2. As the result of normal mitosis, the daughter cells are a) identical to neither the parent cell nor to each other b) genetically identical to each other but not to the parent cell c) genetically identical to the parent cell but not to each other d) genetically identical to the parent cell and to each other

3. As the result of normal mitosis, the daughter cells are a) identical to neither the parent cell nor to each other b) genetically identical to each other but not to the parent cell c) genetically identical to the parent cell but not to each other d) genetically identical to the parent cell and to each other

4. An animal cell with 12 chromosomes undergoes normal mitosis. What is the total number of chromosomes in each of the resulting daughter cells? a) 6 b) 8 c) 12 d) 24

5. An animal cell with 12 chromosomes undergoes normal mitosis. What is the total number of chromosomes in each of the resulting daughter cells? a) 6 b) 8 c) 12 d) 24

6. Asexual reproduction of diploid organisms normally results in new organisms that contain cells with A) fewer chromosomes than are found in the cells of the parent B) the haploid number of chromosomes C) more chromosomes than are found in the cells of the parent D) the diploid number of chromosomes

7. Asexual reproduction of diploid organisms normally results in new organisms that contain cells with A) fewer chromosomes than are found in the cells of the parent B) the haploid number of chromosomes C) more chromosomes than are found in the cells of the parent D) the diploid number of chromosomes

8. Cancer is a disease characterized by the a. controlled cell division of normal cells b. uncontrolled cell division of abnormal cells c. limited production of normal fertilized eggs d. unlimited production of abnormal embryos e. reduced cell division of quiescent cells

9. Cancer is a disease characterized by the a. controlled cell division of normal cells b. uncontrolled cell division of abnormal cells c. limited production of normal fertilized eggs d. unlimited production of abnormal embryos e. reduced cell division of quiescent cells

10. Which of the following statements is false? A) a typical body cell is called a somatic cell B) gametes are haploid cells C) somatic cells are diploid D) somatic cells are made by meiosis

11. Which of the following statements is false? A) a typical body cell is called a somatic cell B) gametes are haploid cells C) somatic cells are diploid D) somatic cells are made by meiosis

12. Which process must occur before the mitotic phase of the cell cycle begins? A. reformation of the nuclear envelope B. replication of the chromosomes C. cytoplasmic division D. Separation of the sister chromatids

13. Which process must occur before the mitotic phase of the cell cycle begins? A. reformation of the nuclear envelope B. replication of the chromosomes C. cytoplasmic division D. Separation of the sister chromatids

14. Which of the following indicates the types of cells that are produced in humans by meiosis and mitosis? a) body cells (somatic cells ) are produced in both mitosis and meiosis b) body cells are produced in meiosis; gametes in mitosis c) gametes are produced in both meiosis and mitosis d) body cells are produced in mitosis; gametes in meiosis

15. Which of the following indicates the types of cells that are produced in humans by meiosis and mitosis? a) body cells (somatic cells ) are produced in both mitosis and meiosis b) body cells are produced in meiosis; gametes in mitosis c) gametes are produced in both meiosis and mitosis d) body cells are produced in mitosis; gametes in meiosis

16. Place these stages of the cell cycle in the correct order.

17. C, B, D, A

18. During which phase of the cell cycle are the sister chromatids fully attached to mitotic spindle and aligned across the center of the cell at the equator. A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Interphase D. Cytokinesis E. Metaphase

19. During which phase of the cell cycle are the sister chromatids fully attached to mitotic spindle and aligned across the center of the cell at the equator. A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Interphase D. Cytokinesis E. Metaphase

20. During which phase of the cell cycle does the cytoplasm divide to produce two separate daughter cells. A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Interphase D. Cytokinesis E. Metaphase

21. During which phase of the cell cycle does the cytoplasm divide to produce two separate daughter cells. A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Interphase D. Cytokinesis E. Metaphase

22. During which phase of the cell cycle is the DNA replicated to produce sister chromatids attached at a centromere. A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Interphase D. Cytokinesis E. Metaphase

23. During which phase of the cell cycle is the DNA replicated to produce sister chromatids attached at a centromere. A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Interphase D. Cytokinesis E. Metaphase

24. During which phase of the cell cycle are the sister chromatids pulled apart and moved toward opposite sides of the cell by the mitotic spindle. A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Interphase D. Cytokinesis E. Metaphase

25. During which phase of the cell cycle are the sister chromatids pulled apart and moved toward opposite sides of the cell by the mitotic spindle. A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Interphase D. Cytokinesis E. Metaphase

26. During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells checked for complete and accurate DNA replication. A. G 1 to S checkpoint B. G 2 to M checkpoint C. Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint D. A and B.

27. During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells checked for complete and accurate DNA replication. A. G 1 to S checkpoint B. G 2 to M checkpoint C. Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint D. A and B.

28. During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells checked for complete attachment of all sister chromatids to the mitotic spindle via their kinetochores. A. G 1 to S checkpoint B. G 2 to M checkpoint C. Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint D. A and B.

29. During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells checked for complete attachment of all sister chromatids to the mitotic spindle via their kinetochores. A. G 1 to S checkpoint B. G 2 to M checkpoint C. Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint D. A and B.

30. During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells checked for appropriate cell size. A. G 1 to S checkpoint B. G 2 to M checkpoint C. Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint D. A and B.

31. During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells checked for appropriate cell size. A. G 1 to S checkpoint B. G 2 to M checkpoint C. Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint D. A and B.

32. During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells checked for DNA damage. A. G 1 to S checkpoint B. G 2 to M checkpoint C. Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint D. A and B.

33. During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells checked for DNA damage. A. G 1 to S checkpoint B. G 2 to M checkpoint C. Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint D. A and B.

34. During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells checked for alignment of the sister chromatids across the equator on a line equidistant from the two poles. A. G 1 to S checkpoint B. G 2 to M checkpoint C. Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint D. A and B.

35. During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells checked for alignment of the sister chromatids across the equator on a line equidistant from the two poles. A. G 1 to S checkpoint B. G 2 to M checkpoint C. Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint D. A and B.

36. Which of the following statements is TRUE. A. Cancer cells exhibit density-dependent inhibition and therefore will only grow one cell layer deep in culture. B. The majority of cancer cells are in a G 0 phase of quiescence. C. Normal cells spend approximately 80-90% of their time in the interphase portion of the cell cycle. D. All normal cells have a characteristic rounded shape, while cancer cells tend to be more stretched out and irregular in their shape.

37. Which of the following statements is TRUE. A. Cancer cells exhibit density-dependent inhibition and therefore will only grow one cell layer deep in culture. B. The majority of cancer cells are in a G 0 phase of quiescence. C. Normal cells spend approximately 80-90% of their time in the interphase portion of the cell cycle. D. All normal cells have a characteristic rounded shape, while cancer cells tend to be more stretched out and irregular in their shape.

38. Which of the following is NOT true of cancer cells. A) They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition (also known as contact inhibition) when grown in culture, and therefore will grow several cell layers deep. B) They lose the distinct shape and structure of normal cells of that particular cell type, and instead show a variety of shapes, frequently becoming rounded in appearance. C) They frequently contain an abnormal number of chromosomes. D) They show an increased dependence on growth factors and other signals to maintain rapid cell division.

39. Which of the following is NOT true of cancer cells. A) They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition (also known as contact inhibition) when grown in culture, and therefore will grow several cell layers deep. B) They lose the distinct shape and structure of normal cells of that particular cell type, and instead show a variety of shapes, frequently becoming rounded in appearance. C) They frequently contain an abnormal number of chromosomes. D) They show an increased dependence on growth factors and other signals to maintain rapid cell division.

40. Which of the following statements is TRUE. A. Normal cells have a defined and distinct shape that reflects their normal cellular function, whereas cancer cells are frequently smaller and rounded in appearance. B. Cancer cells are more dependent on growth factors and other external signals than normal cells are. C. Normal cells are usually aneuploid and cancer cells are usually diploid. D. Normal cells will frequently grow several cell layers deep, since they do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition.

41. Which of the following statements is TRUE. A. Normal cells have a defined and distinct shape that reflects their normal cellular function, whereas cancer cells are frequently smaller and rounded in appearance. B. Cancer cells are more dependent on growth factors and other external signals than normal cells are. C. Normal cells are usually aneuploid and cancer cells are usually diploid. D. Normal cells will frequently grow several cell layers deep, since they do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition.

42. A physical or chemical agent that changes the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called a) an anticodon b) a terminator c) a transposon d) a mutagen.

43. A physical or chemical agent that changes the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called a) an anticodon b) a terminator c) a transposon d) a mutagen.

44. A spontaneous mutation usually originates as an error in A) DNA replication. B) DNA transcription C) translation. D) reverse transcription.

45. A spontaneous mutation usually originates as an error in A) DNA replication. B) DNA transcription C) translation. D) reverse transcription.

46. True or False? A mutation always causes a mutant phenotype. A) true B) false C) cannot be determined

47. True or False? A mutation always causes a mutant phenotype. A) true B) false C) cannot be determined

48. Which of the following are known to be carcinogenic (cancer causing) mutagens. A) UV radiation from the sun B) X-rays C) Certain chemical compounds D) All of the above

49. Which of the following are known to be carcinogenic (cancer causing) mutagens. A) UV radiation from the sun B) X-rays C) Certain chemical compounds D) All of the above

50. Which of the following statements is TRUE. A) Oncogenes are activated by mutations to become cancer-causing proto-oncogenes. B) The normal cellular function of tumor suppressor genes is to stimulate progression of the cell cycle. C) Oncogenes act to slow down the cell cycle. D) Cancer causing mutations in tumor suppressor genes are usually recessive, meaning that both alleles of the gene must be mutated for an effect to be observed.

51. Which of the following statements is TRUE. A) Oncogenes are activated by mutations to become cancer-causing proto-oncogenes. B) The normal cellular function of tumor suppressor genes is to stimulate progression of the cell cycle. C) Oncogenes act to slow down the cell cycle. D) Cancer causing mutations in tumor suppressor genes are usually recessive, meaning that both alleles of the gene must be mutated for an effect to be observed.

52. Cancer is often the result of activation of ____ to ____ and the inactivation of ____ genes. A) oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes, proto-oncogenes B) proto-oncogenes, oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes C) oncogenes, proto-oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes D) proto-suppressor genes, suppressors, oncogenes

53. Cancer is often the result of activation of ____ to ____ and the inactivation of ____ genes. A) oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes, proto-oncogenes B) proto-oncogenes, oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes C) oncogenes, proto-oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes D) proto-suppressor genes, suppressors, oncogenes

54. Which of the following statements is FALSE. A) Oncogenes frequently result from mutations in normal cellular genes that regulate the cell cycle called “proto-oncogenes”. B) Oncogenes can be activated by certain viral infections. C) Cancer causing mutations in proto-oncogenes genes are usually recessive, meaning that both alleles of the gene must be mutated for an effect to be observed. D) Mutant oncogenes act as a “gas pedal” driving continuous cell division.

55. Which of the following statements is FALSE. A) Oncogenes frequently result from mutations in normal cellular genes that regulate the cell cycle called “proto-oncogenes”. B) Oncogenes can be activated by certain viral infections. C) Cancer causing mutations in proto-oncogenes genes are usually recessive, meaning that both alleles of the gene must be mutated for an effect to be observed. D) Mutant oncogenes act as a “gas pedal” driving continuous cell division.

56. Which of the following statements is true about cancer. A) Mutations in the tumor suppressor genes Rb or p53 frequently increase the function of these genes, causing cell division to halt at the G 1 to S checkpoint in a manner that is abnormal. B) Mutations in the tumor suppressor genes Rb or p53 frequently increase the function of these genes, causing cell division to pass through at the G 1 to S checkpoint in a manner that is abnormal. C) Mutations in the tumor suppressor genes Rb or p53 frequently decrease the function of these genes, causing cell division to halt at the G 1 to S checkpoint in a manner that is abnormal. D) Mutations in the tumor suppressor genes Rb or p53 frequently decrease the function of these genes, causing cell division to pass through at the G 1 to S checkpoint in a manner that is abnormal.

57. Which of the following statements is true about cancer. A) Mutations in the tumor suppressor genes Rb or p53 frequently increase the function of these genes, causing cell division to halt at the G 1 to S checkpoint in a manner that is abnormal. B) Mutations in the tumor suppressor genes Rb or p53 frequently increase the function of these genes, causing cell division to pass through at the G 1 to S checkpoint in a manner that is abnormal. C) Mutations in the tumor suppressor genes Rb or p53 frequently decrease the function of these genes, causing cell division to halt at the G 1 to S checkpoint in a manner that is abnormal. D) Mutations in the tumor suppressor genes Rb or p53 frequently decrease the function of these genes, causing cell division to pass through at the G 1 to S checkpoint in a manner that is abnormal.

60. List the following electromagnetic spectrum wave types in order from lowest energy to highest energy: Gamma rays Infrared Microwaves Radiowaves Ultraviolet Visible light X-rays

61. List the following electromagnetic spectrum wave types in order from lowest energy to highest energy: Radiowaves Microwaves Infrared Visible light Ultraviolet X-rays Gamma rays

62. What is the relationship between wavelength and frequency in the electromagnetic spectrum?

63. As wavelength decreases, frequency increases

64. What is the relationship between frequency and energy in the electromagnetic spectrum?

65. As frequency increases, energy increases

66. Which of the wave types within the electromagnetic spectrum are potentially ionizing?

67. Ultraviolet X-rays Gamma rays

68. Which of the statements below is an accurate description of what occurs during ionization of an atom? a. An atom loses a proton and becomes a negatively charged ion. b. An atom loses an electron and becomes a positively charged ion. c. An atom loses an electron and becomes a negatively charged ion. d. An atom gains a neutron and its atomic mass increases by 1.

69. Which of the statements below is an accurate description of what occurs during ionization of an atom? a. An atom loses a proton and becomes a negatively charged ion. b. An atom loses an electron and becomes a positively charged ion. c. An atom loses an electron and becomes a negatively charged ion. d. An atom gains a neutron and its atomic mass increases by 1.

70. Element identity (what element it is) is determined by A) its atomic number. B) its mass number. C) its neutron number. D) All of these are correct.

71. Element identity (what element it is) is determined by A) its atomic number. B) its mass number. C) its neutron number. D) All of these are correct. Element identity, meaning the element NAME, is determined solely be the number of protons, and hence solely by atomic number.

72. Isotopes of an element a. Are always radioactive b. Differ in their number of protons c. Differ in their number of neutrons d. Differ in their number of electrons

73. Isotopes of an element a. Are always radioactive b. Differ in their number of protons c. Differ in their number of neutrons d. Differ in their number of electrons

74. Which one of the following is a correct representation of an alpha particle? a. 4 2 He b. 0 -1 e c. 1 0 e d. 0 0 

75. Which one of the following is a correct representation of an alpha particle? a. 4 2 He b. 0 -1 e c. 1 0 e d. 0 0 

76. Alpha decay produces a new atom whose __________ than those of the original atom. a. atomic number is 2 less and atomic mass is 4 less b. atomic number is 2 less and atomic mass is 2 less c. atomic number is 2 more and atomic mass is 4 more d. atomic number is 2 more and atomic mass is 2 less

77. Alpha decay produces a new atom whose __________ than those of the original atom. a. atomic number is 2 less and atomic mass is 4 less b. atomic number is 2 less and atomic mass is 2 less c. atomic number is 2 more and atomic mass is 4 more d. atomic number is 2 more and atomic mass is 2 less

78. Which one of the following is a correct representation of a beta particle? a. 4 2 He b. 0 -1 e c. 1 0 e d. 0 0 

79. Which one of the following is a correct representation of a beta particle? a. 4 2 He b. 0 -1 e c. 1 0 e d. 0 0 

80. What happens to the atomic mass and atomic number of an atom when it undergoes beta (β) decay? a. The mass number increases by 2 and the atomic number increases by 1. b. The mass number decreases by 4 and the atomic number decreases by 2. c. The mass number does not change and the atomic number increases by 1. d. Neither the mass number nor the atomic number change.

81. What happens to the atomic mass and atomic number of an atom when it undergoes beta (β) decay? a. The mass number increases by 2 and the atomic number increases by 1. b. The mass number decreases by 4 and the atomic number decreases by 2. c. The mass number does not change and the atomic number increases by 1. d. Neither the mass number nor the atomic number change.

82. By what process does uranium-238 decay to thorium-234? a. alpha decay b. beta decay c. gamma ray emission d. electron capture

83. By what process does uranium-238 decay to thorium-234? a. alpha decay b. beta decay c. gamma ray emission d. electron capture Uranium 238 must have undergone alpha decay to produce thorium-234, since atomic mass has decreased by 4. Furthermore, according to the Periodic Table, uranium has an atomic number of 92, while thorium has an atomic number of 90. Therefore, atomic number has decreased by 2. The complete nuclear decay equation is: 238 92 U238 92 U → 234 90 Th + 4 2 He 234 90 Th 4 2 He

84. What is the missing product from this nuclear decay reaction: 137 55 Cs → 137 56 Ba + _______________ a. 4 2 He b. 0 +1 e c. 0 -1 e d. 0 0 

85. What is the missing product from this nuclear decay reaction: 137 55 Cs → 137 56 Ba + _______________ a. 4 2 He b. 0 +1 e c. 0 -1 e d. 0 0  Cesium-137 has an atomic number of 55, while Barium-137 has an atomic number of 56. Therefore, during this decay reaction, atomic number has gone up by one while atomic mass is unchanged. Such changes are characteristic of beta decay, thus the missing product is a beta particle. The complete nuclear decay equation is: 137 55 Cs → 137 56 Ba + 0 -1 e 137 56 Ba 0 e

86. Thorium undergoes alpha decay. The product of this reaction also undergoes alpha decay. What is the final product of this second decay reaction __________ ?

87. Thorium undergoes alpha decay. The product of this reaction also undergoes alpha decay. What is the final product of this second decay reaction _radon_ ? The problem tells you that two alpha decay events occur. Since atomic number decreases by two for each alpha decay event, the total decrease in atomic number will be 4. The starting thorium atom has an atomic number of 90. Subtracting 4 gives a final atomic number of 86. Referring to the Periodic Table, we can see that the element radon has an atomic number of 86.

88. What type of radioactive decay does not change the atomic number or atomic mass of an element? atomic numberatomic mass a. electron capture b. gamma ray emission c. alpha decay d. beta decay

89. What type of radioactive decay does not change the atomic number or atomic mass of an element? atomic numberatomic mass a. electron capture b. gamma ray emission c. alpha decay d. beta decay Gamma rays have no charge and no mass, being a wave rather than a particle, therefore the emission of gamma rays during decay affects neither atomic mass nor atomic number.

90. A 39 Cl atom ejects a beta particle. What is the product of this reaction? a. 39 Ar b. 39 Cl c. 39 S d. 38 Ar

91. A 39 Cl atom ejects a beta particle. What is the product of this reaction? a. 39 Ar b. 39 Cl c. 39 S d. 38 Ar Referring to the Periodic Table we can see that the atomic number of Cl is 17. We know that beta decay causes atomic number to increase by 1, therefore the final atomic mass is 18. Referring to the Periodic Table we see that argon (Ar) has an atomic mass of 18. We also know that beta emission causes no change in the atomic mass, therefore the specific isotope generated is argon-39. The overall nuclear decay equestion is: 39 17 Cl  o -1 e + 39 18 Ar

92. A 200 g sample of lawrencium is left in a container from 8:00 AM one morning until 2:00 PM the next afternoon. If the mass of the sample of lawrencium was 25 g, what is the half-life of lawrencium?? a. 10 hours b. 1 day c. 5 hours d. 30 hours

93. A 200 g sample of lawrencium is left in a container from 8:00 AM one morning until 2:00 PM the next afternoon. If the mass of the sample of lawrencium was 25 g, what is the half-life of lawrencium?? a. 10 hours b. 1 day c. 5 hours d. 30 hours Since we started with 200g, after the first half life, 100 g would remain, after the second half life 50 g would remain, and after the third half life 25 g would remain. Thus, the sample in this question has gone through 3 half lives. The total amount of time elapsed from 8:00 am day 1 through 2:00 PM day 1 is a total of 16 + 14 hours. Thus a total of 30 hours have passed. 30 hours divided by 3 half lives, gives a half-life time of 10 hours.

94. According to this graph, what is that half-life of radioactive material X? a. 5,000 years b. 10,000 years c. 15,000 years d. 20,000 years Time (X 1000 years)

95. According to this graph, what is that half-life of radioactive material X? a. 5,000 years b. 10,000 years c. 15,000 years d. 20,000 years The graph shows that 50 % of material is left after 5 X 1000 years, which is equal to 5000 years. Time (X 1000 years)

96. If the half-life of radioactive Iodine is 20.0 years, how much time has passed if you started with 160 grams and 5 grams remain?

97. We are told that we started with 160 grams and ended with 5 grams of radioactive iodine. 12 3 4 5 160 g  80 g  40 g  20 g  10 g  5 g Tells us that 5 half lives have passed: 5 half lives X 20 years per half-life = a total of 100 yeads has gone by.

98. What is the general function of enzymes within a cell? A) to promote the synthesis of monomers B) to induce chemical reactions C) to stop chemical reactions D) to speed up chemical reactions

99. What is the general function of enzymes within a cell? A) to promote the synthesis of monomers B) to induce chemical reactions C) to stop chemical reactions D) to speed up chemical reactions

100. The effect of temperature on the relative rate of action of an enzyme is represented in the graph below. The optimum temperature for the action of this enzyme is approximately a. 15 ◦ C b. 22 ◦ C c. 37 ◦ C d. 50 ◦ C

101. The effect of temperature on the relative rate of action of an enzyme is represented in the graph below. The optimum temperature for the action of this enzyme is approximately a. 15 ◦ C b. 22 ◦ C c. 37 ◦ C d. 50 ◦ C

102. Use the diagram below to answer the question. Identify the parts involved. A. A and B are enzymes and C is the substrate B. C is the enzyme and A and B are the substrates. C. A is the enzyme, B is the monomer and C is the polymer D. A and B are the substrates and C is the polymer

103. Use the diagram below to answer the question. Identify the parts involved. A. A and B are enzymes and C is the substrate B. C is the enzyme and A and B are the substrates. C. A is the enzyme, B is the monomer and C is the polymer D. A and B are the substrates and C is the polymer

104. The enzyme salivary amylase will act on starch but not on protein. This action illustrates that salivary amylase A. contains starch B. is not reusable C. is substrate specific D. lacks protein

105. The enzyme salivary amylase will act on starch but not on protein. This action illustrates that salivary amylase A. contains starch B. is not reusable C. is substrate specific D. lacks protein

106. When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction, A) it lowers the activation energy of the reaction. B) it raises the activation energy of the reaction. C) it acts as a reactant. D) it is used once and discarded.

107. When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction, A) it lowers the activation energy of the reaction. B) it raises the activation energy of the reaction. C) it acts as a reactant. D) it is used once and discarded.

108. Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is true? A) Enzymes are inorganic. B) An enzyme's function is unaffected by changes in pH. C) Enzymes catalyze specific reactions. D) Enzymes slow down the rate of a chemical reaction.

109. Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is true? A) Enzymes are inorganic. B) An enzyme's function is unaffected by changes in pH. C) Enzymes catalyze specific reactions. D) Enzymes slow down the rate of a chemical reaction.

110. The shape of the _______________ on the enzyme determines to which ___________________ the enzyme can bind. A. active area; substrate B. active site; product C. loading dock; organelle D. active site; substrate

111. The shape of the _______________ on the enzyme determines to which ___________________ the enzyme can bind. A. B. C. D. active site; substrate

112. List TWO environmental factors that affect the reaction rate of an enzyme: 1. _____________________ 2. _____________________

113. List TWO environmental factors that affect the reaction rate of an enzyme: 1. pH 2. TEMPERATURE 3. CONCENTRATION OF SUBSTRATE 4. CONCENTRATION OF ENZYME 5. SALT CONCENTRATION

114. When you add acid to a solution, _____. A. the hydrogen ion concentration increases and lowers the pH B. the hydrogen ion concentration decreases and raises the pH C. the hydrogen ion concentration increases and raises the pH D. the hydrogen ion concentration decreases and lowers the pH

115. When you add acid to a solution, _____. A. the hydrogen ion concentration increases and lowers the pH B. the hydrogen ion concentration decreases and raises the pH C. the hydrogen ion concentration increases and raises the pH D. the hydrogen ion concentration decreases and lowers the pH

116. A pH of 6 is how many times more acidic than a pH of 9? A. 3 B. 100 C. 300 D. 1,000

117. A pH of 6 is how many times more acidic than a pH of 9? A. 3 B. 100 C. 300 D. 1,000

118. An acid is _____. A. a solution with a pH between 7 and 14 B. a material that resists pH changes C. any compound that accepts hydrogen ions D. a compound that donates hydrogen ions to a solution

119. An acid is _____. A. a solution with a pH between 7 and 14 B. a material that resists pH changes C. any compound that accepts hydrogen ions D. a compound that donates hydrogen ions to a solution

120. Adding a base tends to _____ of a solution. A. increase the hydrogen ion concentration and increase the pH B. lower hydrogen ion concentration and increase the pH C. lower hydrogen ion concentration and lower the pH D. increase hydrogen ion concentration and lower the pH

121. Adding a base tends to _____ of a solution. A. increase the hydrogen ion concentration and increase the pH B. lower hydrogen ion concentration and increase the pH C. lower hydrogen ion concentration and lower the pH D. increase hydrogen ion concentration and lower the pH

122. In the following reaction: NH4+ (aq) + H2O (aq) → NH3 (aq) + H3O+ (aq) A. NH4+ is an acid and H2O is its conjugate base. B. H2O is a base and NH3 is its conjugate acid. C. NH4+ is an acid and H3O+ is its conjugate base. D. H2O is a base and H3O+ is its conjugate acid.

123. In the following reaction: NH4+ (aq) + H2O (aq) → NH3 (aq) + H3O+ (aq) A. NH4+ is an acid and H2O is its conjugate base. B. H2O is a base and NH3 is its conjugate acid. C. NH4+ is an acid and H3O+ is its conjugate base. D. H2O is a base and H3O+ is its conjugate acid.

124. Which of the following is NOT an acid-base conjugate pair? A) H2CO3 and HCO3 - B) H2O and OH - C) H2S and OH - D) NH4 + and NH3

125. Which of the following is NOT an acid-base conjugate pair? A) H2CO3 and HCO3 - B) H2O and OH - C) H2S and OH - D) NH4 + and NH3

126. What is the concentration of the hydrogen ions, [H+], in an acidic solution? A) 0.0 M B) 1.0 × 10 -7 M C) 1.0 × 10 -14 M D) > 1.0× 10 -7 M E) < 1.0× 10 -7 M

127. What is the concentration of the hydrogen ions, [H+], in an acidic solution? A) 0.0 M B) 1.0 × 10 -7 M C) 1.0 × 10 -14 M D) > 1.0× 10 -7 M E) < 1.0× 10 -7 M

128. What is the concentration of the hydroxide ions, [OH-], in an acidic solution? A) 0.0 M B) 1.0 × 10 -7 M C) 1.0 × 10 -14 M D) > 1.0× 10 -7 M E) < 1.0× 10 -7 M

129. What is the concentration of the hydroxide ions, [OH-], in an acidic solution? A) 0.0 M B) 1.0 × 10 -7 M C) 1.0 × 10 -14 M D) > 1.0× 10 -7 M E) < 1.0× 10 -7 M

130. What is the concentration of the hydrogen ions, [H+], in a neutral solution? A) 0.0 M B) 1.0 × 10 -7 M C) 1.0 × 10 -14 M D) > 1.0× 10 -7 M E) < 1.0× 10 -7 M

131. What is the concentration of the hydrogen ions, [H+], in a neutral solution? A) 0.0 M B) 1.0 × 10 -7 M C) 1.0 × 10 -14 M D) > 1.0× 10 -7 M E) < 1.0× 10 -7 M

132. What is the concentration of hydroxide ions, [OH-], in an aqueous solution if the concentration of hydrogen ions, [H+], is 1 × 10 -4 M? A) 1.0 × 10 -10 M B) 1.0 × 10 9 M C) 1.0 × 10 -14 M D) 1.0 × 10 -9 M

133. What is the concentration of hydroxide ions, [OH-], in an aqueous solution if the concentration of hydrogen ions, [H+], is 1 × 10 -4 M? A) 1.0 × 10 -10 M B) 1.0 × 10 9 M C) 1.0 × 10 -14 M D) 1.0 × 10 -9 M

134. Which solution below has the highest concentration of hydrogen ions? A) pH = 3.21 B) pH = 12.49 C) pH = 7.00 D) pH = 10.12 E) pH = 7.93

135. Which solution below has the highest concentration of hydrogen ions? A) pH = 3.21 B) pH = 12.49 C) pH = 7.00 D) pH = 10.12 E) pH = 7.93

136. What is the hydrogen ion concentration, [H⁺], in a solution that has a pH of 3? A) 1 × 10 3 M B) 2.2 × 10 3 M C) 1 × 10 -3 M D) 1 × 10 -11 M

137. What is the hydrogen ion concentration, [H⁺], in a solution that has a pH of 11? A) 1 × 10 3 M B) 2.2 × 10 3 M C) 1 × 10 -3 M D) 1 × 10 -11 M

138. What is the hydroxide ion concentration, [OH - ], in a solution that has a pH of 3? A) 1 × 10 3 M B) 2.2 × 10 3 M C) 1 × 10 -3 M D) 1 × 10 -11 M

139. What is the hydroxide ion concentration, [OH - ], in a solution that has a pH of 3? A) 1 × 10 3 M B) 2.2 × 10 3 M C) 1 × 10 -3 M D) 1 × 10 -11 M

140. What is the hydroxide ion concentration, [OH - ], in a solution that has a pH of 11? A) 1 × 10 3 M B) 2.2 × 10 3 M C) 1 × 10 -3 M D) 1 × 10 -11 M

141. What is the hydroxide ion concentration, [OH - ], in a solution that has a pH of 11? A) 1 × 10 3 M B) 2.2 × 10 3 M C) 1 × 10 -3 M D) 1 × 10 -11 M

142. What is the pH of a solution with a hydrogen ion concentration, [H+], of 1 × 10 -4 M A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 10

143. What is the pH of a solution with a hydrogen ion concentration, [H+], of 1 × 10 -4 M A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 10

144. What is the pH of a solution with a hydroxide ion concentration, [OH-], of 1 × 10 -6 M A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 10

145. What is the pH of a solution with a hydroxide ion concentration, [OH-], of 1 × 10 -8 M A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 10

146. A chemical equilibrium exists when A) reactants are completely changed to products. B) there are equal amounts of reactants and products. C) the rate at which reactants form products becomes zero. D) the sum of reactant and product concentrations equals 1 M. E) the rate at which reactants form products is the same as the rate at which products form reactants.

147. A chemical equilibrium exists when A) reactants are completely changed to products. B) there are equal amounts of reactants and products. C) the rate at which reactants form products becomes zero. D) the sum of reactant and product concentrations equals 1 M. E) the rate at which reactants form products is the same as the rate at which products form reactants.

148. A system is said to be in dynamic equilibrium when: A) there is no longer any net change in the concentrations of products or reactants. B) the forward and reverse reactions come to a halt. C) the sum of the concentrations of the reactants is equal to the sum of the concentrations of the products. D) you have let the reaction proceed for approximately 30 minutes and can assume there will be no more changes. E) none of the above

149. A system is said to be in dynamic equilibrium when: A) there is no longer any net change in the concentrations of products or reactants. B) the forward and reverse reactions come to a halt. C) the sum of the concentrations of the reactants is equal to the sum of the concentrations of the products. D) you have let the reaction proceed for approximately 30 minutes and can assume there will be no more changes. E) none of the above

150. For the reaction aA + bB ⇌ cC + dD, the equilibrium expression is:

151. K eq = [C] c [D] d [A] a [B] b

152. What must be TRUE for a reaction possessing a large equilibrium constant? A) The reaction rate is fast. B) The reaction rate is slow. C) The forward reaction is favored. D) The reverse reaction is favored.

153. What must be TRUE for a reaction possessing a large equilibrium constant? A) The reaction rate is fast. B) The reaction rate is slow. C) The forward reaction is favored. D) The reverse reaction is favored.

154. For the reaction S 2 F 6 ⇌ 2SF 2 + F 2 the equilibrium expression is:

155. For the reaction S 2 F 6 ⇌ 2SF 2 + F 2 the equilibrium expression is: K eq = [SF 2 ] 2 [F 2 ] [S 2 F 6 ]

156. Which equilibrium constant represents a reaction that favors the formation of the products to the greatest extent? A) Keq = 100 B) Keq = 1.0 ×10 8 C) Keq = 1.0 × 10 -3 D) Keq = 1.0 ×10 -18

157. Which equilibrium constant represents a reaction that favors the formation of the products to the greatest extent? A) Keq = 100 B) Keq = 1.0 ×10 8 C) Keq = 1.0 × 10 -3 D) Keq = 1.0 ×10 -18

158. Which of the following is TRUE of a system for which Keq << 1? A) It will take a long time to reach equilibrium. B) It will take a short time to reach equilibrium. C) The equilibrium favors the reverse reaction. D) The equilibrium favors the forward reaction.

159. Which of the following is TRUE of a system for which Keq << 1? A) It will take a long time to reach equilibrium. B) It will take a short time to reach equilibrium. C) The equilibrium favors the reverse reaction. D) The equilibrium favors the forward reaction.

160. Which equilibrium constant represents a reaction that favors the formation of the reactants to the greatest extent? A) Keq = 100 B) Keq = 1.0 ×10 8 C) Keq = 1.0 × 10 -3 D) Keq = 1.0 ×10 -18

161. Which equilibrium constant represents a reaction that favors the formation of the reactants to the greatest extent? A) Keq = 100 B) Keq = 1.0 ×10 8 C) Keq = 1.0 × 10 -3 D) Keq = 1.0 ×10 -18