an age of great marine and terrestrial exploration, Ferdinand Magellan led the first expedition to sail around the world. As a young Portuguese noble, he served the king of Portugal, but he became involved in the quagmire of political intrigue at court and lost the king's favor. After he was dismissed from service to the king of Portugal, he offered to serve the future Emperor Charles V of Spain. A papal decree of 1493 had assigned all land in the New World west of 50 degrees W longitude to Spain and all the land east of that line to Portugal. Magellan offered to prove that the East Indies fell under Spanish authority. On September 20, 1519, Magellan set sail from Spain with five ships. More than a year later, one of these ships was exploring the topography of South America in search of a water route across the continent. This ship sank, but the remaining four ships searched along the southern peninsula of South America. Finally they found the passage they sought near a latitude of 50 degrees S. Magellan named this passage the Strait of All Saints, but today we know it as the Strait of Magellan. One ship deserted while in this passage and returned to Spain, so fewer sailors were privileged to gaze at that first panorama of the Pacific Ocean. Those who remained crossed the meridian we now call the International Date Line in the early spring of 1521 after ninety- eight days on the Pacific Ocean. During those long days at sea, many of Magellan's men died of starvation and disease. Later Magellan became involved in an insular conflict in the Philippines and was killed in a tribal battle. Only one ship and seventeen sailors under the command of the Basque navigator Elcano survived to complete the westward journey to Spain and thus prove once and for all that the world is round, with no precipice at the edge. For the following questions, circle the letter next to your answer Questions 1 - 7 1.The sixteenth century was an age of great ___exploration. A. cosmic B. land C. mental D. common man E. none of the above 2. Magellan lost the favor of the king of Portugal when he became involved in a political ___. A. entanglement B. discussion C. negotiation D. problems E. none of the above 3. The Pope divided New World lands between Spain and Portugal according to their location on one side or the other of an imaginary geographical line 50 degrees west of Greenwich that extends in a ___ direction. A. north and south B. crosswise C. easterly D. south east E. north and west

91 4.One of Magellan's ships explored the ___ of South America for a passage across the continent. A. coastline B. mountain range C. physical features D. islands E. none of the above 5. Four of the ships sought a passage along a southern ___. A. coast B. inland C. body of land with water on three sides D. border E. answer not available 6. The passage was found near 50 degrees S of ___. A. Greenwich B. The equator C. Spain D. Portugal E. Madrid 7. In the spring of 1521, the ships crossed the ___ now called the International Date Line. A. imaginary circle passing through the poles B. Imaginary line parallel to the equator C. area D. land mass E. answer not found in article

92 Passage # 2 Marie Curie was one of the most accomplished scientists in history. Together with her husband, Pierre, she discovered radium, an element widely used for treating cancer, and studied uranium and other radioactive substances. Pierre and Marie's amicable collaboration later helped to unlock the secrets of the atom. Marie was born in 1867 in Warsaw, Poland, where her father was a professor of physics. At the early age, she displayed a brilliant mind and a blithe personality. Her great exuberance for learning prompted her to continue with her studies after high school. She became disgruntled, however, when she learned that the university in Warsaw was closed to women. Determined to receive a higher education, she defiantly left Poland and in 1891 entered the Sorbonne, a French university, where she earned her master's degree and doctorate in physics. Marie was fortunate to have studied at the Sorbonne with some of the greatest scientists of her day, one of whom was Pierre Curie. Marie and Pierre were married in 1895 and spent many productive years working together in the physics laboratory. A short time after they discovered radium, Pierre was killed by a horse-drawn wagon in 1906. Marie was stunned by this horrible misfortune and endured heartbreaking anguish. Despondently she recalled their close relationship and the joy that they had shared in scientific research. The fact that she had two young daughters to raise by herself greatly increased her distress. Curie's feeling of desolation finally began to fade when she was asked to succeed her husband as a physics professor at the Sorbonne. She was the first woman to be given a professorship at the world-famous university. In 1911 she received the Nobel Prize in chemistry for isolating radium. Although Marie Curie eventually suffered a fatal illness from her long exposure to radium, she never became disillusioned about her work. Regardless of the consequences, she had dedicated herself to science and to revealing the mysteries of the physical world. Questions 8 - 14 8.The Curies' ____ collaboration helped to unlock the secrets of the atom. A. friendly B. competitive C. courteous D. industrious E. chemistry 9. Marie had a bright mind and a __personality. A. strong B. lighthearted C. humorous D. strange E. envious 10. When she learned that she could not attend the university in Warsaw, she felt___. A. hopeless B. annoyed C. depressed D. worried E. none of the above 11. Marie ___ by leaving Poland and traveling to France to enter the Sorbonne. A. challenged authority B. showed intelligence C. behaved D. was distressed E. answer not available in article

93 12. _____she remembered their joy together. A. Dejectedly B. Worried C. Tearfully D. Happily E. Sorrowfully 13. Her ____ began to fade when she returned to the Sorbonne to succeed her husband. A. misfortune B. anger C. wretchedness D. disappointment E. ambition 14. Even though she became fatally ill from working with radium, Marie Curie was never ____. A. troubled B. worried C. disappointed D. sorrowful E. disturbed Passage # 3 Mount Vesuvius, a volcano located between the ancient Italian cities of Pompeii and Herculaneum, has received much attention because of its frequent and destructive eruptions. The most famous of these eruptions occurred in A. D. 79. The volcano had been inactive for centuries. There was little warning of the coming eruption, although one account unearthed by archaeologists says that a hard rain and a strong wind had disturbed the celestial calm during the preceding night. Early the next morning, the volcano poured a huge river of molten rock down upon Herculaneum, completely burying the city and filling in the harbor with coagulated lava. Meanwhile, on the other side of the mountain, cinders, stone and ash rained down on Pompeii. Sparks from the burning ash ignited the combustible rooftops quickly. Large portions of the city were destroyed in the conflagration. Fire, however, was not the only cause of destruction. Poisonous sulphuric gases saturated the air. These heavy gases were not buoyant in the atmosphere and therefore sank toward the earth and suffocated people. Over the years, excavations of Pompeii and Herculaneum have revealed a great deal about the behavior of the volcano. By analyzing data, much as a zoologist dissects a specimen animal, scientist have concluded that the eruption changed large portions of the area's geography. For instance, it turned the Sarno River from its course and raised the level of the beach along the Bay of Naples. Meteorologists studying these events have also concluded that Vesuvius caused a huge tidal wave that affected the world's climate. In addition to making these investigations, archaeologists have been able to study the skeletons of victims by using distilled water to wash away the volcanic ash. By strengthening the brittle bones with acrylic paint, scientists have been able to examine the skeletons and draw conclusions about the diet and habits of the residents. Finally, the excavations at both Pompeii and Herculaneum have yielded many examples of classical art, such as jewelry made of bronze, which is an alloy of copper and tin. The eruption of Mount Vesuvius and its tragic consequences have provided us with a wealth of data about the effects that volcanoes can have on the surrounding area. Today volcanologists can locate and predict eruptions, saving lives and preventing the destruction of cities and cultures.

94 15. Herculaneum and its harbor were buried under ___lava. A. liquid B. solid C. flowing D. gas E. answer not available 16. The poisonous gases were not ___ in the air. A. able to float B. visible C. able to evaporate D. invisible E. able to condense 17. Scientists analyzed data about Vesuvius in the same way that a zoologist ___ a specimen. A. describes in detail B. studies by cutting apart C. photographs D. chart E. answer not available 18. ____have concluded that the volcanic eruption caused a tidal wave. A. Scientist who study oceans B. Scientist who study atmospheric conditions C. Scientist who study ash D. Scientist who study animal behavior E. Answer not available in article 19. Scientist have used ___water to wash away volcanic ash from the skeletons of victims. A. bottled B. volcanic C. purified D. sea E. fountain

95 Passage # 4 Conflict had existed between Spain and England since the 1570s. England wanted a share of the wealth that Spain had been taking from the lands it had claimed in the Americas. Elizabeth I, Queen of England, encouraged her staunch admiral of the navy, Sir Francis Drake, to raid Spanish ships and towns. Though these raids were on a small scale, Drake achieved dramatic success, adding gold and silver to England's treasury and diminishing Spain's omnipotence. Religious differences also caused conflict between the two countries. Whereas Spain was Roman Catholic, most of England had become Protestant. King Philip II of Spain wanted to claim the throne and make England a Catholic country again. To satisfy his ambition and also to retaliate against England's theft of his gold and silver, King Philip began to build his fleet of warships, the Armada, in January 1586. Philip intended his fleet to be indestructible. In addition to building new warships, he marshaled one hundred and thirty sailing vessels of all types and recruited more than nineteen thousand robust soldiers and eight thousand sailors. Although some of his ships lacked guns and others lacked ammunition, Philip was convinced that his Armada could withstand any battle with England. The martial Armada set sail from Lisbon, Portugal, on May 9,1588, but bad weather forced it back to port. The voyage resumed on July 22 after the weather became more stable. The Spanish fleet met the smaller, faster, and more maneuverable English ships in battle off the coast of Plymouth, England, first on July 31 and again on August 2. The two battles left Spain vulnerable, having lost several ships and with its ammunition depleted. On August 7, while the Armada lay at anchor on the French side of the Strait of Dover, England sent eight burning ships into the midst of the Spanish fleet to set it on fire. Blocked on one side, the Spanish ships could only drift away, their crews in panic and disorder. Before the Armada could regroup, the English attacked again on August 8. Although the Spaniards made a valiant effort to fight back, the fleet suffered extensive damage. During the eight hours of battle, the Armada drifted perilously close to the rocky coastline. At the moment when it seemed that the Spanish ships would be driven onto the English shore, the wind shifted, and the Armada drifted out into the North Sea. The Spaniards recognized the superiority of the English fleet and returned home, defeated.

96 20.Sir Francis Drake added wealth to the treasury and diminished Spain's ____. A. unlimited power B. unrestricted growth C. territory D. treaties E. answer not available in article 21. Philip recruited many ___soldiers and sailors. A. warlike B. strong C. accomplished D. timid E. non experienced 22. The ____ Armada set sail on May 9, 1588. A. complete B. warlike C. independent D. isolated E. answer not available 23. The two battles left the Spanish fleet ____. A. open to change B. triumphant C. open to attack D. defeated E. discouraged 24. The Armada was ___ on one side. A. closed off B. damaged C. alone D. circled E. answer not available in this article

97 Passage # 5 The victory of the small Greek democracy of Athens over the mighty Persian empire in 490 B. C. is one of the most famous events in history. Darius, king of the Persian empire, was furious because Athens had interceded for the other Greek city-states in revolt against Persian domination. In anger the king sent an enormous army to defeat Athens. He thought it would take drastic steps to pacify the rebellious part of the empire. Persia was ruled by one man. In Athens, however, all citizens helped to rule. Ennobled by this participation, Athenians were prepared to die for their city-state. Perhaps this was the secret of the remarkable victory at Marathon, which freed them from Persian rule. On their way to Marathon, the Persians tried to fool some Greek city-states by claiming to have come in peace. The frightened citizens of Delos refused to believe this. Not wanting to abet the conquest of Greece, they fled from their city and did not return until the Persians had left. They were wise, for the Persians next conquered the city of Etria and captured its people. Tiny Athens stood alone against Persia. The Athenian people went to their sanctuaries. There they prayed for deliverance. They asked their gods to expedite their victory. The Athenians refurbished their weapons and moved to the plain of Marathon, where their little band would meet the Persians. At the last moment, soldiers from Plataea reinforced the Athenian troops. The Athenian army attacked, and Greek citizens fought bravely. The power of the mighty Persians was offset by the love that the Athenians had for their city. Athenians defeated the Persians in archery and hand combat. Greek soldiers seized Persian ships and burned them, and the Persians fled in terror. Herodotus, a famous historian, reports that 6400 Persians died, compared with only 192 Athenians. Questions 25 - 29 25.Athens had ____the other Greek city-states against the Persians. A. refused help to B. intervened on behalf of C. wanted to fight D. given orders for all to fight E. defeated 26. Darius took drastic steps to ___ the rebellious Athenians. A. weaken B. destroy C. calm D. placate E. answer not available

98 27. Their participation to the Athenians. A. gave comfort B. gave honor C. gave strength D. gave fear E. gave hope 28. The people of Delos did not want to ___ the conquest of Greece. A. end B. encourage C. think about D. daydream about E. answer not available 29. The Athenians were ___by some soldiers who arrived from Plataea. A.welcomed B. strengthened C. held D. captured E. answer not available Passage # 6. The Trojan War is one of the most famous wars in history. It is well known for the ten-year duration, for the heroism of a number of legendary characters, and for the Trojan horse. What may not be familiar, however, is the story of how the war began. According to Greek myth, the strife between the Trojans and the Greeks started at the wedding of Peleus, King of Thessaly, and Thetis, a sea nymph. All of the gods and goddesses had been invited to the wedding celebration in Troy except Eris, goddesses of discord. She had been omitted from the guest list because her presence always embroiled mortals and immortals alike in conflict. To take revenge on those who had slighted her, Eris decided to cause a skirmish. Into the middle of the banquet hall, she threw a golden apple marked “for the most beautiful.” All of the goddesses began to haggle over who should possess it. The gods and goddesses reached a stalemate when the choice was narrowed to Hera, Athena, and Aphrodite. Someone was needed to settle the controversy by picking a winner. The job eventually fell to Paris, son of King Priam of Troy, who was said to be a good judge of beauty. Paris did not have an easy job. Each goddess, eager to win the golden apple, tried aggressively to bribe him. “I'll grant you vast kingdoms to rule, “ promised Hera. “Vast kingdoms are nothing in comparison with my gift,” contradicted Athena. “Choose me and I'll see that you win victory and fame in war.” Aphrodite outdid her adversaries, however. She won the golden apple by offering Helen, Zeus' daughter and the most beautiful mortal, to Paris. Paris, anxious to claim Helen, set off for Sparta in Greece. Although Paris learned that Helen was married, he accepted the hospitality of her husband, King Menelasu of Sparta, anyway. Therefore, Menelaus was outraged for a number of reasons when Paris departed, taking Helen and much of the king's wealth back to Troy. Menelaus collected his loyal forces and set sail for Troy to begin the war to reclaim Helen.

99 Questions 30 - 32 Eris was known for ___both mortals and immortals. A. scheming against B. involving in conflict C. feeling hostile toward D. ignoring E. comforting 31. Each goddess tried ___to bribe Paris. A. boldly B. effectively C. secretly D. carefully E. answer not stated 32. Athena ___ Hera, promising Paris victory and fame in war. A. denied the statement of B. defeated C. agreed with D. restated the statement E. questioned the statement Passage # 7 One of the most intriguing stories of the Russian Revolution concerns the identity of Anastasia, the youngest daughter of Czar Nicholas II. During his reign over Russia, the Czar had planned to revoke many of the harsh laws established by previous czars. Some workers and peasants, however, clamored for more rapid social reform. In 1918 a group of these people, known as Bolsheviks, overthrew the government. On July 17 or 18, they murdered the Czar and what was thought to be his entire family. Although witnesses vouched that all the members of the Czar's family had been executed, there were rumors suggesting that Anastasia had survived. Over the years, a number of women claimed to be Grand Duchess Anastasia. Perhaps the best –known claimant was Anastasia Tschaikovsky, who was also known as Anna Anderson. In 1920, eighteen months after the Czar's execution, this terrified young woman was rescued from drowning in a Berlin river. She spent two years in a hospital, where she attempted to reclaim her health and shattered mind. The doctors and nurses thought that she resembled Anastasia and questioned her about her background. She disclaimed any connection with the Czar's family. Eight years later, though, she claimed that she was Anastasia. She said that she had been rescued by two Russian soldiers after the Czar and the rest of her family had been killed. Two brothers named Tschaikovsky had carried her into Romania. She had married one of the brothers, who had taken her to Berlin and left her there, penniless and without a vocation. Unable to invoke the aid of her mother's family in Germany, she had tried to drown herself. During the next few years, scores of the Czar's relatives, ex-servants, and acquaintances interviewed her. Many of these people said that her looks and mannerisms were evocative of the Anastasia that they had known. Her grandmother and other relatives denied that she was the real Anastasia, however. Tried of being accused of fraud, Anastasia immigrated to the United States in 1928 and took the name Anna Anderson. She still wished to prove that she was Anastasia, though, and returned

100 Germany in 1933 to bring suit against her mother's family. There she declaimed to the court, asserting that she was indeed Anastasia and deserved her inheritance. In 1957, the court decided that it could neither confirm nor deny Anastasia's identity. Although we will probably never know whether this woman was the Grand Duchess Anastasia, her search to establish her identity has been the subject of numerous books, plays, and movies. Questions 33 - 37 33.Some Russian peasants and workers___for social reform. A. longed B. cried out C. begged D. hoped E. thought much 34. Witnesses ___ that all members of the Czar's family had been executed. A. gave assurance B. thought C. hoped D. convinced some E. answer not stated 35. Tschaikovsky ____any connection with the Czar's family. A. denied B. stopped C. noted D. justified E. answer not stated 36. She was unable to ___the aid of her relative. A. locate B. speak about C. call upon D. identify E. know 37. In court she ___ maintaining that she was Anastasia and deserved her inheritance. A. finally appeared B. spoke forcefully C. testified D. gave evidence E. answer not stated

101 Passage # 8 King Louis XVI and Queen Marie Antoinette ruled France from 1774 to 1789, a time when the country was fighting bankruptcy. The royal couple did not let France's insecure financial situation limit their immoderate spending, however. Even though the minister of finance repeatedly warned the king and queen against wasting money, they continued to spend great fortunes on their personal pleasure. This lavish spending greatly enraged the people of France. They felt that the royal couple bought its luxurious lifestyle at the poor people's expense. Marie Antoinette, the beautiful but exceedingly impractical queen, seemed uncaring about her subjects; misery. While French citizens begged for lower taxes, the queen embellished her palace with extravagant works of art. She also surrounded herself with artists, writers, and musicians, who encouraged the queen to spend money even more profusely. While the queen's favorites glutted themselves on huge feasts at the royal table, many people in France were starving. The French government taxed the citizens outrageously. These high taxes paid for the entertainments the queen and her court so enjoyed. When the minister of finance tried to stop these royal spendthrifts, the queen replaced him. The intense hatred that the people felt for Louis XVI and Marie Antoinette kept building until it led to the French Revolution. During this time of struggle and violence (1789-1799), thousands of aristocrats, as well as the king and queen themselves, lost their lives at the guillotine. Perhaps if Louis XVI and Marie Antoinette had reined in their extravagant spending, the events that rocked France would not have occurred. Questions 38-39. 38.The people surrounding the queen encouraged her to spend money ____. A. wisely B. abundantly C. carefully D. foolishly E. joyfully 39. The minister of finance tried to curb these royal ___. A. aristocrats B. money wasters C. enemies D. individuals E. spenders

102 Passage # 9 Many great inventions are greeted with ridicule and disbelief. The invention of the airplane was no exception. Although many people who heard about the first powered flight on December 17,1903, were excited and impressed, others reacted with peals of laughter. The idea of flying an aircraft was repulsive to some people. Such people called Wilbur and Orville Wright, the inventors of the first flying machine, impulsive fools. Negative reactions, however, did not stop the Wrights. Impelled by their desire to succeed, they continued their experiments in aviation. Orville and Wilbur Wright had always had a compelling interest in aeronautics and mechanics. As young boys they earned money by making and selling kites and mechanical toys. Later, they designed a newspaper-folding machine, built a printing press, and operated a bicycle-repair shop. In 1896, when they read about the death of Otto Lilienthal, the brother's interest in flight grew into a compulsion. Lilienthal, a pioneer in hang-gliding, had controlled his gliders by shifting his body in the desired direction. This idea was repellent to the Wright brothers, however, and they searched for more efficient methods to control the balance of airborne vehicles. In 1900 and 1901, the Wrights tested numerous gliders and developed control techniques. The brothers' inability to obtain enough lift power for the gliders almost led them to abandon their efforts. After further study, the Wright brothers concluded that the published tables of air pressure on curved surfaces must be wrong. They set up a wind tunnel and began a series of experiments with model wings. Because of their efforts, the old tables were repealed in time and replaced by the first reliable figures for air pressure on curved surfaces. This work, in turn, made it possible for them to design a machine that would fly. In 1903 the Wrights built their first airplane, which cost less than one thousand dollars. They even designed and built their own source of propulsion- a lightweight gasoline engine. When they started the engine on December 17, the airplane pulsated wildly before taking off. The plane managed to stay aloft for twelve seconds, however, and it flew one hundred twenty feet. By 1905 the Wrights had perfected the first airplane that could turn, circle, and remain airborne for half an hour at a time. Others had flown in balloons or in hang gliders, but the Wright brothers were the first to build a full-size machine that could fly under its own power. As the contributors of one of the most outstanding engineering achievements in history, the Wright brothers are accurately called the fathers of aviation. Questions 40 - 45 40.The idea of flying an aircraft was ___to some people. A. boring B. distasteful C. exciting D. needless E. answer not available 41. People thought that the Wright brothers had ____. A. acted without thinking B. been negatively influenced C. been too cautious D. had not given enough thought E. acted in a negative way

103 42. The Wright's interest in flight grew into a ____. A. financial empire B. plan C. need to act D. foolish thought E. answer not in article 43. Lilenthal's idea about controlling airborne vehicles was ___the Wrights. A. proven wrong by B. opposite to the ideas of C. disliked by D. accepted by E. opposed by 44. The old tables were __ and replaced by the first reliable figures for air pressure on curved surfaces. A. destroyed B. canceled C. multiplied D. discarded E. not used 45. The Wrights designed and built their own source of ____. A. force for moving forward B. force for turning around C. turning D. force to going backward E. none of the above

104 Reading For Comprehension Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. A 13. C 14. C 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. B 19. C 20. A 21. B 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. B 26. C 27. B 28. B 29. B 30. B 31. A 32. A 33. B 34. A 35. A 36. C 37. B 38. B 39. B 40. B 41. A 42. C 43. C 44. B 45. A

105 Mathematical Usage Practice Questions 1. What will it cost to carpet a room with indoor/outdoor carpet if the room is 10 feet wide and 12 feet long? The carpet costs 12.51 per square yard. A.$166.80 B. $175.90 C. $184.30 D. $189.90 E. $192.20 2. If the perimeter of a rectangular house is 44 yards, and the length is 36 feet, what is the width of the house? A. 10 yards B. 18 yards C. 28 feet D. 32 feet E. 36 yards 3. What is the volume of the following cylinder? A. 210.91 B. 226.20 C. 75.36 D. 904.32 E. 28.26

106 4. What is the volume of a cube whose width is 5 inches? A.15 cubic inches B. 25 cubic inches C. 64 cubic inches D. 100 cubic inches E. 125 cubic inches 5. Sally has three pieces of material. The first piece is 1 yd. 2 ft. 6 in. long, the second piece is 2 yd. 1 ft. 5 in long, and the third piece is 4 yd. 2ft. 8in long. How much material does Sally have? A.7 yd. 1 ft. 8 in. B. 8 yd. 4 ft. 4 in. C. 8 yd. 11 in. D. 9 yd. 7 in. E. 10 yd. 6. A can's diameter is 3 inches, and its height is 8 inches. What is the volume of the can? A.50.30 B. 56.55 C. 75.68 D. 113.04 E. 226.08 7. If the area of a square flowerbed is 16 square feet, then how many feet is the perimeter of the flowerbed? A.4 B. 12 C. 16 D. 20 E. 24 8. Of the following units which would be more likely used to measure the amount of water in a bathtub? A. kilograms B. liters C. milliliters D. centigrams E. volts

107 9. If a match box is 0.17 feet long, what is its length in inches the most closely comparable to the following? A.5 1/16 inch highlighter B. 3 1/8 inch jewelry box C. 2 3/4 inch lipstick D. 2 3/16 inch staple remover E. 4 1/2 inch calculator 10. What is the cost in dollars to steam clean a room W yards wide and L yards long it the steam cleaners charge 10 cents per square foot? A.0.9WL B. 0.3WL C. 0.1WL D. 9WL E. 3WL 11. Once inch equals 2.54 cm, How many centimeters tall is a 76- inch man? A.20 cm B. 29.92 cm C. 193.04 cm D. 300.04 cm E. 593.04 cm 12. A room measures 11 ft x 12 ft x 9 ft. What is the volume? A. 1188 ft 3 B. 32 ft 3 C. 120 ft 3 D. 1300 ft 3 E. 1350 ft 3

108 13. A vitamin's expiration date has passed. It was suppose to contain 500 mg of Calcium, but it has lost 325 mg of Calcium. How many mg of Calcium is left? A.135 mg B. 175 mg C. 185 mg D. 200 mg E. 220 mg 14. You have orders to give a patient 20 mg of a certain medication. The medication is stored 4 mg per 5-mL dose. How many milliliters will need to be given? A.15 mL B. 20 mL C. 25 mL D. 30 mL E. 35 mL 15. You need exactly a 1680 ft 3 aquarium for your fish. At the pet store you see four choices of aquariums, but the volume is not listed. The length, width, and height are listed on the box. Which of the following aquariums would fit your needs? A.12 ft x 12 ft x 12 ft B. 13 ft x 15 ft x 16 ft C. 14 ft x 20 ft x 6 ft D. 15 ft x 16 ft x 12 ft E. 15 ft x 12 ft x 12 ft 16. One slice of bread is 80 calorie. Approximately how many calories are in 2 ½ slices of bread? A. 140 calories B. 200 calories C. 220 calories D. 240 calories E. 260 calories

109 Mathematical Usage Answer Key 1. A 2. A 3. B 4. E 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. A 11. C 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. C 16. B

LOCAL 223 POWER PLANT MAINTENANCE SELECTION SYSTEM TRAINING GUIDE DRAFT October 20,2010 1.

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