2. Which of the following functions are accomplished by cell division? a) growth, communication, and development b) growth, repair, and reproduction c) development, communication, and reproduction d) growth, communication, and repair

3. Which of the following functions are accomplished by cell division? a) growth, communication, and development b) growth, repair, and reproduction c) development, communication, and reproduction d) growth, communication, and repair

4. During asexual reproduction, the genetic material of the parent is passed on to the offspring by A) homologous pairing. B) mitosis and cytokinesis. C) meiosis and fertilization. D) meiosis and cytokinesis.

5. During asexual reproduction, the genetic material of the parent is passed on to the offspring by A) homologous pairing. B) mitosis and cytokinesis. C) meiosis and fertilization. D) meiosis and cytokinesis.

6. As the result of normal mitosis, the daughter cells are a) identical to neither the parent cell nor to each other b) genetically identical to each other but not to the parent cell c) genetically identical to the parent cell but not to each other d) genetically identical to the parent cell and to each other

7. As the result of normal mitosis, the daughter cells are a) identical to neither the parent cell nor to each other b) genetically identical to each other but not to the parent cell c) genetically identical to the parent cell but not to each other d) genetically identical to the parent cell and to each other

8. An animal cell with 12 chromosomes undergoes normal mitosis. What is the total number of chromosomes in each of the resulting daughter cells? a) 6 b) 8 c) 12 d) 24

9. An animal cell with 12 chromosomes undergoes normal mitosis. What is the total number of chromosomes in each of the resulting daughter cells? a) 6 b) 8 c) 12 d) 24

10. Asexual reproduction of diploid organisms normally results in new organisms that contain cells with A) fewer chromosomes than are found in the cells of the parent B) the haploid number of chromosomes C) more chromosomes than are found in the cells of the parent D) the diploid number of chromosomes

11. Asexual reproduction of diploid organisms normally results in new organisms that contain cells with A) fewer chromosomes than are found in the cells of the parent B) the haploid number of chromosomes C) more chromosomes than are found in the cells of the parent D) the diploid number of chromosomes

12. Cancer is a disease characterized by the a. uncontrolled cell division of abnormal cells b. limited production of normal fertilized eggs c. unlimited production of abnormal gametes d. reduced cell division of quiescent cells

13. Cancer is a disease characterized by the a. uncontrolled cell division of abnormal cells b. limited production of normal fertilized eggs c. unlimited production of abnormal gametes d. reduced cell division of quiescent cells

14. Which of the following statements is false? A) a typical body cell is called a somatic cell B) gametes are haploid cells C) somatic cells are diploid D) somatic cells are made by meiosis

15. Which of the following statements is false? A) a typical body cell is called a somatic cell B) gametes are haploid cells C) somatic cells are diploid D) somatic cells are made by meiosis

16. Which process must occur before the mitotic phase of the cell cycle begins? A. reformation of the nuclear envelope B. replication of the chromosomes C. cytoplasmic division D. Separation of the sister chromatids

17. Which process must occur before the mitotic phase of the cell cycle begins? A. reformation of the nuclear envelope B. replication of the chromosomes C. cytoplasmic division D. Separation of the sister chromatids

18. Which of the following indicates the types of cells that are produced in humans by meiosis and mitosis? a) body cells (somatic cells ) are produced in both mitosis and meiosis b) body cells are produced in meiosis; gametes in mitosis c) gametes are produced in both meiosis and mitosis d) body cells are produced in mitosis; gametes in meiosis

19. Which of the following indicates the types of cells that are produced in humans by meiosis and mitosis? a) body cells (somatic cells ) are produced in both mitosis and meiosis b) body cells are produced in meiosis; gametes in mitosis c) gametes are produced in both meiosis and mitosis d) body cells are produced in mitosis; gametes in meiosis

20. Prior to cell division, each chromosome replicates or duplicates its genetic material. The products are connected by a centromere and are called: A. sister chromosomes sister chromosomes B. homologous chromosomes homologous chromosomes C. sex chromosomes sex chromosomes D. sister chromatids sister chromatids

21. Prior to cell division, each chromosome replicates or duplicates its genetic material. The products are connected by a centromere and are called: A. B. C. D. sister chromatids sister chromatids

22. What is the correct relationship among DNA, genes and chromosomes? A) A gene contains many chromosomes which are composed of proteins B) A chromosome contains many genes which are composed of DNA C) A gene is composed of proteins which are found on the chromosomes D) A chromosome contains many genes which are composed of proteins

23. What is the correct relationship among DNA, genes and chromosomes? A) A gene contains many chromosomes which are composed of proteins B) A chromosome contains many genes which are composed of DNA C) A gene is composed of proteins which are found on the chromosomes D) A chromosome contains many genes which are composed of proteins

24. Place these stages of the cell cycle in the correct order.

25. C, B, D, A

26. Provide the appropriate NAME for each of these phases of mitosis.

27. A. Telophase leading into cytokinesis B. Metaphase C. Prophase D. Anaphase

28. During which phase of the cell cycle are the sister chromatids fully attached to mitotic spindle and aligned across the center of the cell at the equator. A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Interphase D. Cytokinesis E. Metaphase

29. During which phase of the cell cycle are the sister chromatids fully attached to mitotic spindle and aligned across the center of the cell at the equator. A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Interphase D. Cytokinesis E. Metaphase

30. During which phase of the cell cycle does the cytoplasm divide to produce two separate daughter cells. A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Interphase D. Cytokinesis E. Metaphase

31. During which phase of the cell cycle does the cytoplasm divide to produce two separate daughter cells. A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Interphase D. Cytokinesis E. Metaphase

32. During which phase of the cell cycle is the DNA replicated to produce sister chromatids attached at a centromere. A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Interphase D. Cytokinesis E. Metaphase

33. During which phase of the cell cycle is the DNA replicated to produce sister chromatids attached at a centromere. A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Interphase D. Cytokinesis E. Metaphase

34. During which phase of the cell cycle are the sister chromatids pulled apart and moved toward opposite sides of the cell by the mitotic spindle. A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Interphase D. Cytokinesis E. Metaphase

35. During which phase of the cell cycle are the sister chromatids pulled apart and moved toward opposite sides of the cell by the mitotic spindle. A. Prophase B. Anaphase C. Interphase D. Cytokinesis E. Metaphase

36. During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells checked for complete and accurate DNA replication. A. G 1 to S checkpoint B. G 2 to M checkpoint C. Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint D. A and B.

37. During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells checked for complete and accurate DNA replication. A. G 1 to S checkpoint B. G 2 to M checkpoint C. Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint D. A and B.

38. During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells checked for complete attachment of all sister chromatids to the mitotic spindle via their kinetochores. A. G 1 to S checkpoint B. G 2 to M checkpoint C. Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint D. A and B.

39. During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells checked for complete attachment of all sister chromatids to the mitotic spindle via their kinetochores. A. G 1 to S checkpoint B. G 2 to M checkpoint C. Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint D. A and B.

40. During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells checked for appropriate cell size. A. G 1 to S checkpoint B. G 2 to M checkpoint C. Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint D. A and B.

41. During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells checked for appropriate cell size. A. G 1 to S checkpoint B. G 2 to M checkpoint C. Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint D. A and B.

42. During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells checked for DNA damage. A. G 1 to S checkpoint B. G 2 to M checkpoint C. Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint D. A and B.

43. During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells checked for DNA damage. A. G 1 to S checkpoint B. G 2 to M checkpoint C. Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint D. A and B.

44. During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells checked for alignment of the sister chromatids across the equator on a line equidistant from the two poles. A. G 1 to S checkpoint B. G 2 to M checkpoint C. Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint D. A and B.

45. During which cell cycle checkpoint are the cells checked for alignment of the sister chromatids across the equator on a line equidistant from the two poles. A. G 1 to S checkpoint B. G 2 to M checkpoint C. Metaphase to anaphase checkpoint D. A and B.

46. Which of the following statements is TRUE. A. Cancer cells exhibit density-dependent inhibition and therefore will only grow one cell layer deep in culture. B. All normal cells have a characteristic rounded shape, while cancer cells tend to be more stretched out and irregular in their shape. C. The majority of cancer cells are in a G 0 phase of quiescence. D. Normal cells spend approximately 80-90% of their time in the interphase portion of the cell cycle.

47. Which of the following statements is TRUE. A. Cancer cells exhibit density-dependent inhibition and therefore will only grow one cell layer deep in culture. B. All normal cells have a characteristic rounded shape, while cancer cells tend to be more stretched out and irregular in their shape. C. The majority of cancer cells are in a G 0 phase of quiescence. D. Normal cells spend approximately 80-90% of their time in the interphase portion of the cell cycle.

48. Which of the following statements is TRUE. A. Normal cells are usually aneuploid and cancer cells are usually diploid. B. Normal cells will frequently grow several cell layers deep, since they do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition. C. Normal cells have a defined and distinct shape that reflects their normal cellular function, whereas cancer cells are frequently smaller and rounded in appearance. D. Cancer cells are more dependent on growth factors and other external signals than normal cells are.

49. Which of the following statements is TRUE. A. Normal cells are usually aneuploid and cancer cells are usually diploid. B. Normal cells will frequently grow several cell layers deep, since they do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition. C. Normal cells have a defined and distinct shape that reflects their normal cellular function, whereas cancer cells are frequently smaller and rounded in appearance. D. Cancer cells are more dependent on growth factors and other external signals than normal cells are.

50. Any change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called A) an advantage B) codon. C) a mutation. D) an anticodon

51. Any change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called A) an advantage B) codon. C) a mutation. D) an anticodon

52. A physical or chemical agent that changes the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called a) an anticodon b) a terminator c) a transposon d) a mutagen.

53. A physical or chemical agent that changes the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called a) an anticodon b) a terminator c) a transposon d) a mutagen.

54. Which of the following is not an effect of a mutation? A) prevents a protein from forming B) lowers the amount of a protein C) adds a function to a protein D) any of the above can occur

55. Which of the following is not an effect of a mutation? A) prevents a protein from forming B) lowers the amount of a protein C) adds a function to a protein D) any of the above can occur

56. A spontaneous mutation usually originates as an error in A) DNA replication. B) DNA transcription C) translation. D) reverse transcription.

57. A spontaneous mutation usually originates as an error in A) DNA replication. B) DNA transcription C) translation. D) reverse transcription.

58. True or False? A mutation always causes a mutant phenotype. A) true B) false C) cannot be determined

59. True or False? A mutation always causes a mutant phenotype. A) true B) false C) cannot be determined

60. Which of the following are known to be carcinogenic (cancer causing) mutagens. A) UV radiation from the sun B) X-rays C) Certain chemical compounds D) All of the above

61. Which of the following are known to be carcinogenic (cancer causing) mutagens. A) UV radiation from the sun B) X-rays C) Certain chemical compounds D) All of the above

62. Which of the following statements is TRUE. A) Oncogenes are activated by mutations to become cancer-causing proto-oncogenes. B) The normal cellular function of tumor suppressor genes is to stimulate progression of the cell cycle. C) Oncogenes act to slow down the cell cycle. D) Cancer causing mutations in tumor suppressor genes are usually recessive, meaning that both alleles of the gene must be mutated for an effect to be observed.

63. Which of the following statements is TRUE. A) Oncogenes are activated by mutations to become cancer-causing proto-oncogenes. B) The normal cellular function of tumor suppressor genes is to stimulate progression of the cell cycle. C) Oncogenes act to slow down the cell cycle. D) Cancer causing mutations in tumor suppressor genes are usually recessive, meaning that both alleles of the gene must be mutated for an effect to be observed.

64. Which of the following is a tumor suppressor gene known to be inactivated in approximately 50% of identified cancers. A) Rb. B) p53. C) Ras. D) Cyclins.

65. Which of the following is a tumor suppressor gene known to be inactivated in approximately 50% of identified cancers. A) Rb. B) p53. C) Ras. D) Cyclins.

66. Which of the following statements is FALSE. A) Oncogenes frequently result from mutations in normal cellular genes that regulate the cell cycle called “proto-oncogenes”. B) Oncogenes can be activated by certain viral infections. C) Cancer causing mutations in proto-oncogenes genes are usually recessive, meaning that both alleles of the gene must be mutated for an effect to be observed. D) Mutant oncogenes act as a “gas pedal” driving continuous cell division.

67. Which of the following statements is FALSE. A) Oncogenes frequently result from mutations in normal cellular genes that regulate the cell cycle called “proto-oncogenes”. B) Oncogenes can be activated by certain viral infections. C) Cancer causing mutations in proto-oncogenes genes are usually recessive, meaning that both alleles of the gene must be mutated for an effect to be observed. D) Mutant oncogenes act as a “gas pedal” driving continuous cell division.

68. Which of the following is a tumor suppressor gene involved in regulating entry into S- phase. A) Rb. B) p53. C) CDKs (Cyclin Dependent Kinases). D) Cyclins. E) A and B F) C and D

69. Which of the following is a tumor suppressor gene involved in regulating entry into S- phase. A) Rb. B) p53. C) CDKs (Cyclin Dependent Kinases). D) Cyclins. E) A and B F) C and D

70. Which of the following is a proto-oncogene involved in promoting entry into S-phase. A) Rb. B) p53. C) CDKs (Cyclin Dependent Kinases). D) Cyclins. E) A and B F) C and D

71. Which of the following is a proto-oncogene involved in promoting entry into S-phase. A) Rb. B) p53. C) CDKs (Cyclin Dependent Kinases). D) Cyclins. E) A and B F) C and D