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Psychology is commonly defined as: a. The study of behavior b. The study of the mind c. The study of behavior and mental processes d. The study of early.

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Presentation on theme: "Psychology is commonly defined as: a. The study of behavior b. The study of the mind c. The study of behavior and mental processes d. The study of early."— Presentation transcript:

1 Psychology is commonly defined as: a. The study of behavior b. The study of the mind c. The study of behavior and mental processes d. The study of early childhood c. The study of behavior and mental processes

2 Which of the following are the goals of psychology? a. Describe, manipulate, control and examine behavior b. Describe, explain, predict and change behavior c. Predict, control, examine and change behavior d. Manipulate, control, explain and change behavior b. Describe, explain, predict and change behavior

3 Psychology often questions to what extent we are controlled by biological and genetic factors or by the environment and learning. This ongoing debate is known as the _____. a. Nature vs. Nurture controversy b. Mind vs. Body Dualism c. Interactionist position d. Biopsychosocial Model A. Nature-Nurture Controversy

4 Applied research is conducted to study __________. A) How people apply knowledge in an educational setting B) Theoretical questions that may or may not have real-world applications C) The goals of psychology D) A specific real-world problem D. A specific real-world problem

5 The experimental group, in an experiment, is the group in which the participants _____. A. Do not receive the independent variable B. Receive the dependent variable C. Do not receive the DV D. Receive the IV

6 The total of all possible cases from which a sample is selected is called the __________. a. subject pool b. population c. selection group d. control group B) population

7 The first step in the scientific method is _____. A. Forming a testable hypothesis B. Developing a theory C. Reviewing the literature of existing theories D. Designing a study C. Reviewing the literature of existing theories

8 The ______ variable is the variable that is measured. a. Independent b. Intervening c. Controlled d. Dependent D) Dependent

9 The tendency of experimenters to influence the results of their experiment in an expected direction is called ____. A) Experimenter bias B) Control bias C) Observational bias D) Experimental bias A) Experimenter bias

10 A hypothesis is derived from a ______. a. idea b. research paper c. brainstorming d. theory D) theory

11 A procedure to ensure that each individual has the same probability as any other of being in a given group is called _____. A. Random selection B. Random assignment C. Representative selection D. Representative assignment B. Random assignment

12 Cells within your body specialized for conducting information are called ____? a. Dendrites b. Neurons c. Axons d. Nucleotides b. Neurons

13 The three major parts of a neuron are ____. a. Glia, dendrites, and myelin b. Myelin, dendrites, and axon c. Dendrites, axon and cell body d. Axon, glia, and myelin c. Dendrites, axon and cell body

14 The ____ consists of all the nerves that connect to sensory receptors and control skeletal muscles a. Parasympathetic nervous system b. Spinal cord c. Somatic nervous system d. Action potential c. Somatic nervous system

15 ___ provide structural, nutritional, and other support for the neuron, as well as some communication functions a. Dendrites b. Axons c. Nurturing bodies d. Glial cells

16 Chemical messengers that are secreted into the synapse are called ____. a. Ions b. Neurotransmitters c. Neurocommunicators d. Neuromodulators b. Neurotransmitters

17 The synapse is the point where ____. a. The soma attaches to the dendrite b. Neurotransmitters are manufactured c. Information transfers from neuron to neuron d. The action potential begins c. Information transfers from neuron to neuron

18 If you are accidentally hit on the head and you see flashes of light, most likely the blow activated cells in the ____. a. Frontal lobes b. Temporal lobes c. Occipital lobes d. Parietal lobes c. Occipital lobes

19 The frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal lobes make up the ____ a. Brain b. Cerebral cortex c. Subcortex d. Brain stem b. Cerebral cortex

20 The major divisions of the central nervous system are ___. a. Sympathetic and parasympathetic b. Somatic and autonomic c. Gray matter and white matter d. Brain and spinal cord

21 The parasympathetic nervous system is dominant when a person is ___. a. Stressed b. Relaxed c. Frightened d. Angry b. Relaxed

22 The parasympathetic and sympathetic are the major divisions of the ____ nervous system a. Automatic b. Somatic c. Central d. Autonomic

23 The principle whereby an axon either fires or does not fire an action potential is called the _____ a. Sodium-potassium b. Axon terminal c. Shotgun d. All-or-none law

24 Damage to the medulla can lead to loss of ____. a. Vision b. Respiration c. Hearing d. Smell b. Respiration

25 The cerebellum, the thalamus, and the hypothalamus are all ____. a. Lower-level brain structures b. Cortical areas c. Brain stem areas d. Spinal cord areas a. Lower-level brain structures

26 Split-brain research has indicated that, in most people, the left hemisphere is largely responsible for _____ abilities a. Musical b. Spatial c. Artistic d. Language

27 Neurons are the basic units in the _____. a. Nervous system b. Synapses c. Dendrites d. Body a. Nervous system

28 The _____ of light determines its hue, and the _____ determines its brightness. a. Wavelength; amplitude b. Pitch; wavelength c. Timbre; amplitude d. Wavelength; frequency a. wavelength; amplitude

29 The process of receiving, transducing, and transmitting information from the outside world is called _____. a. Perception b. Detection c. Sensation d. integration c. Sensation

30 The receptors in the eye responsible for daylight and color vision are the _____ a. Rods b. Cones c. Cilia d. Cornea b. Cones

31 The receptors in the eye responsible for dim light vision are the _____. a. Rods b. Cones c. Cilia d. Cornea a. Rods

32 The frequency of a sound wave is sensed as the _____ of a sound. a. Pitch b. Intensity c. Loudness d. Height a. Pitch

33 Which of the following is the most fundamental Gestalt principles of organization? a. Roundness b. Isolation c. Symmetry d. Figure and ground

34 Monocular and binocular are two categories of _____. a. Depth perception b. Size adaptations c. Perceptual constancies d. Visual corrections a. Depth perception

35 The _____ theory of color vision states that there are three systems of color opposites (blue-yellow, red- green and black-white) a. Trichromatic b. Opponent-process c. Tri-receptor d. Lock-and-key b. Opponent-process

36 A readiness to perceive in a particular manner, based on expectations, is known as _____. a. Trichromatic Theory b. Stereotype threat c. Perceptual set d. All of the above c. Perceptual set

37 The conversion of stimulus energy into neural impulses is called _____. a. Coding b. Transduction c. Tranference d. Reception b. transduction

38 Light travels through the cornea on to the _____. a. Pupil, lens, and retina b. Lens, pupil, and retina c. Vitreous humor, aqueous humor, and retina d. Retina on the back of the lens a. pupil, lens, and retina

39 _____ is the process that occurs when your visual system shifts from cones to rods upon entering a dark room a. Light adaptation b. Sensory adaptation c. Dark adaptation d. Accommodation c. Dark adaptation

40 _____ results from stimulation of receptor cells in the nose. a. Audition b. Pheromones c. Olfaction d. Vestibular sense c. olfaction

41 _____ are false impressions of the environment. a. Hallucinations b. Delusions c. Illusions d. Visual constancies c. illusions

42 _____ are sensory perceptions that occur without external stimuli. a. Hallucinations b. Delusions c. Illusions d. Visual constancies a. hallucinations

43 Specialized cells in the brain that respond only to certain sensory information are known as _____. a. Visual constancies b. Retinal disparity c. Convergence d. Feature detectors

44 When you look at a chair from the back or front, it looks like a rectangle. However, when you see it from the side, it has an “h” shape, but you still recognize it as a chair because of _____. a. Sensory adaptation b. Shape constancy c. Size constancy d. Sensory habituation b. Shape constancy

45 _____ is an organism’s awareness of its own self and surroundings. a. Awareness b. Consciousness c. Alertness d. Central processing b. consciousness

46 _____ processes are mental activities that require minimal attention, without affecting other activities. a. Controlled b. Peripheral c. Conscious d. Automatic

47 Biological rhythms that occur on a 24-hour cycle are called _____. a. Circadian rhythms b. Synchronisms c. Diurnal circuits d. Noctural transmissions a. Circadian rhythms

48 The _____ theory says that sleep allows us to replenish what was depleted during daytime activities. a. Repair/restoration b. Evolutionary/circadian c. Supply/demand d. Conservation of energy a. repair/restoration

49 Insomnia occurs when you persistently _____. a. Have difficulty staying awake b. Go to sleep too early c. Awake too early d. All of the above c. Awake too early

50 _____ is a disease marked by sudden and irresistible onsets of sleep during normal waking hours. a. Dyssomnia b. Parasomnia c. Narcolepsy d. Sleep apnea c. Narcolepsy

51 A chemical that blocks the action of a neurotransmitter is called a/an _____. a. Synaptic inhibitor b. Antagonist c. Alternator d. Receptor-blocker b. Antagonist

52 A mental desire or craving to achieve the effects produced by a drug is known as _____. a. Withdrawal effects b. Dependency c. Psychological dependence d. Physical dependence c. Psychological dependence

53 Requiring larger and more frequent doses of a drug to produce a desired effect is characteristic of _____. a. Withdrawal b. Tolerance c. Psychoactive dependence d. All of the above b. Tolerance

54 Which of the following drugs is a central nervous system stimulant? a. Amphetamine b. Alcohol c. Heroin d. Barbiturates a. amphetamine

55 Which of the following is NOT classified as a hallucinogen? a. Mescaline b. Psilocybin c. Amphetamines d. LSD c. Amphetamines

56 _____ drugs produce sensory distortions or perceptual illusions. a. Stimulants b. Opiates c. Depressants d. Hallucinogens

57 EEG is the abbreviation for _____, which is used to record brain waves. a. Electrical emissions graph b. Electroencephalograph c. Electro-energy grams d. Even elephants get grumpy b. Electroencephalograph

58 Your breathing is regular, your heart rate and blood pressure are slowing, and you can be awakened easily. It is most likely that you are in _____. a. A hypnogogic transition between wakefulness and sleep b. A daydreaming state c. Stage 1 sleep d. Stage 2 sleep c. Stage 1 sleep

59 A relatively permanent change in behavior as a result of practice or experience is the definition of ___. a. Learning b. Conditioning c. Behavior modification d. Modeling a. Learning

60 When your mouth waters at the sight of a chocolate cake, it is an example of ____. a. Operant conditioning b. Social learning c. Vicarious conditioning d. Classical conditioning

61 Suppose a boy learns to fear bees by being stung when he touches a bee. In this situation the unconditioned STIMULUS is the ____. a. Bee b. Sting c. Fear d. Crying b. Sting

62 Suppose a boy learns to fear bees by being stung when he touches a bee. In this situation the unconditioned RESPONSE is the ____. a. Bee b. Sting c. Fear d. Crying c. Fear

63 Which of the following is the proper sequence of events in classical conditioning? a. UCS-CS-UCR b. CS-UCS-UCR c. UCR-UCS-CS d. UCR-CS-UCS b. CS-UCS-UCR

64 Higher order conditioning occurs when an____. a. Previously neutral stimulus elicits a conditioned response b. Neutral stimulus is paired with a previously conditioned stimulus c. Neutral stimulus is paired with unconditioned stimulus d. Unconditioned response is paired with a conditioned stimulus b. Neutral stimulus is paired with a conditioned stimulus

65 In classical conditioning, extinction occurs when the ____. a. Conditioned stimulus is no longer paired with the unconditioned response b. Conditioned response is no longer paired with the unconditioned stimulus c. Conditioned response is no longer paired with the unconditioned stimulus d. Unconditioned stimulus is ambiguous b. Conditioned response is no longer paired with the unconditioned stimulus

66 Anything that causes an increase in a response is a ___. a. Conditioned stimulus b. Reinforcement c. Punishment d. Unconditioned stimulus b. Reinforcement

67 Anything that causes a decrease in a response is a/an ____. a. Conditioned stimulus b. Reinforcement c. Punishment d. Unconditioned stimulus c. Punishment

68 Negative reinforcement and punishment are ____. a. The same b. The best ways to learn a new behavior c. Not the same because negative reinforcement increases behavior and punishment decreases behavior d. Not the same, even though they both decrease behavior c. Not the same because negative reinforcement increases behavior and punishment decreases behavior

69 Superstitious behavior occurs because ___. a. It has been reinforced on a fixed ratio schedule b. The person or animal thinks the behavor causes a reinforcer when in reality the behavior and the reinforcement are not connected c. It is reinforced on a random ration schedule d. The behavior and the reinforcement come close in proximity to one another, causing the superstitious behavior to increase in magnitude b. The person or animal thinks the behavior causes a reinforcer when in reality the behavior and the reinforcement are not connected

70 In Pavlov’s classical conditioning experiments with dogs, salivation was the ____. a. Unconditioned stimulus (UCS) b. Conditioned stimulus (CS) c. Unconditioned reponse (UCR) d. Both b and c c. Unconditioned reponse (UCR)

71 Albert Bandura’s social learning theory emphasized ____. a. Classical conditioning b. Operant conditioning c. Extinction d. Modeling

72 In Watson and Rayners experiment, what was the conditioned emotional response (CER)? a. Avoidance behavior b. Superstitious behavior c. Fear d. None of the above c. Fear

73 In Watson and Rayner’s experiment, what was the conditioned stimulus? a. The sight if the experimental room b. A loud noise c. A rabbit d. A rat

74 Spontaneous recovery occurs when ___ suddenly appears a. Your lost wallet b. A previously extinguished response c. An extinct instinct d. A forgotten stimulus- response sequence b. A previously extinguished response

75 Children may learn to salivate to McDonalds golden arches as a result of a. Advertising b. Classical conditioning c. Higher-order conditioning d. All of the above

76 Operant conditioning is an example of ___ in action a. Thorndikes law of effect b. Skinners law of reinforcement c. Watsons rule of punishment d. Pavlovs theory of stimulus-response a. Thorndikes law of effect

77 ____ are unlearned, usually satisfy a biological need, and increase the probability of a response a. Primary instincts b. Secondary instincts c. Primary reinforcers d. Secondary reinforcers c. Primary reinforcers

78 Observational learning theory suggests that we learn many behaviors by ____. a. Imitating others b. Observing our inner processes c. Teaching others d. Shaping our own and others behaviors a. Imitating others

79 In Albert Bandura’s classic bobo doll study, children acted aggressively because ____. a. They were rewarded for their behavior b. Of observational learning c. They were positively punished d. All of these options b. Of observational learning

80 Maintenance rehearsal _______ a. Prevents motivated forgetting b. Prevents chunking c. Reenters information in sensory memory d. Reenters information in STM c. Reenters information in sensory memory

81 Which of the following is a recognition test of memory? a. Remembering a name that goes with a face b. A multiple choice test c. An essay test d. Reciting the names of the state capitals b. A multiple choice test

82 You notice that you tend to do better on exam questions from the first and last of each chapter. The most likely explanation is the ____. a. Anterograde amnesia effect b. Problem of distribute practice c. Serial position effect d. Sleeper effect c. Serial position effect

83 Short-term memory receives information from sensory memory and from ____. a. Long term memory b. Working memory c. The perceptual processing network d. Maintenance rehearsal a. Long term memory

84 The process that allows us to store more information in short-term memory by grouping information into units is called ____. a. Maintenance b. Collective organization c. Chunking d. Proximal closure c. Chunking

85 To increase the duration and capacity of you STM you should try ____. a. Maintenance rehearsal b. Chunking c. Constructive process d. All of the above b. Chunking

86 The ____ effect suggests that people will recall information presented at the beginning and the end of a list better than information from the middle of the list. a. Recency b. Serial position c. Latency d. Primacy b. Serial position

87 This type of anxiety is associated with a generalized anxiety disorder a. Phobia b. Free-floating c. Panic attack d. Nervous breakdown b. Free-floating

88 Repetitive, ritualistic behaviors such as handwashing, counting, or putting things in order that are associated with an anxiety state are called ____. a. Obsessions b. Compulsions c. Ruminations d. Phobias b. Compulsions

89 A major difference between major depressive and bipolar disorder is that only in bipolar disorders do people have ____. a. Hallucinations or delusions b. Depression c. A biochemical imbalance d. Manic episodes

90 This is NOT a possible explanation for depression a. Imbalances of serotonin and norepinephrine b. Genetic predisposition c. Lithium deficiency d. Learned helplessness c. Lithium deficiency

91 Hallucinations and delusions are symptoms of ____. a. Mood disorders b. Personality disorders c. Anxiety disorders d. Schizophrenia

92 Family studies have shown that when it comes to schizophrenia, children are more similar to their ____. a. Biological parents than their adopted parents b. Adopted parents than their biological parents c. Friends than their families d. Aunts/uncles than their brothers/sisters a. Biological parents than their adoptive parents

93 Antipsychotic drugs can decrease the symptoms of schizophrenia by decreasing the activity of ____. a. Dopamine synapses b. Serotonin synapses c. The frontal lobes d. The autonomic nervous system a. Dopamine synapses

94 Amnesia, fugue, and dissociative identity disorder share this characteristic. a. A separation of experience and memory b. Psychosis c. A split personality d. Wandering away from home or work a. A separation of experience and memory

95 Multiple personality disorder is now called ____. a. Schizophrenia b. Dissociative identity disorder c. Amnesiatic personality disorder d. None of these options; this diagnosis is no longer considered real b. Dissociative identity disorder

96 Impulsive behavior, egocentrism, lack of conscience, and ____ are all characteristic of an antisocial personality disorder. a. Manipulation of others b. Lack of social skills c. Sympathy for victims d. Lack of intelligence a. Manipulation of others

97 Impulsivity and instability in mood, relationships, and self-image are part of the ____ personality disorder. a. Manic depressive b. Bipolar c. Borderline d. None of the above c. Borderline

98 People with ____ frequently have a childhood history of neglect and abuse, and as adults tend to see themselves and everyone else in absolutes. a. Dissociative identity disorder b. Schizophrenia c. Generalized anxiety disorder d. Borderline personality disorder d. Borderline Personality disorder

99 In ____ disorder, the individual suffers brief attacks of intense apprehension. a. Phobic b. Posttraumatic stress c. Panic d. Dissociative fugue c. Panic

100 According to ____ theory, modeling and imitation may be the causes of some phobia. a. Social learning b. Psychobiological c. Sociocultural d. Cognitive-behavioral a. Social Learning

101 Distorted thinking that magnifies ordinary threats or failures is the ____ explanation for anxiety disorders. a. Social learning b. Cognitive c. Humanistic d. Psychoanalytic b. Cognitive

102 Mood disorders are sometimes treated by ____ drug, which affect the amount or functioning of norepinephrine and serotonin. a. Antidepressants b. Antipsychotics c. Mood congruence d. None of the above a. Antidepressants

103 Internal, stable, and global attributions for failure or unpleasant circumstances are associated with ____. a. Anxiety disorders b. Delusional disorders c. Depression d. All of these options c. Depression

104 Auditory hallucinations are most common in ____. a. Schizophrenia b. Posttraumatic stress disorder c. Bipolar disorder d. Dissociative identity disorder a. Schizophrenia

105 Believing you are the queen of England or Jesus Christ would be a symptom called ____. a. Hallucinations b. Mania c. Delusions d. All of these options c. Delusions

106 Delusions, hallucinations and disorganized speech are ____ symptoms of schizophrenia. a. Negative b. Positive c. Deficit d. Undifferentiated b. Positive

107 The frontal and temporal lobes appear to be less active in some people with ____. a. Dissociative identity disorder b. Personality disorder c. Schizophrenia d. All of these options c. Schizophrenia

108 The prognosis for some people with schizophrenia is better in ____. a. Nonindustrialized societies b. Families with expressed emotionality c. Stressful situations d. None of these options a. Nonindustrialized societies

109 ____ therapies act directly on the brain and nervous system; whereas ____ is a collection of techniques to improve psychological functioning and promote adjustment to life. a. Drug; psychoanalysis b. Medical; psychology c. Biomedical; psychotherapy d. None of the above c. Biomedical; psychotherapy

110 ____ create feelings of tranqulity and relaxation, while also relieving muscle tension. ____ create feelings of tranqulity and relaxation, while also relieving muscle tension. a. ECT treatments b. Anxiety drugs c. Trephining d. All of the above b. Anxiety drugs

111 How do antipsychotic drugs, like thorazine work? a. They sedate the patient b. They appear to decrease activity at the dopamine synapses They lower the sympathetic activity of the brain c. All of the above b. They appear to decrease activity at the dopamine synapses

112 ECT is now used primarily in the treatment of ____. a. Depression b. Anxiety c. Phobias d. Schizophrenia a. Depression

113 The original form of psychosurgery developed by Egaz Moniz disconnected the ____ lobes from the midbrain structures where emotional experiences are relayed. a. Occipital b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Frontal

114 Tardive dyskinesia is thought to be a side effect of treatment with ____ medication a. Mood-altering b. Psychoactive c. Antianxiety d. Antipsychotic

115 Catharsis is the ____. a. Reporting of psychic contents without censorship b. Release of tensions and anxieties c. Attachment process that occurs between patient and therapist d. Therapist’s educated explanations for a patient’s behavior b. Release of tensions and anxieties

116 In psychoanalytic dream interpretation, the actual events of the dream are known as the ____ content a. Manifest b. Latent c. Subconscious d. Transference a. Manifest

117 Free association and dream interpretation are psychoanalytic therapy techniques that are used to ____. a. Analyze intrapsychic conflicts b. Keep unconscious conflicts out of awareness c. Restructure the self-concept d. Counter condition behavior a. Analyze intrapsychic conflicts

118 In ____, mistaken beliefs or misconceptions are actively disputed a. Client-centered therapy b. Psychoanalysis c. Rational-emotive therapy d. Systematic desensitization c. Rational-emotive therapy

119 According to rational-emotive therapy, consequence such as depression or anxiety occurs as a result of a (n) ____. a. Activating experience b. Stimulus event c. Conditioning experience d. Belief

120 A client-centered therapist emphasizes the importance of empathy, unconditional positive regard, genuineness and ____. a. Catharsis b. Self-efficacy c. Appropriate role models d. Active listening

121 Sharing another persons inner experience is known as ____. a. Unconditional positive regard b. Genuineness c. Empathy d. Sympathy c. Empathy

122 ____ pairs relaxation with a graduating hierarchy of anxiety- producing situations to extinguish the anxiety. a. Classical conditioning b. Shaping c. Systematic desensitization d. Maslow’s pyramid training c. Systematic desensitization

123 Aversion therapy applies the principle of ____ by pairing an unpleasant stimulus with a maladaptive behavior to extinguish the behavior a. Classical conditioning b. Operant conditioning c. Positive punishment d. Negative punishment a. Classical conditioning

124 Therapists might use ____ to teach clients to stand up for themselves. a. Time out b. Aversion therapy c. Assertiveness training d. Token economics c. Assertiveness training

125 Asking clients with snake phobias to watch other (nonphobic) people handle snakes is an example ____ therapy a. Time out b. Aversion c. Modeling d. Unethical c. Modeling

126 Which of the following may actually alter brain functioning? a. Electroconvulsive therapy b. Drug therapy c. Psychotherapy d. All of these options

127 Disturbed behaviors are most likely to be the focus in ____. a. Cognitive therapy b. Biomedical therapy c. Psychoanalysis d. Behavior therapy

128 When a therapist combines techniques from various therapies, it is called ____. a. Psychosynthetic therapy b. Biomedical therapy c. Managed care d. The eclectic approach

129 To treat schizophrenia, therapists most commonly use ____ drugs. a. Antidepressant b. Antipsychotic c. Antianxiety d. None of the above b. Antipsychotic

130 Someone with severe, vegetative depression and suicidal ideation that has not been successfully managed with other treatment methods might require ____. a. Frontal lobotomy b. ECT c. Combination drug and modeling therapy d. None of these options b. ECT

131 Transference is the process of ____. a. Changing therapists b. Changing therapeutic techniques or strategies c. Displacing associations from past relationships onto new relationships d. Replacing maladaptive patterns with adaptive ones c. Displacing associations from past relationships onto new relationships

132 Someone with severe, vegetative depression and suicidal ideation that has not been successfully managed with other treatment methods might require ____. a. Frontal lobotomy b. ECT c. Combination drug and modeling therapy d. None of these options b. ECT

133 Cognitive therapy is effective for treating ____. a. Depression b. Anxiety c. Eating and substance-related disorders d. All of these options

134 The client is responsible for discovering his or her own maladaptive patterns in____ therapy. a. Biomedical b. Psychoanalytic c. Humanistic d. All of these options c. Humanistic

135 Reflecting back or paraphrasing what the client is saying is part of ____. a. Gestalt directness b. Psychoanalytic transference c. Cognitive restructuring d. Active listening

136 Relaxation training is an important component in ____. a. Systematic desensitization b. Aversion conditioning c. Time out training d. A token economy a. Systematic desensitization


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