E20-060 EMC EMC Technology Foundations – Business Continuity Thousands of IT Professionals before you have already passed their E20-060 certification exams.

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E EMC EMC Technology Foundations – Business Continuity Thousands of IT Professionals before you have already passed their E certification exams using the EMC E Practice Exam from ipass4sure.com. Once you start using our E exam questions you simply can't stop! You are guaranteed to pass your EMC E test with ease and in your first attempt. Here's what you can expect from the ipass4sure EMC E course: * Up-to-Date EMC E questions designed to familiarize you with the real exam. * 100% correct EMC E answers you simply can't find in other E courses. * All of our tests are easy to download. Your file will be saved as a E PDF. * EMC E brain dump free content featuring the real E test questions. EMC E Certification Exam is of core importance both in your Professional life and EMC Certification Path. With EMC Certification you can get a good job easily in the market and get on your path for success. Professionals who passed EMC E Certification Exam are an absolute favorite in the industry. If you pass EMC E Certification Exam then career opportunities are open for you. Our E Questions & Answers provide you an easy solution to your EMC E Exam Preparation. Our E Q&As contains the most updated EMC E real tests. You can use our E Q&As on any PC with most versions of Acrobat Reader and prepare the exam easily.

E QUESTION 1 After a client has presented information to be stored on Centera, what is the next step? A. Unique Content Address is calculated B. Object is protected C. Object is sent to Centera via Centera API over IP D. Object is replicated Answer: A QUESTION 2 Which two of the following are iSCSI naming conventions? (Choose two.) A. iSNS B. iQN C. EUI D. DNS Answer: B,C QUESTION 3 How does the TimeFinder/Mirror Restore operation transfer data? A. It restores from the VDEV device to the BCV device B. It restores from the R2 device to the R1 device C. It copies from the Standard device to the BCV device D. It copies from the BCV device to the Standard device Answer: D QUESTION 4 Which of the following is a feature of the dual-ported disk and redundant directors in Symmetrix DMX systems? A. Disk modules have two independent Fibre Channel port B. Directors are always configured in pairs C. Directors have two primary loops and two secondary loops for failover D. Driveports connect to directors by the same loop Answer: B QUESTION 5 Exhibit

E Which two of the following are features of the dual-ported disk and redundant directors in a Symmetrix DMX system? (Choose two.) A. Individual disk drives can be inserted or removed without an interruption of service B. Disk modules have four independent Fibre Channel ports C. Directors have two primary loops and two secondary loops for failover D. Directors are configured in pairs E. Drive ports connect to directors by the same loop Answer: A,D QUESTION 6 Which of the following Celerra data replication options provides a point-in-time filesystem copy over IP? A. TimeFinder/FS Snapcopy B. SnapSure C. OnCourse D. Celerra Replicator Answer: D QUESTION 7 Which of the following protocols can be used to manage multi-vendor switches? A. NDMP B. SMTP C. RPC D. SNMP

E Answer: D QUESTION 8 Which of the following Symmetrix feature allows striping data across multiple volumes? A. Meta Volumes B. Age-Link-Chain C. Dynamic Sparing D. Dynamic Mirrored Service Policy Answer: A QUESTION 9 Which of the following statements best describes a Fan-in Ratio for a SAN attached array? A. The qualified maximum number of HBA ports that can be direct attached to a storage port in a SAN B. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be accessed by a single initiator through a SAN C. The qualified maximum number of HBA ports that can be attached to a Target port in a SAN D. The maximum number of HBA and storage ports that can be contained in a zone in a switch Answer: B QUESTION 10 Which of the following statements best describes TimeFinder/Mirror Clone? A. Uses copy on write B. Uses copy on access C. Requires Symmetrix to be configured with a dedicated "Save Area" for changed data D. Requires Symmetrix to be configured with R1 and R2 devices Answer: B QUESTION 11 In the first step in an SRDF Semi-Synchronous I/O operation, cache of the source Symmetrix receives a write from the host. What is the next step? A. Write complete is sent to the host B. Write transmitted by the Source Symmetrix to the Target Symmetrix

E C. Write received from host into cache of Source Symmetrix D. Target Symmetrix sends acknowledgement to Source Symmetrix Answer: A QUESTION 12 What is the advantage does hard zoning being to a SAN? A. Host-based volume access B. Configuration flexibility C. Security at the switch port level D. Ease of duplication Answer: C QUESTION 13 Exhibit The exhibit above shows the basic architecture of a Centera. Which components are labeled #2 and #3? A. #2 = Access Nodes and #3 = Storage Nodes B. #2 = Switches and #3 = Storage Nodes C. #2 = Access Nodes and #3 = CAG D. #2 = Switches and #3 = Access Nodes Answer: B QUESTION 14 Which of the following is a feature of Connectrix enterprise directors? A. Secure functionality B. Fully redundant components C. Low port count D. Limited hot swappable components Answer: B

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