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Psychological Science is Born

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2 Psychological Science is Born
Wundt and psychology’s first graduate students studied the “atoms of the mind” by conducting experiments at Leipzig, Germany, in 1879. This work is considered the birth of psychology as we know it today. Preview Question 1: How did the science of psychology develop? Pronounced “voont” December 1879 Measure time between hearing a ball drop and hitting a telegraph key Psychophysics-Relationships between physical stimuli & changes in our psychological experience. Attempting to measure “atoms of the mind” – the fastest and simplest mental processes Philosopher and physiologists 1? 98. The first area of psychology to be studied as a science is known as (AP99) (A) Psychoanalysis (B) Phrenology (C) Classical conditioning (D) Mesmerism (E) Psychophysics Wundt ( )

3 Psychological Science Develops
Behaviorists Ivan Pavlov a Russian Physiologist, James Watson and Skinner were all instrumental in developing the science of psychology and emphasized behavior instead of mind or mental thoughts. From 1920 to 1960, psychology in the US was heavily oriented towards behaviorism. Watson, a professor at Johns Hopkins said that psychologists should ignore mental events Dismissed introspection, defined psychology as “scientific study of observable behavior.” Watson baby Albert, Skinner superstitious pigeon. Science rooted in observation 20’s-60’s Which of the following approaches to psychology emphasizes observable responses over inner experiences when accounting for behavior? (AP94) (A) Behaviorist (B) Cognitive (C) Existentialist (D) Psychodynamic (E) Structuralist 1 66. Early behaviorists believed that psychology should not focus on “the mind” because “the mind” is (AP04) (A)Too complex (B)Genetically determined (C)Largely unconscious (D)Unobservable (E)Environmentally determined 2 or John B. Watson was a pioneer in which of the following perspectives of psychology? (AP04) (A)Biological (B)Functionalism (C)Psychoanalytic (D)Structuralism (E)Behaviorism Skinner ( ) Watson ( ) Watson and later Skinner emphasized the study of overt behavior as the subject matter of scientific psychology.

4 Survey Random Sampling
If the survey sample is biased, its results are not valid Important to avoid sampling errors. Watch out for convenience samples. 2 16. Drawing a random sample of people from a town for an interview study of social attitudes ensures that (AP99) (A) Each person in town has the same probability of being chosen for the study (B) An equal number of males and females are selected for interviews (C) The study includes at least some respondents from every social class in town (D) The study will uncover widely differing social attitudes among the respondents (E) The sample will be large enough even though some people may refuse to be interviewed If each member of a population has an equal chance of inclusion into a sample, it is called a random sample (unbiased). The fastest way to know about the marble color ratio is to blindly transfer a few into a smaller jar and count them.

5 (positive or negative)
Correlation When one trait or behavior accompanies another, we say the two correlate. Weakness, no cause and effect 2 27. Which of the following would be used to measure the relationship between age and reaction time? (AP04) (A)Correlation (B)Central tendency (C)A histogram (D)Standard deviation (E)A t test 2 70. Which of the following is evidence of the reliability of a new intelligence test? (AP04) (A)A correlation of exists between scores on the new test and scores on the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (B)The test predicts student’s ability to succeed in college (C)The correlation between scores for identical twins taking the test is +0.90 (D)Baseline data for test norming are obtained from a diverse sample of several thousand participants (E)The correlation between scores of participants who take two forms of the test is +0.90 Indicates strength of relationship (0.00 to 1.00) Correlation coefficient r = + 0.37 Correlation Coefficient is a statistical measure of the relationship between two variables. Indicates direction of relationship (positive or negative)

6 Experimentation Experimentation is the backbone of psychological research. Experiments isolate causes and their effects. Preview Question 11: How do experiments clarify or reveal cause-effect relationships? 2 53. The most distinctive characteristic of the experimental method is that it (AP99) (A) Studies a few people in great depth (B) Studies subjects in their natural environment (C) Is an efficient way to discover how people feel (D) Seeks to establish cause-effect relationships (E) Provides a chronological basis for reaching conclusions 2 31. Of the following research methods, which can best establish a cause and effect relationship? (AP04) (A)Naturalistic observation (B)A survey (C)A test (D)A case study (E)An experiment

7 Exploring Cause & Effect
Many factors influence our behavior. Experiments (1) manipulate factors that interest us, while other factors are kept under (2) control. Effects generated by manipulated factors isolate cause and effect relationships. 2 18. The control group in the experiment is the group that (AP94) (A) The researchers thought would be most aggressive (B) Performed the larger number of aggressive acts (C) Performed the smaller number of aggressive acts (D) Watched the violent cartoon (E) Watched the nonviolent cartoon

8 Double-blind Procedure
Evaluating Therapies Double-blind Procedure In evaluating drug therapies, patients and experimenter’s assistants should remain unaware of which patients had the real treatment and which patients had the placebo treatment. Watch out for confounding variables Remove experimenter bias 2 68. A double-blind control is essential for which of the following? (AP99) (A) A study comparing the IQ test scores of children from different educational systems (B) A study of relationships among family members (C) An experiment to determine the effect of a food reward on the bar-pressing rate of a rat (D) Assessment of a treatment designed to reduce schizophrenic symptoms (E) A survey of drug use among teenagers Neither the participant nor the research assistant knows whether the participant is receiving the treatment or a placebo

9 Independent Variable IV
An independent variable is a factor manipulated by the experimenter. The effect of the independent variable is the focus of the study. For example, when examining the effects of breast feeding upon intelligence, breast feeding is the independent variable. IV "I" am the experimenter, so "I" manipulate the variables. Questions refer to the following study. A student hypothesizes that high school student’s consuming different flavors of a drink before a spelling test will perform differently. A study to test the hypothesis finds that with a bitter drink, performance is best 6 hours after drinking it, whereas with a sweet drink, performance is better one hour after drinking it. 2 96. Which of the following are the independent variables? (AP04) (A)Test scores and high school students (B)Test scores and time of consumption (C)Flavor of drink and time of consumption (D)Flavor of drink and high school students (E)Flavor of drink and test scores 2 97. Which of the following is the dependent variable? (AP04) (A)Flavor of drink (B)Participant’s spelling scores (C)Participant’s ages (D)Time the drink was consumed (E)Number of drinks consumed 2 98. An interaction between variables complicates the researcher’s explanation of findings. Which of the following are most likely involved in this interaction? (AP04)

10 Dependent Variable DV 2 19. The dependent variable in the experiment is the (AP94) (A) Amount of aggressive behavior exhibited by the children (B) Amount of time that each child spent interacting with the other children (C) Group in which each child was originally placed (D) Violent cartoon (E) Nonviolent cartoon 2 4. In an experiment, which of the following variables refers to the outcome that is measured by the experimenter? (AP99) (A) Independent (B) Dependent (C) Control (D) Random (E) Stimulus Questions refer to the following study. A student hypothesizes that high school student’s consuming different flavors of a drink before a spelling test will perform differently. A study to test the hypothesis finds that with a bitter drink, performance is best 6 hours after drinking it, whereas with a sweet drink, performance is better one hour after drinking it. 2 96. Which of the following are the independent variables? (AP04) (A)Test scores and high school students (B)Test scores and time of consumption (C)Flavor of drink and time of consumption (D)Flavor of drink and high school students (E)Flavor of drink and test scores 2 97. Which of the following is the dependent variable? (AP04) (A)Flavor of drink (B)Participant’s spelling scores (C)Participant’s ages (D)Time the drink was consumed (E)Number of drinks consumed 2 98. An interaction between variables complicates the researcher’s explanation of findings. Which of the following are most likely involved in this interaction? (AP04) A dependent variable is a factor that may change in response to an independent variable. In psychology, it is usually a behavior or a mental process. For example, in our study on the effect of breast feeding upon intelligence, intelligence is the dependent variable.

11 FAQ Q1. Can laboratory experiments illuminate everyday life?
Q2. Does behavior depend on one’s culture and gender? Q3. Why do psychologists study animals, and is it ethical to experiment on animals? Preview Question 12: Can laboratory experiments illuminate everyday life? Ans: Artificial laboratory conditions are created to study behavior in simplistic terms. The goal is to find underlying principles that govern behavior. Simplified reality, test theoretical principles Preview Question 13: Does behavior depend on one’s culture and gender? Ans: Even when specific attitudes and behaviors vary across cultures, as they often do, the underlying processes are much the same. Biology determines our sex, and culture further bends the genders. However, in many ways woman and man are similarly human. Preview Question 14: Why do psychologists study animals, and is it ethical to experiment on animals? Ans: Studying animals gives us the understanding of many behaviors that may have common biology across animals and humans. From animal studies, we have gained insights to devastating and fatal diseases. All researchers who deal with animal research are required to follow ethical guidelines in caring for these animals. Animals used in 7-8% of psych research 2 30. According to the ethical guidelines set by the American Psychological Association (APA), which of the following is true of psychological research in which animals are used as subjects? (AP94) (A) It must not involve the use of surgical procedures. (B) It is no longer permitted by the APA without special authorization. (C) It should conform to all APA ethical guidelines for animal research. (D) It must be limited to investigations that use correlational procedures. (E) It may not be conducted by psychologists who do not have a license.

12 A nerve cell, or a neuron, consists of many different parts.
Preview Question 2: What are neurons, and how do they transmit information? Assignment: sketch a neuron. 34 6. Which of the following is considered the fundamental building block of the nervous system? (AP04) (A) Nucleus (B) Neuron (C) Synapse (D) Neurotransmitter (E) Electrical impulse Active Psych CD 1 Neuroscience – Nerve cell demonstrations

13 Myelin sheath Specialized Glial cells Acts as an electrical insulator
Not present on all cells When present increases the speed of neural signals down the axon. Key words: myelin sheath; action potentials; axon Charge actually moves along outside of the myelin, the signal travels faster. Allows Neuron to conserve energy because Na+ and K+ ions can only enter at the nodes of Ranvier and it requires less energy for Na and K pumps to reestablish resting gradient (biopsych pg 69) Interesting facts: - The myelin sheath is NOT a part of the axon. The myelin sheath is actually formed of glial cells (oligodendricytes and Schwann cells) that wrap around the axon. - You may have often heard the brain referred to as either white matter or gray matter. The myelin sheath appears white in nature. Hence, the term white matter refers to areas of the brain that are myelinated. Gray matter refers to areas of the brain that are unmyelinated. - When you accidentally cut yourself, you often visually notice that you've cut yourself before you actually feel any pain from the cut. The reason for this is that visual information uses myelinated axons; whereas, pain information uses unmyelinated axons. - The loss of myelin is a significant factor in the disease multiple sclerosis (MS). When myelin is lost, the high-speed transmission of information is slowed down or blocked completely, which could lead the person with the inability to walk, write or speak. 3 67. The primary effect of the myelin sheath is to (AP94) (A) Increase the velocity of conduction of the action potential along the axon (B) Increase the velocity of conduction of the action potential across the synapse (C) Facilitate the incoming stimulus signals at sensory receptors (D) Reduce the amount of unused neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft (E) Protect the terminal buttons of the neuron from destruction by enzymes Myelin Sheath

14 Action Potential A neural impulse. A brief electrical charge that travels down an axon and is generated by the movement of positively charged atoms in and out of channels in the axon’s membrane. Sodium Na+ Potassium K+ Chlorine Cl- Voltage gated ion channels (biopsych p66) Refactory peiod during which the neuron cannot fire 1-2 milliseconds (Biopsycholosy p67) No axon, no action potential Add description from bernstein wave of depolarization Speed from .2 meters/sec to 120 M/Sec. 3 26. Which of the following are most involved in the action potential of a neuron? (AP04) (A) Calcium and sodium (B) Sodium and potassium (C) Potassium and calcium (D) Chloride and calcium (E) Chloride and sodium

15 Threshold Threshold: Each neuron receives excitatory and inhibitory signals from many neurons. When the excitatory signals minus the inhibitory signals exceed a minimum intensity (threshold) the neuron fires an action potential. About -65 mv for many neurons (biopsychology p 62) Threshold: (minimum stimulation) Each neuron receives depolarizing and hyperpolarizing currents from many neurons. When the depolarizing current (positive ions) minus the hyperpolarizing current (negative ions) exceed minimum intensity (threshold) the neuron fires an action potential. 3 92. Which of the following occurs when a neuron is stimulated to its threshold? (A) The movement of sodium and potassium ions across the membrane creates an action potential. (AP99) (B) The neuron hyperpolarizes. (C) Neurotransmitters are released from the dendrites. (D) The absolute refractory period of the neuron prevents it from responding. (E) The neuron's equilibrium potential is reached.

16 Action Potential Properties
All-or-None Response: A strong stimulus can trigger more neurons to fire, and to fire more often, but it does not affect the action potentials strength or speed. Intensity of an action potential remains the same throughout the length of the axon. Either it fires or it does not Toilet flushing 3 5. Which of the following correctly describes the firing of neurons? (AP94) (A) A protoplasmic transfer of ions (B) A finely graded response (C) An all-or-none response (D) An osmotic process (E) A symbiotic function

17 Types of Neurotransmitters
Acetylcholine Serotonin Norepinephrine Dopamine Endorphins GABA Glutamate The slides following this can be viewed sequentially or by using the branching icons on each slide to go forward from this index slide and come back to it. This permits the instructor to select which subsets of slides to present. 4 or Dopamine, norepinephrine, and acetylcholine are all (AP94) (A) Hormones excreted by the endocrine glands (B) Secretions of the exocrine glands (C) Drugs used in the therapeutic treatment of memory disorders (D) Enzymes involved with the degradation of interneuron signals (E) Neurotransmitters that excite or inhibit a neural signal across a synapse neurotransmitters of the limbic system are dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin ... remembered as Limb Donors. " S.A.N.D as Pure As Glu " The excitatory neurotransmitters are: •Serotonin •Acetyl choline (ACh) •Nor-adrenaline/ Adrenaline •Dopamine •Purines •Aspartic acid •Glutamic acid

18 Acetylcholine Found in neuromuscular junction
Involved in muscle movements Neurons that use acetocholine called cholinergenic (Bernstein) Neurons plentiful in the midbrain and striatum, also important for limbic system & areas of forebrain involved in memory. Drugs that interfere with Ach interfere with memory. Alzheimer's patients have a nearly complete loss of Cholinergic neurons in areas that enhance plasticity. 4 or Dopamine, norepinephrine, and acetylcholine are all (AP94) (A) Hormones excreted by the endocrine glands (B) Secretions of the exocrine glands (C) Drugs used in the therapeutic treatment of memory disorders (D) Enzymes involved with the degradation of interneuron signals (E) Neurotransmitters that excite or inhibit a neural signal across a synapse

19 Serotonin pathways are involved with mood regulation.
Preview Question 4: How do neurotransmitters influence human behavior? Involved in sleep Involved in depression/mood Suicide victims have consistently lower serotonin metabolites (Bach-Mizrachi 2006) Prozac & other anti depressants raise serotonin Prozac works by keeping serotonin in the synapse longer, giving it more time to exert an effect Mood, Hunger, sleep, arousal,…undersupply linked to depression Carbs increase serotonin (Bernstein) Malfunctions in serotonin feeback may be responsibel to for some kinds of obesitye, pms & depression (Lira 2003) 4 or 42? 74. Prozac functions as an antidepressant medication because it (AP04) (A)Enhances production of acetylcholine (B)Blocks the reuptake of the neurotransmitter serotonin (C)Causes select memory loss for depression producing events (D)Produces a steady, mild state of euphoria (E)Inhibits frontal lobe activity related to depression

20 Dopamine Important for movement, rewards & pleasure.
Involved with diseases such as schizophrenia and Parkinson’s disease. Learning, movement, attention and emotion Dopamine imbalance also involved in schizophrenia Schizophrenia treatments chlorpromazine & Reserpine (Biopsych 142& 143)…reserpine blocks release of monoamine neurotransmitters. Loss of dopamine- producing neurons is cause of Parkinson’s Disease, (exposure to pesticides 70% increase parkinsons (Ascherio 2006) Results from loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra Symptoms include: difficulty starting and stopping voluntary movements, tremors at rest, stooped posture, rigidity, poor balance Treatments:L-dopa – increases dopamine levels by deactivating enzymes that break down dopamine(Biopsychology p145), transplants of fetal dopamine-producing substantia nigra cells, adrenal gland transplants, electrical stimulation of the thalamus to stop tremors 4 or Dopamine, norepinephrine, and acetylcholine are all (AP94) (A) Hormones excreted by the endocrine glands (B) Secretions of the exocrine glands (C) Drugs used in the therapeutic treatment of memory disorders (D) Enzymes involved with the degradation of interneuron signals (E) Neurotransmitters that excite or inhibit a neural signal across a synapse 4 91. Which of the following neurotransmitters is most directly associated with Alzheimer’s disease? (AP04) (A)Dopamine (B)Serotonin (C)Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) (D)Acetylcholine (ACh) (E)Glutamate Mechanisms for agonists biopsychology 145

21 Endorphins Control pain and pleasure Released in response to pain
Morphine and codeine work on endorphin receptors Involved in healing effects of acupuncture Runner’s high - feeling of pleasure after a long run is due to heavy endorphin release Similar to morphine, naturally occurring opiates in the brain Discovered Scientists made radioactive morphine It bound to receptors associated with no known neurotransmitters. Since the brain probably did not “evolve” receptors for morphine it was reasoned that there must be a brain substances that activated these receptors Endorphins – any receptor that can bind to the same receptors stimulated by opiates 4 10. Painkilling substances produced by the brain are known as (AP94) (A) cortisols (B) Endorphins (C) glucocorticoids (D) Pheromones (E) Hormones AM Mind 5 Endorphins: The Brain's Natural Morphine Provides diagrammatic action graphics of neural networks, synaptic junctions, and neurotransmitter sites. Also touches on topics of consciousness, drug addiction, withdrawal symptoms, and nerve functioning.

22 Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)
Sympathetic Nervous System: Division of the ANS that arouses the body, mobilizing its energy in stressful situations. Parasympathetic Nervous System: Division of the ANS that calms the body, conserving its energy. Sympathetic NS “Arouses” (fight-or-flight) Parasympathetic NS “Calms” (rest and digest) 3 21. Activation of the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system results in (AP94) (A) An increase in salivation (B) An increase in digestion (C) An increase in respiratory rate (D) A decrease in heart rate (E) A decrease in pupil dilation 3 86. The role of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is to (AP99) (A) Facilitate the body's fight-or-flight response (B) Prepare the body to cope with stress (C) Promote rapid cognitive processing (D) Prompt the body to use its resources in responding to environmental stimuli (E) Establish homeostasis after a fight-or-flight response

23 PET Scan PET (positron emission tomography) Scan is a visual display of brain activity that detects a radioactive form of glucose while the brain performs a given task. Generally tracking radioactive glucose 4 77. Which of the following allows the examination of living brain tissue visually without performing surgery? (AP94) (A) Computerized axial tomography (B) Stereotaxic examination (C) Retrograde degeneration (D) Biofeedback (E) Ablation AM The Mind 8. Language Processing in the Brain Demonstrates learning as an active process and shows the PET scan as an effective method of measuring brain function. Courtesy of National Brookhaven National Laboratories

24 MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
Magnet aligns spinning atoms, radio waves distort spin & signal of return to orientation is monitored. Noted larger areas in left hemispheres for musicians with perfect pitch 4 77. Which of the following allows the examination of living brain tissue visually without performing surgery? (AP94) (A) Computerized axial tomography (B) Stereotaxic examination (C) Retrograde degeneration (D) Biofeedback (E) Ablation A technique that uses magnetic fields and radio waves to produce computer-generated images that distinguish among different types of soft tissue; allows us to see structures within the brain

25 fMRI - Functional MRI 4 77. Which of the following allows the examination of living brain tissue visually without performing surgery? (AP94) (A) Computerized axial tomography (B) Stereotaxic examination (C) Retrograde degeneration (D) Biofeedback (E) Ablation 4 79. Which of the following is a brain-imaging technique that produces the most detailed picture of brain structure? (AP99) (A) Electroencephalography (EEG) (B) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (C) Positron emission tomography (PET) (D) Computerized axial tomography (CAT) (E) Electromyography (EMG) AM The Mind 26. The Bilingual Brain Illustrates the capabilities of the fMRI, one of the latest technologies used by scientists to investigate brain functions. Compares MRI scans taken less than a second apart Detects blood moving to active parts of the brain Shows brain function

26 Brain Stem The Thalamus is the brain’s sensory switchboard, located on top of the brainstem. It directs messages to the sensory areas in the cortex and transmits replies to the cerebellum and medulla. The thalamus processes information for all of the following senses EXCEPT (AP99) (A) Smell (B) Hearing (C) Taste (D) Vision In The Tangled Wing: Biological Restraints on the Human Spirit (1982), Melvin Konner calls the thalamus "the major way station of incoming sensation." In What Makes You Tick?, Czerner explains that the thalamus "is the gateway for virtually all of your sensations and directs impulses generated by each of your sensory neurons to its appropriate area in the cortex." For example, the thalamus directs visual information to the primary visual cortex, which we will discuss later in this narrative. In the photograph to the left (image links to source), you can see that the thalami occupy a central location among the subcortical nuclei. As previously noted, the thalami are actually two mirror-image ovoid masses that occupy each lateral wall of the third ventricle. This image is from John A. Beal of the Louisiana State University. The thalami are of primary importance in relaying messages from subcortical nuclei to the neocortex. The thalami are integral to what we will call cortical-subcortical circuits, which we will discuss at length in Part 3 of These circuits possibly shift, in certain situations, into what I call autonomous processing mode whereby one circuit supports cognitive processing while another separate circuit supports more automatic processing and behavior, what we would call compulsions. Building on information in Parts 1 and 2, we extensively discuss the neurocircuitry of obsessions and compulsions in Part 3 of

27 The Limbic System The Limbic System is a doughnut-shaped system of neural structures at the border of the brainstem and cerebrum, associated with emotions such as fear, aggression and drives for food and sex. It includes the hippocampus, amygdala, and hypothalamus. OBJECTIVE 13| Describe the structures and functions of the limbic system, and explain how one of these structures controls the pituitary gland. 4 or Which component of the limbic system has an essential role in the formation of new memories? (AP04) (A)Amygdala (B)Hippocampus (C)Pituitary gland (D)Hypothalamus (E)Thalamus

28 "TALE of the hypothalamus":
The Hypothalamus lies below (hypo) the thalamus. It directs several maintenance activities like eating, drinking, body temperature, and control of emotions. It helps govern the endocrine system via the pituitary gland. Damage to one area can cause overwhelming urge to eat (bernstein p 80) Damage to another area in males causes sex organs to degenerate and sex drive to decrease drastically. "TALE of the hypothalamus": Temperature Appetite Libido Emotion 4 or Which of the following structures of the brain has been linked with the regulation of hunger and thirst? (AP04) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) "TALE of the hypothalamus": Temperature Appetite Libido Emotion

29 The Cerebral Cortex Cerebral Cortex Glial Cells
the intricate fabric of interconnected neural cells that covers the cerebral hemispheres the body’s ultimate control and information processing center Glial Cells cells in the nervous system that are not neurons but that support, nourish, and protect neurons Astrocytes provide nutrition to neurons. Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells insulate neurons as myelin. Gyri-Ridges Sulci-Valleys or fissures 4 10. Which of the following parts of the brain is most active in decision-making? (AP99) (A) Reticular formation (B) Corpus callosum (C) Hypothalamus (D) Cerebral cortex (E) Pituitary gland

30 Dolphin cortex larger than humans (Bernstein p83)
Cortex equivalents Dolphin cortex larger than humans (Bernstein p83) 4 50. The human brain differs from the brains of most other animals by the relative amount of brain mass devoted to which of the following? (AP04) (A)The occipital lobe (B)The cerebellum (C)The cerebral cortex (D)The homunculus (E)The pituitary gland Figure The cerebral cortex Myers: Psychology, Eighth Edition Copyright © 2007 by Worth Publishers

31 The Cerebral Cortex Frontal Lobes Parietal Lobes Occipital Lobes
involved in speaking and muscle movements and in making plans and judgments Parietal Lobes include the sensory cortex Occipital Lobes include the visual areas, which receive visual information from the opposite visual field Temporal Lobes include the auditory areas 4 38. The occipital lobes contain (AP94) (A) The primary visual cortex (B) The prefrontal cortex (C) The somatosensory cortex (D) The pons (E) Sensory and motor connections to other brain Regions 4 71. People who have experienced severe damage to the frontal lobe of the brain seldom regain their ability to (AP99) (A) Make and carry out plans (B) Recognize visual patterns (C) Process auditory information (D) Process olfactory information (E) Integrate their multiple personalities 4 20. A person who has a brain injury is having difficulty seeing and hearing. These symptoms indicate that damage has occurred in the (AP04) (A)Parietal and occipital lobes (B)Occipital and temporal lobes (C)Frontal and temporal lobes (D)Temporal lobe only (E)Frontal lobe only AM The Mind 7. The Frontal Lobes: Cognition and Awareness Explains the importance of the frontal lobe in human functioning, and covers brain function, diagnostic assessment, cognitive function, evolution, and comparative behavior.

32 The Cerebral Cortex Researchers able to predict a monkey’s movement 1/10th of a second before it moves Talk about phantom limbs and orgasm in foot. Ramachandran Motor cortex in the front…motor at the front of a car. 4 83. Which of the following areas of the body has the largest number of sensory (AP99)neurons? (A) Back (B) Foot (C) Ear (D) Lips (E) Wrist

33 More cortex devoted to sensitive areas
Motor and Somatosensory homunculus similar 4 83. Which of the following areas of the body has the largest number of sensory (AP99)neurons? (A) Back (B) Foot (C) Ear (D) Lips (E) Wrist

34 Split Brain Sperry and Gazzaniga are key researchers in this area.
Corpus Callosum largest bundle of neural fibers connects the two brain hemispheres carries messages between the hemispheres 4 16. Neurosurgeons cut the corpus callosum in the brain disrupting communication (AP04)between the right and left hemispheres to (A)Prevent the spread of epileptic seizures (B)Reduce anxiety attacks and phobic reactions (C)Reduce the incidence of violent behaviors (D)Treat schizophrenia (E)Reduce mood swings AM The Brain #5 The Divided Brain This module begins with graphic representations of the cerebral hemispheres’ specialized functions. It continues with a description of the brain’s asymmetry, showing diagrams of how the two halves communicate. The extreme case of a patient who has undergone split-brain surgery for treatment of epilepsy illustrates the role of hemispheric organization in sensory perception and verbal skills. a condition in which the two hemispheres of the brain are isolated by cutting the corpus Callosum. Sperry and Gazzaniga are key researchers in this area.

35 Environmental Influence
Culture the enduring behaviors, ideas, attitudes, and traditions shared by a large group of people and transmitted from one generation to the next Norm an understood rule for accepted and expected behavior Preview Question 5: How do cultural norms affect our behavior? 9 50. Which of the following regularities in behavior can most likely be accounted for by the existence of a group norm? (AP99) (A) Students tend to use less profanity with adults than they do with their peers. (B) Most people sleep at least six hours a night. (C) The average annual income of industrial workers in 1972 was $7,250. (D) Male infants have a higher infant mortality rate than female infants. (E) People perform well-learned behaviors better in the presence of others than when alone.

36 Developmental Psychology
Issue Details Nature/Nurture How do genetic inheritance (our nature) and experience (the nurture we receive) influence our behavior? Continuity/Stages Is developmental a gradual, continuous process or a sequence of separate stages? Stability/Change Do our early personality traits persist through life, or do we become different persons as we age. OBJECTIVE 1| State the three areas of change that developmental psychologists study, and identify the three major issues in developmental psychology. 7 75. Which of the following accurately describes a major change in perspective in the field of developmental psychology over the past twenty-five years? (AP94) (A) A shift from an emphasis on childhood and adolescence to an interest in development over the life span (B) A shift from a cognitive to a psychoanalytic interpretation of developmental phenomena (C) A shift in research focus from cognitive to personality development (D) A decrease in interest in the physiological factors affecting growth and development (E) A decrease in interest in the study of the cognitive components of intellect The debate over whether development occurs gradually, without discernible shifts, or through a series of distinct stages is termed (AP94) (A) Nature vs, nurture (B) Developmental vs, cognitive (C) Cross-sectional vs. longitudinal (D) Continuity vs. discontinuity (E) Maturation vs. learning 7 98. In their discussions of the process of development, the advocates of nature in the nature-nurture controversy emphasize which of the following? (AP94) (A) Socialization (B) Cognition (C) Maturation (D) Experience (E) Information processing

37 Infancy and Childhood Infancy and childhood span from birth to the teenage years. During these years, the individual grows physically, cognitively, and socially. 3-6 Most rapid growth in frontal lobes Need slide for this 8 32. A researcher dabs color on a 16-month-old child’s face and places the child in front of a mirror. Which of the following developmental milestones has been reached if the child realizes that there is something wrong with its face? (AP04) (A)Visual discrimination (B)Recognition of a human form (C)Recognition of self (D)Identification of the gender of the image (E)Perception of the image as a playmate Need slide for autism…maybe not this module 8 61. Which of the following is typically cited as a characteristic of autistic children? (AP94) (A) Minor developmental delays in academic achievement (B) Above-average performance on tests of creativity (C) Severely impaired interpersonal communication (D) Tendency to seek younger playmates (E) Paranoia comparable with that experienced in schizophrenia Stage Span Infancy Newborn to toddler Childhood Toddler to teenager

38 Infancy and Childhood: Cognitive Development
Schema a concept or framework that organizes and interprets information, they are building blocks of intellectual development Bernstein Schema- Generalizations that from as we experience the world. Provide a framework for understanding future experiences. Organized patterns of action or thought that children construct as they adapt to the environment, basic units of knowledge, building blocks of intellectual development. Piaget said schema can involve behaviors (such as sucking), mental symbols (words or images) or mental activities (imagining things). 23? 38. A schema can be described as (AP04) (A)An outer layer of the eye (B)A mental construct (C)A fissure between lobes of the brain (D)An optical illusion (E)A fixed response to a particular stimulus

39 Piaget’s Stages Typical Age Range Description of Stage Developmental
Phenomena Sensorimotor Birth to nearly 2 years Experiencing the world through senses and actions (looking, touching, mouthing) Object permanence Stranger anxiety Some cause and effect Preoperational About 2 to 6 years Concrete operational About 7 to 11 years Formal operational About 12 through adulthood Representing things with words and images but lacking logical reasoning Pretend play Egocentrism Language development Think in symbols Thinking logically about concrete events; grasping concrete analogies and performing arithmetical operations Conservation Mathematical transformations Abstract reasoning, speculation Abstract logic Potential for moral reasoning Sensorimotor – infant’s mental activity confined to sensory functions. Can only form schema for things they can see, hear or touch. Thinking is doing 8 81. According to Jean Piaget, what is the earliest stage at which a child is capable of using simple logic to think about objects and events? (AP94) (A) Sensorimotor (B) Preoperational (C) Symbolic (D) Concrete operational (E) Formal operational 8 32. A baby looks under the sofa for a ball that has just rolled underneath it. According to Jean Piaget, the baby's action shows development of (AP99) (A) conservation of mass (B) Reversibility (C) Object permanence (D) Logical thinking (E) Metacognition 8 79. Which Piagetian stage of cognitive development is characterized by mastery of conversation tasks? (AP04) (C) Concrete operations (D) Formal operations (E) Tertiary circular reactions Sensorimotor, Pre-operational, Concrete-operational, Formal-operational Smart People Cook Fish

40 Sensorimotor Stage In the sensorimotor stage, babies take in the world by looking, hearing, touching, mouthing, and grasping. Children younger than 6 months of age do not grasp object permanence, i.e., objects that are out of sight are also out of mind. Mental activity and schemas confined to sensory functions. 4-8 Months 8 32. A baby looks under the sofa for a ball that has just rolled underneath it. According to Jean Piaget, the baby's action shows development of (AP99) (A) conservation of mass (B) Reversibility (C) Object permanence (D) Logical thinking (E) Metacognition Doug Goodman

41 Infancy and Childhood: Cognitive Development
Conservation the principle that properties such as mass, volume, and number remain the same despite changes in the forms of objects Vid clip of conservation (source?) Active psych 2-3 # 7 & 8 Conservation Do conservation extra credit. 8 79. Which Piagetian stage of cognitive development is characterized by mastery of conversation tasks? (AP04) (A)Sensorimotor (B)Preoperational (C)Concrete operations (D)Formal operations (E)Tertiary circular reactions

42 Attachment Mary Ainsworth – Strange situation
Unfamiliar playroom Mother and unfamilar woman Women play with baby – leave briefly How to the babies respond? Mary Ainsworth - attachment theory - Mary had a little lamb who was attached to her (everywhere she went, the lamb would go) Active Psych 2-3 #6 Strange Situation 8 59. Mary Ainsworth's Strange Situation paradigm is typically used to test young children's (AP99) (A) Ego strength (B) Intelligence (C) Reaction time (D) Attachment (E) Incidental learning 8 61. A 14-month-old toddler is placed in an unfamiliar situation with the child’s mother, who then leaves the room for a time. When the mother returns, the child squirms and tries to get away from the mother when picked up, but also seems distressed when placed back on the floor. Mary Ainsworth would consider this evidence of which of the following? (AP04) (A)Hyperactivity (B)Narcissistic personality type (C)A resistant or ambivalent attachment style (D)Disorganized behavior (E)Avoidance

43 Social Development: Parenting Styles
Authoritarian parents impose rules and expect obedience “Don’t interrupt.” “Why? Because I said so.” Permissive submit to children’s desires, make few demands, use little punishment Authoritative both demanding and responsive set rules, but explain reasons and encourage open discussion Rejecting-Neglecting completely uninvolved; disengaged. Expect little and invest little Authoritative- highest self esteem, self reliance, Social competence Correlation is not causation Authoritarian (Bernstein p 86)-Tend to be unfriendly, distrustful, withdrawn, less likely to be empathetic, more likely to be aggressive, more likely to cheat, less likely to feel guilt when guilty Permissive-immature, dependent, unhappy, tantrums Uninvolved – more problems with impulsivity and aggression, non-compliance, moodiness, self-esteem 9 40. The most well-adjusted and socially competent chi1dren tend to come from homes where parents employ which of the following parental styles? (AP94) (A) Minimal supervision (B) Authoritarian (C) Authoritative (D) Indulgent (E) Permissive

44 Developing Morality Kohlberg (1981, 1984) sought to describe the development of moral reasoning by posing moral dilemmas to children and adolescents, such as “Should a person steal medicine to save a loved one’s life?” He found stages of moral development. Active Psych 2-3 #9 Moral Development : Heinz Dilemma 9 51. Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning is best described by which of the following? (AP94) (A) Personal conscience is innate and all human beings develop it at the same rate. (B) By adulthood, all people judge moral issues in terms of self-chosen principles. (C) Ethical principles are defined by ideals of reciprocity and human equality in individualistic societies, but by ideals of law and order in collectivistic societies. (D) Children grow up with morals similar to those of their parents. (E) Children progress from a morality based on punishment and reward to one defined by convention, and ultimately to one defined by abstract ethical principles. 9 81. Carol Gilligan’s criticism of Lawrence Kohlberg’s developmental theory is based on the argument that Kohlberg's (AP99) (A) Work has been invalidated by changes in the structure of families in the United States (B) Stages are too limited in their critical-period parameters (C) Theory underestimates the capabilities of infants and children (D) Stages do not apply equally well to all racial and ethnic groups (E) Theory fails to account sufficiently for differences between males and females AP Photo/ Dave Martin

45 Erikson’s Stages of Psychosocial Development
Mnemonic Approximate age Stage Description of Task Infancy Trust vs. mistrust If needs are dependably met, infants (1st year) develop a sense of basic trust. Toddler Autonomy vs. shame Toddlers learn to exercise will and (2nd year) and doubt do things for themselves, or they doubt their abilities. Preschooler Initiative vs. guilt Preschoolers learn to initiate tasks (3-5 years) and carry out plans, or they feel guilty about efforts to be independent. Elementary Competence vs Children learn the pleasure of applying (6 years- inferiority themselves to tasks, or they feel puberty) inferior. Competence AKA industry Bernstein 458 re do and re-read 9 75. A nine-year-old girl first learning about her capabilities on the playground and in the classroom would be in which of Erikson's stages of development? (AP99) (A) Industry vs. inferiority (B) Identity vs. role confusion (C) Autonomy vs. shame and doubt (D) Integrity vs. despair (E) Trust vs. mistrust Mnemonic link

46 Aging and Intelligence
It is believed today that fluid intelligence (ability to reason speedily) declines with age, but crystalline intelligence (accumulated knowledge and skills) increases. We gain vocabulary and knowledge but lose recall memory and process more slowly. A normally functioning 65-year-old who cannot solve abstract logic puzzles as quickly as he did when he was younger is experiencing a (AP99) (A) Phenomenon that is uncommon for people of his age (B) Phenomenon predicted by Erik Erikson as part of the eight stages of psycho-social development (C) Decrease in his crystallized intelligence (D) Decrease in his fluid intelligence (E) Difficulty with concrete operational thinking

47 Thresholds Absolute Threshold: Minimum stimulation needed to detect a particular stimulus 50% of the time. Proportion of “Yes” Responses Stimulus Intensity (lumens) Preview Question 1: What is an absolute threshold, and are we influenced by stimuli below it? Proportion or percent Below the curve is subliminal Robert Cialdini illustrates the principle for sales. Assume that a man wants to buy a three-piece suit and a sweater. If you were the salesperson, which should you show him first in order to get him to spend the most money? You might think it best to sell the sweater first. Having spent a lot on a suit, the customer might be reluctant to spend more on a sweater. However, sales motivation analysts suggest the opposite. Sell the suit first because the additional cost of the sweater will not be so readily noticed. If the man has just paid $500 for a suit, an additional $75 for a sweater will not seem excessive. The same applies to other accessories, such as a shirt or shoes. As a rule, people will almost always pay more for accessories if they buy them after rather than before a more expensive purchase. The same principle holds for the purchase of accessories on a new car. After paying $32,000 for the car, the customer will hardly notice $700 for a sound system to go with it. The trick, of course, is to mention these accessories independently so that each addition will seem negligible in comparison to the much larger commitment already made. Cialdini, R. B. (2001). Influence: Science and practice (4th ed.). Boston: Allyn & Bacon.

48 Why Does the “Absolute” Threshold Vary? - Signal Detection
Sensitivity: Intensity of the signal. Capacity of sensory systems. Amount of background stimulation, or “noise.” Response criterion reflects one’s willingness to respond to a stimulus. Influenced by motivation and expectancies. Not meyers Important in psych,…jobs that require attention , air traffic controllers etc. When Jason practices the drums, he tends not to hear the phone. Today he is expecting a call from a record producer and answers the phone each time it rings even when he is practicing the drums. Which of the following explains why Jason hears the phone today? (AP04) (A) Weber’s law (B) Accommodation (C) Frequency theory (D) Signal detection theory (E) Harmonics

49 Judging Differences Between Stimuli
Difference Threshold or Just-Noticeable Difference (JND) JND = Smallest detectable difference in stimulus energy. JND determined by two factors: How much of a stimulus was there to begin with? Which sense is being stimulated? Add 1 oz to 10 oz, and you will probably detect it. Add 1 oz to 100 oz, and you will probably not detect it. The minimum intensity at which a stimulus can be detected at least 50 percent of the time is known as the (AP04) (A) Visual cliff (B) Just noticeable difference (C) Perceptual set (D) Receptor potential (E) Absolute threshold

50 Sensory Adaptation Diminished sensitivity as a consequence of constant stimulation. Preview Question 3: What function does sensory adaptation serve? In house with smell, you don’t notice, clothes rubbing skin, shoes, band aids Diminishing sensitivity to unchanging stimuli 12 1. The longer an individual is exposed to a strong odor, the less aware of the odor the individual becomes. This phenomenon is know as sensory (AP04) (A) Acuity (B) Adaption (C) Awareness (D) Reception (E) Overload Put a band aid on your arm and after awhile you don’t sense it.

51 The Lens Lens: Transparent structure behind the pupil that changes shape to focus images on the retina. Accommodation: The process by which the eye’s lens changes shape to help focus near or far objects on the retina. The change in the curvature of the lens that enables the eye to focus on objects at various distances is called (AP94) (A) Accommodation (B) Adaptation (C) Conduction (D) Convergence (E) Consonance

52 Retina Retina: The light-sensitive inner surface of the eye, containing receptor rods and cones in addition to layers of other neurons (bipolar, ganglion cells) that process visual information. When struck by light energy, cones and rods in the retina generate neural signals that then activate the (AP99) (A) Parietal lobe (B) Ganglion cells (C) Bipolar cells (D) ciliary muscle (E) Optic nerve fibers

53 Optic Nerve, Blind Spot & Fovea
Optic nerve: Carries neural impulses from the eye to the brain. Blind Spot: Point where the optic nerve leaves the eye because there are no receptor cells located there. Fovea: Central point in the retina around which the eye’s cones cluster. The place in the retina where the optic nerve exits to the brain is called the (AP94) (A) Lens (B) Sclera (C) Fovea (D) Blind spot (E) Aqueous humor

54 Retina’s Reaction to Light- Receptors
Rods peripheral retina detect black, white and gray twilight or low light Cones near center of retina fine detail and color vision daylight or well-lit conditions There are approximately 125 million rods located outside the fovea which code information about light and dark. There are approximately 6 million cones, mostly located in the fovea, which code information about light, dark, and color. Role of rods and cones differ. They contain photopigments – chemicals that respond to light. Light triggers action potentials in photoreceptors (rods and cones) by breaking down photopigments. It takes time for photpigments to regenerate… dark adaptation. 1. Rods are largely responsible for peripheral vision because of their location. 2. Rods are hundreds of times more sensitive to light, therefore, they play a more important role in vision in dim light. 3. Rods produce images that are perceived with less visual acuity than do cones. 4. Rods do not detect color as do cones. 20 min to fully adapt to darkness Which of the following is a possible reason why cats can see better at night that can humans? (AP04) (A) Cats have a higher proportion of rods to cones (B) Cat’s pupils can contract to a smaller opening (C) Cats have a smaller blind spot (D) Cats have a larger optic nerve tract (E) The visual cortex of cats is located farther forward in the cortex

55 Color Blindness Genetic disorder in which people are blind to green or red colors. This supports the Trichromatic theory. Monochromatic – one color Dichromatic – two color Tricromatic – three color (neitz) Dogs have limited dichromatic vision Most common in men, it is a sex linked trait Some 10 million American men—fully 7 percent of the male population—either cannot distinguish red from green, or see red and green differently from most people. This is the commonest form of color blindness, but it affects only .4 percent of women. More than 95 percent of all variations in human color vision involve the red and green receptors in men's eyes. It is very rare for anyone—male or female—to be "blind" to the blue end of the spectrum. Nathans provided a genetic explanation for this phenomenon. He showed that the gene coding for the blue receptor lies on chromosome 7, which is shared equally by men and women, and that this gene does not have any neighbor whose DNA sequence is similar. Blue color blindness is caused by a simple mutation in this gene. The most common form of color blindness is related to deficiencies in the (AP94) (A) blue-yellow system (B) red-green system (C) Process of visual summation (D) Bipolar cells (E) Secretion of rhodopsin Ishihara Test

56 Opponent Process Theory
Hering proposed that we process four primary colors combined in pairs of red-green, blue-yellow, and black-white. Proposed because of problems with Young Helmholtz. Mix red and green and get yellow, but red and green color blinds often see yellow Yellow appears as a pure color not a mix like purple. The retina processes info according to Young Helmholtz and the information is further processed by opponent processes cells in route to the visual cortex If Carmelita stares at a red spot for one minute and then shifts her gaze to a white piece of paper, she is likely to experience an afterimage that is (AP94) (A) Green (B) Red (C) Blue (D) Violet (E) Black

57 The Ear Preview Question 9: How does the ear transform sound energy into neural messages? Sketch ear assignment Receptors that are especially important for helping a person maintain balance are located in the (AP94) (A) gyrus cinguli (B) Inner ear (C) Tendons (D) ossicles (E) Ligaments Dr. Fred Hossler/ Visuals Unlimited

58 The Ear Outer Ear/Pinna: Collects and sends sounds to the eardrum.
Middle Ear: Chamber between eardrum and cochlea containing three tiny bones (hammer, anvil, stirrup) that concentrate the vibrations of the eardrum on the cochlea’s oval window. Inner Ear: Innermost part of the ear, containing the cochlea, semicircular canals, and vestibular sacs. The general function of the bones in the middle ear is to (AP99) (A) Convert the incoming sound from pounds per square inch to decibels (B) Protect the cochlea (C) Regulate changes in the air pressure of the inner ear (D) Transfer sound information from the tympanic membrane to the oval window (E) Provide information to the vestibular system The human vestibular sense is most closely associated with the (AP04) (A) Skin (B) Semicircular canals (C) Taste buds (D) Olfactory bulb (E) Rods and cones

59 Cochlea Cochlea: Coiled, bony, fluid-filled tube in the inner ear that transforms sound vibrations to auditory signals. 16,000 hair cells Deflect the hair cell by the width of an atom and the cell generates a neural response At highest perceived frequency the cell can respond 1000 times a second. Can wither and fuse with overly loud sounds. Damage can cause deafness or tinnitus…want to know what tinnitus sounds like…. 12 8. The coiled tube in the inner ear that contains the auditory receptors is called the (AP99) (A) Semicircular canal (B) ossicle (C) pinna (D) Cochlea (E) Oval window Which of the following is the correct sequence of anatomical structures through which an auditory stimulus passes before it is perceived as sound? (AP04) (A) Cochlea, ossicles, eardrum, oval window, auditory canal (B) Eardrum, cochlea, auditory canal, ossicles, oval window (C) Oval window, auditory canal, eardrum, cochlea, ossicles (D Ossicles, eardrum, cochlea, auditory canal, oval window (E) Auditory canal, eardrum, ossicles, oval window, cochlea

60 Localization of Sounds
Because we have two ears, sounds that reach one ear faster than the other ear cause us to localize the sound. 1. Intensity differences 2. Time differences 2 ears better than 1 Sound 750 mph, ears can detect difference JND second Time differences as small as 1/100,000 of a second can cause us to localize sound. The head acts as a “shadow” or partial sound barrier. When participants in dichotic listening experiments are repeating aloud a message presented in one ear, they are most likely to notice information on the unattended channel if that channel (AP99) (A) Switches from one language to another (B) Switches to a nonlanguage (C) Mentions the participant's name (D) Presents information similar to that on the attended channel (E) Presents information in a foreign language

61 Taste Traditionally, taste sensations consisted of sweet, salty, sour, and bitter tastes. Recently, receptors for a fifth taste have been discovered called “Umami”. Preview Question 11: How do we experience taste? Fussy eating an adaptation? -Possibly evolutionary/adaptive….picky eaters Umami – MSG Gustatory receptors are sensitive to all of the following taste qualities EXCEPT (AP99) (A) bitter (B) Sweet (C) Salty (D) Spicy (E) Sour Bitter taste at NOVA Sweet Sour Salty Bitter Umami (Fresh Chicken) Taste link at Nova Blocking bitter taste at Nova

62 Chemical Senses: The Flavors and Aromas of Life
Olfaction Olfactory epithelium – top of nasal cavity Pheromone detection of sweat and urine Vomeronasal organ Influence human female reproductive cycles Inhalation of male sex hormone and mood changes Males may respond to sex hormones Menstrual cycles synchronized of females who smelled other women’s sweat The smell of trust….Oxytocin “Investor” given 12 coins, and they can give any number to a “trustee” the coins will quadruple in value and the trustee can return as many or as few as they want. Without oxytocin 1/5th gave the trustee all their coins, in the oxytocin condition about ½ gave the trustee all their coins…..oxytocin had no effect on the number of coins returned by the trustee. (Kosfeld 2005 cited in Brain Candy) 12 1. The longer an individual is exposed to a strong odor, the less aware of the odor the individual becomes. This phenomenon is know as sensory (AP04) (A) Acuity (B) Adaption (C) Awareness (D) Reception (E) Overload

63 Perceptual Organization: Gestalt
Gestalt--an organized whole tendency to integrate pieces of information into meaningful wholes a school of psychology founded in Germany in the 1900s that maintained our sensations are processed according to consistent perceptual rules that result in meaningful whole perceptions, or gestalts. Gestalt psychologists showed that a figure formed a “whole” different from its surroundings. Law of Pragnanz: we perceive things in the simplest way possible In psychology, Gestalt principles are used to explain (AP99) (A) Statistical probabilities (B) Somatic behavioral disorders (C) Perceptual organization (D) stimulus-detection thresholds (E) Altered states of consciousness Which of the following is NOT a Gestalt principle of perceptual organization? (AP04) (A)Proximity (B)Similarity (C)Closure (D)Intensity (E)Continuity 63

64 Perceptual Organization: Gestalt
Grouping Principles proximity--group nearby figures together similarity--group figures that are similar continuity--perceive continuous patterns closure--fill in gaps connectedness--spots, lines, and areas are seen as unit when connected The tendency of most people to identify a three sided figure as a triangle, even when one of its sides is incomplete, is the result of a perceptual process known as (AP94) (A) Closure (B) Proximity (C) Similarity (D) Feature analysis (E) Shape constancy Have students illustrate each of these rules, a Gestalt album. 64

65 Depth Perception Depth perception enables us to judge distances. Gibson and Walk (1960) suggested that human infants (crawling age) have depth perception. Even newborn animals show depth perception. Preview Question 16: How do we see the world in three dimensions? Use to test perception and acuity with infants of all sorts Each species by the time it is mobile has abilities it needs. Eleanor Gibson and her colleagues have used the visual cliff to measure an infant's ability to perceive (AP94) (A) Patterns (B) Depth (C) Size constancy (D) Shape constancy (E) Different hues Innervisions Visual Cliff

66 Retinal disparity: Images from the two eyes differ.
Binocular Cues Retinal disparity: Images from the two eyes differ. Try looking at your two index fingers when pointing them towards each other half an inch apart and about 5 inches directly in front of your eyes. You will see a “finger sausage” as shown in the inset. Climbing an irregular set of stairs is more difficult for an individual who wears a patch over one eye primarily because (AP99) (A) Some depth perception is lost (B) Half of the visual field is missing (C) The ability to perceive interposition is lost (D) The patch disrupts the functioning of the vestibular system (E) The patch alters the ability of the open eye to compensate

67 Monocular Cues Relative motion: Objects closer to a fixation point move faster and in opposing direction to those objects that are farther away from a fixation point, moving slower and in the same direction. A person with sight in only one eye lacks which of the following visual cues for seeing in depth? (AP94) (A) Retinal disparity (B) Linear perspective (C) Motion parallax (D) Relative size (E) Texture gradient

68 Biological Rhythms and Sleep
Circadian Rhythms occur on a 24-hour cycle and include sleep and wakefulness. Termed our “biological clock,” it can be altered by artificial light. Preview Question 2: How do our biological rhythms influence our daily functioning and our sleep and dreams? SCN pair of pinhead sized clusters of 20,000 cells in the hypothalamus Vid about guys in cave? Circa –about Diem – Day Body temp rises as morning approaches, peaks during the day and dips in the afternoon and drops again before we go to sleep Bright light at night helps delay sleep (Oren 1998) Which of the following is a circadian rhythm? (AP99) (A) The ebb and flow of an individual's emotions during a 24-hour period (B) Jet lag experienced after an airline flight from Los Angeles to Tokyo (C) A cycle of biological functioning that lasts about 25 hours (D) The series of five stages that people go through during a normal night's sleep (E) The systematic alternation between alpha waves and delta waves during the different sleep stages A student participates in a month-long sleep study designed to examine free-running circadian rhythms. If all time cues are removed, the student’s total sleep-wake cycle is likely to (AP04) (A)Average about 25 hours (B)Average about 12 hours (C)Average whatever it had averaged when the student began the study (D)Become even more dependent than usual on the student’s activity level (E)Become extremely variable Illustration © Cynthia Turner 2003 Light triggers the suprachiasmatic nucleus to decrease (morning) melatonin from the pineal gland and increase (evening) it at nightfall.

69 Sleep Stages 1-2 During early, light sleep (stages 1-2) the brain enters a high-amplitude, slow, regular wave form called theta waves (5-8 cps). A person who is daydreaming shows theta activity. Stage 1 may have hallucinations Spindles – Bursts or rapid rhythmic brainwave activity. Which of the following is characterized by a periodic appearance of sleep spindles? (AP04) (A)Stage 2 sleep (B)Stage 3 sleep (C)Stage 4 sleep (D)REM sleep (E)Night terrors Theta Waves

70 Stage 5: REM Sleep After reaching the deepest sleep stage (4), the sleep cycle starts moving backward towards stage 1. Although still asleep, the brain engages in low- amplitude, fast and regular beta waves (15-40 cps) much like awake-aroused state. REM – Rapid Eye Movement Heart rate rises, breathing rapid and irregular, eyes dart around Discovered in 1952 Genital arousal – regardless of dream’s sexual content (Karchan 1966) In young men erections outlast REM, a 25 year old may have an erection half the night, a 65 year old 1/4th the night. Muscles relaxed – essentially paralyzed REM sleep, generally an "active" state of sleep, is accompanied by which of the following paradoxical characteristics? (AP99) (A) Slowed heart rate (B) Slowed respiration rate (C) Lowered blood pressure (D) Lowered muscle tone (E) Reduced eye movements

71 Hypnosis Hypnosis Posthypnotic Amnesia
a social interaction in which one person (the hypnotist) suggests to another (the subject) that certain perceptions, feelings, thoughts, or behaviors will spontaneously occur Posthypnotic Amnesia supposed inability to recall what one experienced during hypnosis induced by the hypnotist’s suggestion used by some clinicians to control undesired symptoms and behaviors Hypnosis is best described as a state that (AP99) (A) Gives the hypnotist complete control over the thoughts and emotions of the hypnotized individual (B) Induces heightened suggestibility in the hypnotized individual (C) is similar to an obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (D) Is similar to the condition produced by excessive alcohol consumption (E) is similar to the REM stage of sleep

72 Hypnosis: Pain Relief Dissociation (divided consciousness)
a split in consciousness allows some thoughts and behaviors to occur simultaneously with others Hidden Observer Hilgard’s term describing a hypnotized subject’s awareness of experiences, such as pain, that go unreported during hypnosis #1 is an explanation of how hypnosis helps relieve pain Hypnosis has been found useful in the treatment of (AP94) (A) Pain (B) Autism (C) Dementia (D) Paranoia (E) Schizophrenia Dissociates pain from emotional suffering Evidence - PET scans show hypnosis reduces brain activity in a region that processes painful stimuli but not in the sensory cortex (Rainville 1997) Divided Consciousness Theory: Hypnosis is a special state of dissociated (divided) consciousness (Hilgard, 1986, 1992). Selective attention also an explanation 10% can be so hypnotized as to undergo major surgery without amnesia 50% can get some pain relief from hypnosis AM Mind 2 Hypnotic Dissociation and Pain Relief Describes what goes on during hypnosis and looks at states of consciousness, hypnosis as a phenomenon, and the therapeutic use of hypnosis in treating arthritis.

73 Withdrawal & Dependence
Withdrawal: Upon stopping use of a drug users may experience undesirable side effects. Dependence: Absence of a drug may lead to a feeling of physical pain, intense cravings (physical dependence), and negative emotions (psychological dependence). 17 1. The painful experience associated with termination of the use of an addictive substance is known as (AP94) (A) Discontinuance (B) Tolerance (C) Withdrawal (D) Forced independence (E) Transduction

74 Depressants Alcohol affects motor skills, judgment, and memory…and increases aggressiveness while reducing self awareness. Alcoholics have brain shrinkage (especially in women), women have less of a stomach enzyme that helps digest alcohol (Wuethrich 2001) Alcohol is not a stimulant Disrupts processing of recent experiences into long term memory, heavy drinkers may have recall problems. Lessens impulse control (Steele 1990) Intoxicated college students less likely to use condoms (Macdonald 1996) Expectations effect the effects of alcohol, (vid?) Fake alcohol experiments Drinking contributes to 1400 college student deaths, 70,000 sexual assaults and 500,000 injuries per year (Hingson 2002) Cocktails for kids! Does alcohol have a good side…Moderate drinkers 26% less likely to develop dementia later in life…is it the alcohol or the fact that they are more social? Kaarin & Mack 2009 cited in Brain Candy In terms of the effect on the central nervous system, alcohol is most accurately classified as which of the following types of drug? (AP94) (A) Depressant (B) Narcotic (C) Psychoactive (D) Stimulant (E) Hallucinogen The psychological effects of alcohol are powerfully influenced by the users (AP04) (A) Expectations (B) Success in developing a social network (C) Agility (D) Intelligence quotient (IQ) (E) Brain dopamine level A central nervous system depressant that produces a false feeling of well-being and efficiency and results in slower reaction time to stimulation is (AP04) (A) Cocaine (B) Marijuana (C) Dopamine (D) Alcohol (E) Nicotine AM The Mind 29. Alcohol Addiction: Hereditary Factors Deals with alcoholism, addiction, biological evidence for hereditary traits, and how science progresses through replication and the development of new technologies. Daniel Hommer, NIAAA, NIH, HHS

75 Depressants 2. Barbiturates: Drugs that depress the activity of the central nervous system, reducing anxiety but impairing memory and judgment. Nembutal, Seconal, and Amytal are some examples. Tranqulizers Which of the following will NOT increase behavioral and mental activity? (AP99) (A) Cocaine (B) Caffeine (C) Benzedrine (D) Amphetamines (E) Barbiturates

76 Hallucinogens Hallucinogens are psychedelic (mind-manifesting) drugs that distort perceptions and evoke sensory images in the absence of sensory input. Preview Question 13: What are hallucinogens, and what are their effects? An individual who sees and feels imaginary spiders crawling on his arms and legs is experiencing (AP04) (A) A fixation (B) A hallucination (C) An illusion (D) An eidetic image (E) A phobia Housewife on acid on cnn Another person on acid Leary turn on, tune in, drop out Leary: High priest of lsd Brit troops on lsd Housewife on Acid on CNN 5:01 Another person on Acid 8:46 Leary and kids who dropped acid…creepy 1:14

77 Classical Conditioning
It was the Russian physiologist Ivan Pavlov who elucidated classical conditioning. His work provided a basis for later behaviorists like John Watson. Preview Question 2: How does classical conditioning demonstrate learning by association? Behaviorism – studies behavior without reference to mental processes,…. no place for cognition In Ivan Pavlov's experiments in classical conditioning, the dog's salivation was (AP94) (A) An unconditioned stimulus only (B) An unconditioned response only (C) A conditioned response only (D) Both an unconditioned and a conditioned stimulus (E) Both an unconditioned and a conditioned response Pavlov had a little dog His saliva was clear as spit And when he rang his little bell Pavlov was sure of it Sovfoto Ivan Pavlov ( )

78 Classical Conditioning is learning that takes place when an originally neutral stimulus comes to produce a conditioned response because of its association with an unconditioned stimulus. Which of the following responses was most likely acquired through classical conditioning? (AP94) (A) The startle response of a baby the first time the baby hears thunder (B) A child's fear of dogs after the child has been bitten by a dog (C) The cry of pain expressed by a man whose hand has been cut on a piece of broken glass (D) The uncontrollable blinking of a woman who has just gotten dust in her eye (E) The salivation of a dog that is halfway through a bowl of its favorite food

79 Pavlov’s Experiments Before conditioning, food (Unconditioned Stimulus, US) produces salivation (Unconditioned Response, UR). However, the tone (neutral stimulus) does not. Preview Question 3: How does a neutral stimulus become a CS, and what are the processes of acquisition, extinction, spontaneous recovery, generalization, and discrimination in classical conditioning? In operant conditioning, the concept of contingency is exemplified by an "if A, then B" relationship in which A and B, respectively, represent (AP99) (A) stimulus, response (B) Response, reinforcement (C) Stimulus, reinforcement (D) Response, stimulus (E) Stimulus, stimulus

80 Pavlov’s Experiments During conditioning, the neutral stimulus (tone) and the US (food) are paired, resulting in salivation (UR). After conditioning, the neutral stimulus (now Conditioned Stimulus, CS) elicits salivation (now Conditioned Response, CR) Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS): A stimulus that automatically and naturally triggers a response. Unconditioned Response (UCR): A unlearned, naturally occurring response to the unconditioned stimulus, like salivation in the dog when food is in the mouth. Conditioned Stimulus (CS): Originally a neutral stimulus that, after association with an unconditioned stimulus, comes to trigger a conditioned response. Conditioned Response (CR): A learned response to a previously neutral conditioned stimulus. 19 3. After several trials during which a dog is given a certain kind of food at the same time that a specific tone is sounded, there is evidence of conditioning if the dog salivates when (AP94) (A) The tone only is presented (B) The food only is presented (C) The food and tone are presented together (D) A different tone is presented with the food (E) A different kind of food is presented without a tone

81 Acquisition The CS needs to come half a second before the US for acquisition to occur. Because studies of learning show that events occurring close together in time are easier to associate than those occurring at widely different times, parents should probably avoid which of the following? (AP94) (A) Corporal punishment (B) Mild punishment (C) Consistent punishment (D) Inescapable punishment (E) Delay of punishment

82 Extinction When the US (food) does not follow the CS (tone), CR (salivation) begins to decrease and eventually causes extinction. Responses extinguish fastest when they are learned through which type of reinforcement schedule? (AP94) (A) Continuous (B) Negative (C) Variable-interval (D) Variable-ratio (E) Fixed-interval An individual's fear of dogs that is lost as the individual is exposed to dogs in nonthreatening situations is referred to by behaviorists as a fear that has been (AP99) (A) Satiated (B) Suppressed (C) Repressed (D) Extinguished (E) Punished A disappeared CS is called extinguished, not extinct.

83 Stimulus Generalization
Tendency to respond to stimuli similar to the CS is called generalization. Pavlov conditioned the dog’s salivation (CR) by using miniature vibrators (CS) on the thigh. When he subsequently stimulated other parts of the dog’s body, salivation dropped Can be adaptive, toddlers taught to fear cars…..and trucks and motorcycles etc. Or fear snake, fear all snakes 19 7. A two year old child is frightened by a small dog. A few weeks later the same child sees a cat and becomes frightened. The child’s reaction is most likely an example of which of the following? (AP04) (A) Stimulus discrimination (B) Second-order conditioning (C) Stimulus generalization (D) Sensory preconditioning (E) Spontaneous recovery

84 Stimulus Discrimination
Discrimination is the learned ability to distinguish between a conditioned stimulus and other stimuli that do not signal an unconditioned stimulus. Can be used to discover what various organisms perceive (A) Prototype matching to organize information into categories (B) Maintaining information in memory through repetition (C) Differential treatment, usually negative, based on group membership (D) Recognizing an object as distinct from its surroundings (E) Learning to respond differently to similar stimuli Which is a definition of discrimination that most directly applies to classical conditioning? (AP04)

85 Biological Predispositions
John Garcia Conditioned taste aversions Not all neutral stimuli can become conditioned stimuli. Internal stimuli—associate better with taste External stimuli—associate better with pain Biological preparedness Rats developed aversions to tastes but not sights or sounds Nausea could follow stimuli by several hours Get sick after a restaurant visit, you become averse to the taste of the food, not the plates, the shapes of the silverware, the friends you were with, the music you heard. John Garcia showed that when rats ingested a novel substance before becoming nauseated from radiation of drugs, the acquired a (AP04) (A) Conditioned taste preference for the substance (B) Generalized taste preference for similar substances (C) Conditioned taste aversion for the substance (D) Conditioned taste aversion for any novel substance (E) Conditioned taste preference for any novel substance Research indicates that many animals are more likely to associate sickness with a taste they experienced in conjunction with the illness than with a tone or light. This finding supports which of the following claims (AP04) (A) The tone or light must not have been appropriately paired with the onset of illness (B) Illness is not necessarily punishing to subjects (C) Animals may be biologically prepared to learn some things over other things (D) Extrinsic reinforcers may be more effective than intrinsic reinforcers (E) Positive reinforcers are more effective than punishers Rats in an experiment learned to associate sweetened water with a drug that causes immune suppression. Later, the sweetened water alone produced the immune suppression. This outcome is an example of which of the following? (AP04) (A) Learned helplessness (B) Systematic desensitization (C) Operant conditioning (D) Classical conditioning (E) Biofeedback Studies of learning have shown that animals develop an aversion for tastes associated with (AP99) (A) electric shock (B) Extinguished associations (C) Sickness (D) Novel stimuli (E) Starvation

86 Behaviorism John B. Watson viewed psychology as objective science
generally agreed-upon consensus today recommended study of behavior without reference to unobservable mental processes not universally accepted by all schools of thought today Unobservable mental processes – Cognition – thinking 1 or Which of the following statements is true of behaviorism? (AP94) (A) It was formulated to account for cognitive development. (B) It is rooted in Sigmund Freud's view of the importance of early experiences. (C) It focuses on the development of thought processes and knowledge. (D) It holds that development is largely a product of learning. (E) It emphasizes the dominance of heredity over environment.

87 Mary Cover Jones Mary Cover Jones used an
early form of desensitization to prove that fears (phobias) could be unlearned. Peter, a young boy, had an extreme fear of rabbits. Jones gave Peter his favorite food while slowly bringing the rabbit closer and closer. Eventually Peter no longer panicked around rabbits.

88 Shaping Shaping is the operant conditioning procedure in which reinforcers guide behavior towards the desired target behavior through successive approximations. Shape behavior in class The technique of strengthening behavior by reinforcing successive approximations is called (AP94) (A) Positive reinforcement (B) Negative reinforcement (C) Distributed practice (D) Modeling (E) Shaping Khamis Ramadhan/ Panapress/ Getty Images Fred Bavendam/ Peter Arnold, Inc. A rat shaped to sniff mines. A manatee shaped to discriminate objects of different shapes, colors and sizes.

89 Types of Reinforcers Reinforcement: Any event that strengthens the behavior it follows. A heat lamp positively reinforces a meerkat’s behavior in the cold. Preview Question 7: What are the basic types of reinforcers? Taking a painkiller to relieve a toothache is behavior learned through which of the following processes? (AP99) (A) Shaping (B) Punishment (C) Positive reinforcement (D) Negative reinforcement (E) Omission training Reuters/ Corbis

90 An aversive event that decreases the behavior it follows.
Punishment An aversive event that decreases the behavior it follows. Preview Question 9: How does punishment affect behavior? If a man who is a heavy smoker is given an electric shock every time he takes a puff on a cigarette, which of the following behavior-modification techniques is being used? (AP94) (A) Systematic desensitization (B) Modeling (C) Aversive conditioning (D) Homogeneous reinforcement (E) lnterlocking reinforcement Punishment is most effective in eliminating undesired behavior when the (AP99) (A) Behavior is complex (B) Behavior was very recently acquired (C) Punishment is delivered soon after the behavior (D) Punishment is delivered by someone with authority (E) Punishment is both mental and physical

91 Updating Skinner’s Understanding
Skinner’s emphasis on external control of behavior made him an influential, but controversial figure. Many psychologists criticized Skinner for underestimating the importance of cognitive and biological constraints. 19 7. One major objection to the early Skinnerian approach to psychology is that it (AP99) (A) Did not take into account internal thoughts and feelings (B) Did not take into account overt physical behaviors (C) Did not take into account accumulated experiences (D) Focused primarily on childhood experiences (E) Focused primarily on the unconscious

92 Learning by Observation
Higher animals, especially humans, learn through observing and imitating others. The monkey on the right imitates the monkey on the left in touching the pictures in a certain order to obtain a reward. Preview Question 12: What is observational learning? After seeing her parents give her brother a dollar for cleaning his room, Sarah begins to clean her own room. According to social-learning theorists, Sarah’s behavior is an example of which of the following? (AP04) (A) Classical conditioning (B) Spontaneous recovery (C) Stimulus generalization (D) Discrimination training (E) Observational learning © Herb Terrace ©Herb Terrace

93 Modeling Violence Research shows that viewing media violence leads to an increased expression of aggression. Interested in cutting murder rates in half? Homicide rates doubled from , coinciding with the introduction of TV . Regions late with the introduction of tv had homicide rates increase correspondingly later (US, Canada, South Africa) Elementary school children with high exposure to media violence involved in more fights themselves. Correlation no causation Other factors that cause lots of TV may be to blame? Neglect, poverty… Tested this by assigning groups to watch violent or non-violence. Violent TV leads to aggressive behavior, especially attractive people who commit seemingly justified violence that is unpunished, caused no visible pain or harm. The terms "modeling" and "imitation" are most closely associated with which of the following? (AP94) (A) Classical conditioning (B) Gestalt theory (C) Hypothesis testing (D) Operant conditioning (E) Social learning theory Bob Daemmrich/ The Image Works Glassman/ The Image Works Children modeling after pro wrestlers

94 Studying Memory: Information Processing Models
Preview Question 1: How do psychologists describe the human memory system? Link to memory at pbs/nova According to the information-processing view of memory, the first stage in memory processing involves (AP99) (A) Retrieval (B) Storage (C) Rehearsal (D) Encoding (E) Transfer Link to How Memory works at Nova Keyboard (Encoding) Disk (Storage) Monitor (Retrieval) How Memory Works Nova Sequential Process

95 Encoding: Serial Position Effect
12 Percentage of words recalled 90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 Position of word in list 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 11 Primacy – early on list Recency – Most recent Do serial position effect lab Elena is presented with a list of 20 numbers. When asked to recall this list, she remembers more numbers from the beginning than from the end of the list. This phenomenon demonstrates which of the following types of effect? (AP94) (A) Mnemonic (B) Primacy (C) Recency (D) Secondary (E) Clustering When a list of words is learned in order, the words most likely to be forgotten are those that are (AP99) (A) At the beginning of the list (B) At the end of the list (C) In the middle of the list (D) Hardest to pronounce (E) Easiest to spell

96 Chunking F-B-I-T-W-A-C-I-A-I-B-M FBI TWA CIA IBM
You already know the capacity of the working memory may be increased by “chunking.” Suppressing rehearsal reduces the amount we can remember to about 4 chunks of info (Cowan 2001) 21 8. When rehearsal of incoming information is prevented, which of the following will most likely occur? (AP94) (A) The information will remain indefinitely in short-term memory. (B) There will be no transfer of the information to long-term memory. (C) The sensory register will stop processing the information. (D) Retrieval of the information from long-term memory will be easier. (E) Information already in long-term memory will be integrated with the incoming F-B-I-T-W-A-C-I-A-I-B-M FBI TWA CIA IBM But you didn’t know that you can handle 4 chunks

97 Stress Hormones & Memory
Flashbulb memories are clear memories of emotionally significant moments or events. Heightened emotions (stress-related or otherwise) make for stronger memories. Flashbulb memories can sometimes error Heightened emotions (stress-related or otherwise) make for stronger memories. 21 or An individual's ability to remember the day he or she first swam the length of a swimming pool is most clearly an example of which of the following kinds of memory? (AP99) (A) Semantic (B) Flashbulb (C) Procedural (D) Priming (E) Episodic Scott Barbour/ Getty Images

98 Amnesias After losing his hippocampus in surgery, patient Henry M. (HM) remembered everything before the operation but could not make new memories. We call this anterograde amnesia. Damaged on purpose to control epilepsy, the surgery would never be done again, December 5, 2008 H. M., an Unforgettable Amnesiac, Dies at 82 By BENEDICT CAREY He knew his name. That much he could remember. He knew that his father’s family came from Thibodaux, La., and his mother was from Ireland, and he knew about the 1929 stock market crash and World War II and life in the 1940s. But he could remember almost nothing after that. In 1953, he underwent an experimental brain operation in Hartford to correct a seizure disorder, only to emerge from it fundamentally and irreparably changed. He developed a syndrome neurologists call profound amnesia. He had lost the ability to form new memories. For the next 55 years, each time he met a friend, each time he ate a meal, each time he walked in the woods, it was as if for the first time. John suffered a head injury in an accident five years ago. He now has clear memories of events that occurred before the accident, but he has great difficulty remembering any of the experiences he has had since the accident. John's symptoms describe (AP99) (A) anterograde amnesia (B) Broca's aphasia (C) cue-dependent forgetting (D) Selective amnesia (E) Retroactive interference Which of the following is and example of retrograde amnesia? (AP04) (A) Ty cannot recall the face of the thief he saw running from the scene of the crime (B) Cassie’s vivid memory of the explosion of the space shuttle Challenger is not corroborated by those she was with at the time (C) Alberto is unable to remember anything since the accident that destroyed portions of his hippocampus (D) Katie attributes her poor performance on a standardized test to the fact that she took the exam in a room other than the one that she learned the material. (E) Alyse cannot remember any details of what happened right before her car accident Link to How Memory Works at Nova Anterograde Amnesia (HM) Retrograde amnesia Memory Intact No New Memories Surgery No old memories Memory intact Surgery How memory works at Nova 10:15

99 Implicit & Explicit Memory
HM is unable to make new memories that are declarative (explicit), but he can form new memories that are procedural (implicit). HM learned the Tower of Hanoi (game) after his surgery. Each time he plays it, he is unable to remember the fact that he has already played the game. Also tracing figures in mirrors Started to have feeling he had seen a researcher…thought he might be in his HS class Also flattened affect, not that concerned about his situation Remembering how to roller skate involves which of the following kinds of memory? (AP04) (A) Semantic (B) Episodic (C) Priming (D) Procedural (E) Prospective So the formula for finding the number of steps it takes to transfer n disks from post A to post B is: 2^n - 1. From this formula you can see that even if it only takes the monks one second to make each move, it will be 2^ seconds before the world will end. This is 590,000,000,000 years (that's 590 billion years) - far, far longer than some scientists estimate the solar system will last. That's a really long time! C B A Towers of Hanoi Link

100 Forgetting as Interference
Learning some items may disrupt retrieval of other information Proactive (forward acting) Interference disruptive effect of prior learning on recall of new information Retroactive (backwards acting) Interference disruptive effect of new learning on recall of old information What's interfering? Past information?  Match the P's (Proactive interference) Recent information?  Match the R's (Retroactive interference) Passwords, locker combinations, phone numbers for example When Shelly first had cable television service installed, Public broadcasting (PBS) was on channel 9. Her cable company then switched PBS to channel 16. Shelly now has trouble remembering that PBS is on channel 16 and not on channel 9. This memory problem represents (AP04) (A)Memory decay (B)Retrograde amnesia (C)Reconstructive errors (D)Retroactive interference (E)Proactive interference

101 Thinking Concept Prototype
mental grouping of similar objects, events, ideas, or people Prototype mental image or best example of a category matching new items to the prototype provides a quick and easy method for including items in a category (as when comparing feathered creatures to a prototypical bird, such as a robin) We form some concepts with definitions. For example, a triangle has three sides. Mostly, we form concepts with mental images or typical examples (prototypes). For example, a robin is a prototype of a bird, but a penguin is not. Incorporates all the features we associate with a category (Rosch 1978) We recognize things closer to prototypes more quickly A prototype is best defined as (AP94) (A) An example of habituation (B) An example of bottom-up processing (C) The equivalent of feature abstraction (D) The hypothetical "most typical" instance of a category (E) An essential element of category membership

102 S P L O Y O C H Y G Algorithms
Algorithms, which are very time consuming, exhaust all possibilities before arriving at a solution. Computers use algorithms. Processing every possible combination of the letters DBRI to arrive at the word BIRD is an example of the use of (AP99) (A) An algorithm (B) An expert system (C) An inference rule (D) A hypothesis (E) A heuristic S P L O Y O C H Y G If we were to unscramble these letters to form a word using an algorithmic approach, we would face 907,200 possibilities.

103 Heuristics Heuristics are simple, thinking strategies that allow us to make judgments and solve problems efficiently. Heuristics are less time consuming, but more error-prone than algorithms. Look for guava juice in the juice isle or ethnic food section…may find it quicker, may not find it at all. The practice of solving problems by using a mental shortcut is an example of (AP04) (A) An insightful operation (B) A confirmation bias (C) A hypothesis test (D) The use of a heuristic (E) The use of an algorithm B2M Productions/Digital Version/Getty Images

104 Thought Puzzle #1 What got in the way of solving this problem?
Mental Set - Old pattern of problem solving is applied to a new problem. Functional Fixedness – A tendency to think about familiar objects in familiar ways which may prevent more creative use of those objects to solve the problem. A teacher asks students to think of as many uses for a brick as possible. By listing 50 uses, most of which the class finds new and unusual, Susan is displaying (AP94) (A) Computational learning (B) paired-associate learning (C) Hypothetical thinking (D) Divergent thinking (E) Convergent thinking

105 Fixation Fixation: An inability to see a problem from a fresh perspective. This impedes problem solving. An example of fixation is functional fixedness. Stuck container in drain as an example On a fishing trip, Ed realizes that he has mistakenly packed the sewing box instead of the tackle box. He wants to fish but returns home because he does not have any line or hooks. Ed's failure to realize that sewing thread can be used as fishing line and that a bent needle can be used as a hook is an example of (AP94) (A) Poor problem representation (B) Cognitive accommodation (C) Backward masking (D) Functional fixedness (E) Proactive interference The Matchstick Problem: How would you arrange six matches to form four equilateral triangles? From “Problem Solving” by M. Scheerer. Copyright © 1963 by Scientific American, Inc. All Rights Reserved.

106 Thinking Belief Bias Belief Perseverance
the tendency for one’s preexisting beliefs to distort logical reasoning sometimes by making invalid conclusions seem valid or valid conclusions seem invalid Belief Perseverance clinging to one’s initial conceptions after the basis on which they were formed has been discredited Belief perseverance is the tendency to cling to our beliefs in the face of contrary evidence. If you see that a country is hostile, you are likely to interpret their ambiguous actions as a sign of hostility (Jervis, 1985). Study took two groups, one supported capital punishment, one opposed…given new findings…each group interpreted findings to fit their beliefs. Implications for racism, gangs, republican/democrat Cure for belief bias….consider the opposite, asked to consider opposite groups were more objective. 2 37. A student who strongly believes that genetic influence is the major contributor to human personality is analyzing data gathered about identical twins who had been separated at birth and reunited at adulthood. The student observes many striking similarities in personality and habits within the twin pairs but does not notice differences within the twin pairs that might argue against the student’s belief. This students behavior illustrates which of the following? (AP04) (A) Confirmation bias (B) The availability heuristic (C) An algorithmic error (D) Metacognition (E) A mnemonic Magic and the brain at PBS Magic and the Brain at PBS

107 Unforgettable = un · for · get · table
Language Structure Morpheme: The smallest unit that carries a meaning. It may be a word or part of a word. For example: Milk = milk Pumpkin = pump . kin Unforgettable = un · for · get · table Grammar a system of rules in a language that enables us to communicate with and understand others A word or part of a word that is in itself meaningful, but that cannot be broken into smaller meaningful units, is called a (AP94) (A) Grapheme (B) Morpheme (C) Phoneme (D) performative (E) Holophrase morpheme: a combination of sounds that have a meaning. A morpheme does not necessarily have to be a word. Example: the word cats has two morphemes. Cat is a morpheme, and s is a morpheme. Every morpheme is either a base or an affix. An affix can be either a prefix or a suffix. Cat is the base morpheme, and s is a suffix.

108 Language Semantics Syntax
the set of rules by which we derive meaning from morphemes, words, and sentences in a given language also, the study of meaning Syntax the rules for combining words into grammatically sensible sentences in a given language Bernstein Fatal accidents deter careful drivers Snows sudden floods melting cause Semantics: Rapid bouquets deter sudden neighbors…syntactically correct but not semantically correct. The rules of grammar are rules of (AP99) (A) Phonemes (B) Morphemes (C) Syntax (D) Semantics (E) Pragmatics

109 Explaining Language Development cont.
2. Inborn Universal Grammar: Chomsky (1959, 1987) opposed Skinner’s ideas and suggested that the rate of language acquisition is so fast that it cannot be explained through learning principles, and thus most of it is inborn. Children generate sentences they have never heard Sometimes novel errors Language will naturally occur Language acquisition device in place Universal grammar, all human languages have the same grammatical building blocks, nouns, verbs, subjects etc. Pinker agrees, he is the current foremost theorist. Noam Chomsky's view of language proposes that (AP99) (A) There is an inherent language acquisition device (B) Thinking is merely subvocal language (C) Different levels of language ability are hereditarily determined (D) Language acquisition can be explained by social modeling (E) Language is learned principally through verbal reinforcement

110 Language Influences Thinking
Linguistic Determinism (Whorf hypothesis): language determines the way we think. For example, he noted that the Hopi people do not have the past tense for verbs. Therefore, the Hopi cannot think readily about the past. Link Whorf (1956) Language and thinking intricately intertwine. Bilinguals may show different personalities when tested in different languages. Tribesmen in brazil have numbers for 1, 2 and more than that is many. They have difficulty with 1 to 1 correspondence. Put out 7 and ask them to put out the same number and they have difficulty (Gordon 2004) Naming arrows Bernstein…English speakers have more difficulty understanding place value eleven vs. Ship-il in Korean, which means ten-one English speakers have a harder time understanding math compared to many Asian languages. We say what is thirtyseven plus twenty-two, the Chinese say what is three ten seven and two tens two, the structure is implicit in the language…(Outliers, Malcom Gladwel) Average 4yo Chinese can count to 40, average 4yo American can count to 15, and can’t do 40 until they are 5 so they are already behind. …(Outliers, Malcom Gladwel) We say three/fifths many Asian languages say out of 5 parts take 3…(Outliers, Malcom Gladwel) According to Benjamin Whorfs linguistic relativity hypothesis, which of the following is true? (AP94) (A) lndividuals have a natural predisposition to learn language. (B) Individuals learn positive instances of concepts faster than they learn negative instances. (C) Children learn their first language from their relatives and their peer group. (D) Different languages predispose those individuals who speak them to think about the world in different ways. (E) Children learn quantifying words such as "more" and "further" sooner than they do absolutes such as "every" and "all." AM The Mind 28. Language and Culture Relates to language development, the nature versus nature debate, and cultural influences on behavior. Whorf hypothesis in interpersonal communication

111 Insight Chimpanzees show insightful behavior when solving problems.
Keith Chen, working with monkeys and economies, monkeys can trade tokens for food…capuchins….when food prices rose they bought less, when they fell they bought more… Showed loss aversion, …gambling game…sometimes a two grape researcher withheld a second grape, sometimes a one grape researcher added a bonus grape,….monkeys preferred the bonus grape condition. A monkey gave another monkey a token for….sex,…first case of monkey prostitution ever. (Superfreakonomics) Kohler, animals appear to like problem solving Wolfgang Kohler considered a chimpanzee's sudden solving of a problem evidence of (AP99) (A) Instinct (B) Modeling (C) Learning set (D) Insight (E) Spontaneous recovery Chimp Problem solving: Sultan uses sticks to get food.

112 General Intelligence Spearman proposed that general intelligence (g) is linked to many clusters that can be analyzed by factor analysis. Charles Spearman ( ) Factor analysis identifies clusters of related items Which of the following methods is used in studies designed to determine the primary components of intelligence? (AP99) (A) Test-retest (B) Alternate forms (C) Random sampling (D) Factor analysis (E) Standardization For example, people who do well on vocabulary examinations do well on paragraph comprehension examinations, a cluster that helps define verbal intelligence. Other factors include a spatial ability factor, and a reasoning ability factor.

113 Alfred Binet Alfred Binet practiced a modern form of intelligence testing by developing questions that would predict children’s future progress in the Paris school system. Identify kids with special needs in France in 1904 Assuming development follows same course -some develop more rapidly -brighter kids would be ahead in development and answer “older” questions The goal was to measure mental age Alfred Binet’s most important contribution to psychology was in the area of (AP04) (A )Intelligence testing (B )Visual perception (C) Psychopathology (D) Comparative psychology (E) Classical conditioning

114 The following is the formula of Intelligence Quotient (IQ)
Lewis Terman In the US, Lewis Terman adapted Binet’s test for American school children and named the test the Stanford-Binet Test. The following is the formula of Intelligence Quotient (IQ) Terman worked at Stanford French age norms worked poorly in the US Intelligence Quotient introduced by William Stern: Mental age = chronological age then IQ = 100 Does not work for adults Assess performance relative to the average performance of others the same age Average is 100 and 2/3 of people are between 85 and 115 The intelligence quotient (IQ) has traditionally been based on the relationship between an individual's mental age and his or her (AP94) (A) Stage of cognitive development (B) Level of physiological development (C) Reading ability (D) Chronological age (E) Quantitative aptitude According to the Stanford-Binet formula for an intelligence quotient (IQ), the IQ of a ten year- old child with a mental age of eight and a half years is (AP99) (A) 85 (B) 95 (C) 100 (D) 105 (E) 115

115 Normal Curve Standardized tests establish a normal distribution of scores on a tested population in a bell-shaped pattern called the normal curve. The performance of the group on which an IQ test is standardized sets the (AP99) (A) Method of administration most suitable for the test (B) Extent to which IQ is determined by environment (C) Criteria for the diagnostic significance of intelligence (D) Degree of validity of the IQ test (E) Norms against which the performance of later test takers can be evaluated

116 Validity Reliability of a test does not ensure validity. Validity of a test refers to what the test is supposed to measure or predict. Predictive power of tests lessens as you get older. Past grades are better predictors. Tests not as predictive as they are reliable. Which of the following is the most appropriate criterion for evaluating the predictive validity of an intelligence test? (AP99) (A) Intelligence quotient (B) Mental age (C) Chronological age (D) Scholastic aptitude (E) School grades A test that fails to predict what it is designed to predict lacks (AP04) (A )Standardization (B) Norms (C) Fairness (D )Validity (E) Reliability Content Validity: Refers to the extent a test measures a particular behavior or trait. Predictive Validity: Refers to the function of a test in predicting a particular behavior or trait.

117 Genetic Influences Studies of twins, family members, and adopted children together support the idea that there is a significant genetic contribution to intelligence. Intelligence scores of identical twins reared together match very well. (test reliability .9) so .85 is very high. Scores of fraternal twins are less similar 70% of intelligence score variation attributed to genetics (bochard 1996) Identical twins similar amounts of grey matter (Thompson 2001) Researchers have used genetics to make mice that learn more quickly. (Tsien 2000) The hypothesis that intelligence is in part inherited is best supported by the fact that the IQ correlation for (AP94) (A) Pairs of twins reared together is greater than the correlation for pairs of twins reared apart (B) Pairs of identical twins is greater than for pairs of fraternal twins (C) Pairs of fraternal twins is greater than the correlation for other pairs of siblings (D) Adopted children and their adoptive parents is greater than zero (E) Adopted children and their adoptive parents is greater than the correlation for the same children and their biological parents The correlations between the IQ scores of identical twins reared apart are lower than those of identical twins reared together. This difference is best explained by which of the following? (AP04) (A )Heredity plays an important role in determining IQ (B) Environment plays an important role in determining IQ (C )Heredity plays no role in determining IQ (D )Environment plays no role in determining IQ (E) Heredity and environment play an equal role in determining IQ

118 Drive Reduction Theory Cont.
Primary Drives Unlearned Food Water Temperature regulation Secondary Drives Learned Money Shelter Job Problem with Drive-Reduction – once homeostasis is achieved we’d never do anything Not just balance we’re looking for Drive reduction as a motivational concept is best exemplified by which of the following? (AP99) (A) The sweet taste of chocolate (B) Electric stimulation to the pleasure center of the brain (C) A monkey using its tail as a fifth limb to climb higher in a tree (D) The injection of heroin by an addict to avoid withdrawal symptoms (E) The enjoyment of a frightening movie Drive Reduction Food Empty Stomach (Food Deprived) Stomach Full Organism

119 -tendency to maintain a balanced or constant internal state
Homeostasis -tendency to maintain a balanced or constant internal state -regulation of any aspect of body chemistry around a particular level Drives may be an upset in homeostasis, inducing behavior to correct the imbalance Animals do behave in accordance with their tissue needs (e.g., increasing or decreasing caloric intake, drive for salt) However, homeostasis cannot explain all drives Temperature regulation is an example Theories of motivation that assert the existence of biological motives to maintain the body in a steady state are called (AP94) (A) Mechanistic (B) Homeostatic (C) reductionistic (D) Genetic (E) Instinctual

120 Hierarchy of Needs Order not universally fixed
Self esteem matters most in individualistic nations According to Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following statements is true? (AP94) (A) Individuals may have peak experiences when meeting physiological needs. (B) Self-actualization will always precede the meeting of needs for esteem. (C) There are cultural differences in the rate at which individuals attain self-actualization. (D) Women are more likely to reach self-actualization than men are. (E) Physiological needs must be met before an individual achieves self-actualization. In Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, living up to one’s potential and striving for personal fulfillment are referred to as (AP04) (A) Biological needs (B) Aesthetic needs (C) Physiological needs (D) Belonging needs (E) Self-actualization needs

121 Body Chemistry & the Brain
Levels of glucose in the blood are monitored by receptors (neurons) in the stomach, liver, and intestines. They send signals to the hypothalamus in the brain. Insulin and Glucose are two substances in the blood that are critical in regulating hunger levels The glucose level in blood is maintained. 26 1. An individual experiencing a low blood-glucose level would be best advised to do which of the following? (AP99) (A) Take a nap (B) Eat a snack (C) Drink a glass of water (D) Drink a diet soda (E) Get some exercise Rat Hypothalamus Glucose Molecule

122 Hypothalamus & Hormones
The hypothalamus monitors a number of hormones that are related to hunger. 32. Hunger and eating are primarily regulated by which of the following? (AP94) (A) Androgens (B) Estrogens (C) The hypothalamus (D) The kidneys (E) The medulla oblongata A brain tumor that results in obesity would most likely be located in the (AP99) (A) Left frontal lobe (B) Base of the brain stem (C) Area of the hypothalamus (D) Reticular activating system (E) somatosensory cortex Hormone Tissue Response Orexin increase Hypothalamus Increases hunger Ghrelin increase Stomach Insulin increase Pancreas Leptin increase Fat cells Decreases hunger PPY increase Digestive tract

123 Motivation-Hunger Set Point Basal Metabolic Rate
the point at which an individual’s “weight thermostat” is supposedly set when the body falls below this weight, an increase in hunger and a lowered metabolic rate may act to restore the lost weight Basal Metabolic Rate body’s base rate of energy expenditure Which of the following terms is used in hunger and weight control research to denote the concept that each person has a body fat level that remains fixed and resistant to change? (AP04) (A) Hyperphagia (B) Hypophagia (C) Glucagon theory (D) Set point (E) Metabolic conversion

124 Industrial-Organizational (I/O) Psychology Overview
Applies psychological principles to the workplace. Leadership, job satisfaction, and employee motivation are all studied in which of the following psychological disciplines? (AP94) (A) Human factors psychology (B) Industrial-organizational psychology (C) Community psychology (D) Counseling psychology (E) Experimental psychology Personnel Psychology: Studies the principles of selecting and evaluating workers. Organizational Psychology: Studies how work environments and management styles influence worker motivation, satisfaction, and productivity. Human Factors Psychology: Explores how machines and environments can be designed to fit our natural perception.

125 Sources of Achievement Motivation
Why does one person become more motivated to achieve than another? Parents and teachers have an influence on the roots of motivation. Preview Question 16: Why are some of us more than others driven to excel? Leadership, job satisfaction, and employee motivation are all studied in which of the following psychological disciplines? (AP94) (A) Human factors psychology (B) Industrial-organizational psychology (C) Community psychology (D) Counseling psychology (E) Experimental psychology Carla tutors other students because she likes to be helpful, whereas Jane tutors classmates strictly for pay. Their behaviors demonstrate the difference between (AP94) (A) Primary and secondary drives (B) Instinctive and derived drives (C) Appetitive and aversive motivation (D) Intrinsic and extrinsic motivation (E) Positive and negative reinforcement 9. Rudolph spends hours painting in his studio, even though he sells few pictures. Which of the following explains Rudolph’s creative productivity? (AP04) (A)Functional fixedness (B)Inductive reasoning (C)Intrinsic motivation (D)Incubation (E)Heuristics 28? 35. Which of the following is most likely to characterize the behavior of students who have high achievement motivation and are intrinsically motivated to play a musical instrument? (AP04) (A)If promised a reward for practicing a difficult piece of music selected by the teacher, they will practice more than if they selected the piece themselves. (B)If permitted to choose there own pieces of music, they will select very difficult ones that are beyond their present ability to play. (C)If permitted to choose their own pieces of music, they will select easy pieces that they can master in one practice session. (D)If permitted to choose their own pieces of music, they will select moderately difficult pieces that they can master if they practice them conscientiously. (E)They will enjoy practicing the piano more if their parents promise them a reward for mastering each piano piece. Emotional roots: learning to associate achievement with positive emotions. Cognitive roots: learning to attribute achievements to one’s own competence, thus raising expectations of oneself.

126 Setting Specific, Challenging Goals
Specific measurable objectives -Direct Attention -Promote Effort -Motivate Persistence -Stimulate Creative Strategies When you are involved in setting goal you are more focused. All of the following are conditions that may lead to conflict within organizations EXCEPT (AP04) (A) Scarce resources (B) Jurisdictional ambiguity (C) Inequities in status (D) Insufficient communication (E) Superordinate goals Specific challenging goals motivate people to reach higher achievement levels, especially if there is feedback such as progress reports.

127 James-Lange Theory James-Lange Theory proposes that physiological activity precedes the emotional experience. William James and Carl Lange proposed an idea that was diametrically opposed to the common-sense view. Supported by observations of people with severed spinal cords. Those with lower spinal damage reported little change in their emotions, those paralyzed neck down reported significant decrease in emotional intensity. Reported increases in emotions above neck, weeping, lumps in throat, choked up (Hohmann 1966) In the James-Lange theory of emotion, which of the following immediately precedes an emotion? (AP99) (A) Observation of the external stimulus (B) Recollection of similar past experiences (C) Experience of physiological changes (D) Appraisal of cognitive factors (E) Initiation of a fixed-action pattern

128 Schachter and Singer’s Two-Factor Theory
Our physiology and cognitions create emotions. Emotions have two factors–physical arousal and cognitive label. Stanley Schachter and Jerome Singer proposed yet another theory which suggests Labeling arousal depends on attribution, the process of identifying the cause of an event. Gave epinephrine injections to people, some told side effects of injections others were not. Ones told their feeling was a side effect had not emotions. If told there was no side effects they “caught” the emotion of a researchers accomplice (Schacter & Singer 1962) This state experienced as two different emotions. Racing heart, rapid breathing, perspiration Last seconds of a close basketball game…excitement Before a big exam…anxiety With your hot significant other…sexual arousal Theory not widely accepted according to Bernstein. The two components of Schachter and Singer’s theory of emotion are (AP04) (A)Love and anger (B)Instinct and motivation (C)Instinct and brain activation (D)Physiological arousal and cognitive assessment (E)Physiological arousal and behavior

129 Culture and Emotional Expression
When culturally diverse people were shown basic facial expressions, they did fairly well at recognizing them (Matsumoto & Ekman, 1989). Preview Question 6: Are nonverbal expressions of emotion universally understood? The view that human emotions are universal has been supported by studies of (AP94) (A) Facial expressions (B) Body language (C) Linguistic structures (D) Hedonic relevance (E) Biological symmetry 30 9. One of the consistent research findings in the area of facial expressions and emotion is the (AP99) (A) Universality of facial expressions across cultures (B) Vast differences in facial expressions between males and females (C) Ease with which people can learn to change their facial expressions under differing circumstances (D) Way children's facial expressions differ from adults' (E) Way in which individuals' facial expressions change as they get older Elkman & Matsumoto, Japanese and Caucasian Facial Expression of Emotion

130 Catharsis Hypothesis Venting anger through action or fantasy ----achieves an emotional release or “catharsis.” Preview Question 8: What are the causes and consequences of anger? Giving laid off employees a chance to “vent” increased their hostility. (Ebbsen 1975) Anger breeds anger, venting anger is like using gasoline to put out a fire. How to deal with anger, wait, allow arousal to cool, then exercise, talk to friends etc. Practice forgiveness (witvliet 2001) monitored subjects as they mentally rehearsed forgiveness. Perspiration, blood pressure, heart rate, facial tension all lower. Which of the following findings would support an interpretation of aggression as catharsis? (AP99) (A) Societies that value aggressive sports are generally less aggressive than societies that do not value aggressive sports. (B) On average, levels of aggression are about equal across all societies. (C) Aggressiveness in societies correlates highly with the average annual temperature. (D) Societies in which media content is particularly aggressive are more aggressive than societies that have less violent media content. (E) In most societies, aggression among individuals waxes and wanes with age. Opposing Theory-- Expressing anger breeds more anger, and through reinforcement it is habit-forming.

131 General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)
According to Selye, a stress response to any kind of stimulation is similar. The stressed individual goes through three phases. Like a burglar alarm that sounds no matter what intrudes. Phase 1 Heart rate zooms, blood diverted to skeletal muscles Phase 2 Blood pressure and temp up and hormones are released (persistent stress depletes your reserves) Phase 3 Exhaustion makes you more vulnerable to illness In rats stress can cut life span by 1/6th Catecholamines may interact with sex hormones to make men’s stress and women's stress different (Taylor 2000 in Bernstein) Differences appear around adolescence (Allen 1997 in Bernstein) Which of the following are the stages in Hans Selye's general adaptation syndrome? (AP94) (A) Appraisal, stress response, coping (B) Shock, anger, self-control (C) Anxiety, fighting, adapting (D) Alarm, resistance, exhaustion (E) Attack, flight, defense Hans Selye's general adaptation syndrome is an attempt to explain (AP99) (A) Personality traits (B) Artificial intelligence (C) Memory organization (D) Organic retardation (E) Reactions to stress EPA/ Yuri Kochetkov/ Landov

132 Stress and the Heart Stress that leads to elevated blood pressure may result in coronary heart disease, a clogging of the vessels that nourish the heart muscle. Preview Question 12: Why are some of us more prone than others to coronary heart disease? Leading cause of death since the 50’s Freidman measured blood cholesterol and clotting speed of accountants, Jan-March indicators normal April through the roof May & June levels return to normal 1956 Studying eating behavior of SF women & found women had less chance of heart disease when they ate as much cholesterol and fat as their husbands (Freidman 1984) Female hormones not a factor, women in lower socioeconomic classes had more heart disease. 31 6. A hostile person with a type A personality is most at risk for developing which of the following? (AP99) (A) Phobias (B) Heart disease (C) Bulimia nervosa (D) Multiple personality (E) Antisocial personality Plaque in coronary artery Artery clogged

133 Stress and Colds People with the highest life stress scores were also the most vulnerable when exposed to an experimental cold virus. Studied subjects kept 3ft apart for 3 days, monitored for mucus etc, Punch wounds heal more quickly on summer vacation than 3 days before a big exam (glasser 1998) Greg stays up all night during finals week studying for exams. As the week progresses, his muscles tighten and he develops a stiff neck. By the last day of finals, he is taking more frequent breaks, leaning back in the desk chair, and staring off into space. He arrives for the last test with a sore throat and headache. Which of the following best describes Greg’s response to stress? (AP04) (A) General adaption syndrome (B) Object-relations theory (C) Opponent-process theory (D) Two-factor theory (E) Type B behavioral pattern

134 Dream Analysis Another method to analyze the unconscious mind is through interpreting manifest and latent contents of dreams. Manifest: Remembered content Latent: unconscious wishes 33 7. Sigmund Freud believed that dream analysis was a useful device for (AP94) (A) Decreasing repression (B) Sublimating the id (C) Strengthening the superego (D) Displacing instinctual forces (E) Gaining insight into unconscious motives Freud kept a dream diary from his youth (biog vid) Wrote his influential dream book after conducting analysis of himself. (Biog vid) Painting The Nightmare, Henry Fuseli (1791)

135 Humanistic Perspective
Focuses on mental capabilities that set humans apart; self awareness, creativity, planning, decision making, responsibility. Preview Question 7: What did humanistic psychologists view as the central feature of personality, and what was their goal in studying personality? Behavior motivated mainly by an innate drive toward growth that prompts people to fulfill their unique potential. People naturally inclined toward goodness. By the 1960s, psychologists became discontent with Freud’s negativity and the mechanistic psychology of the behaviorists. Focused on the ways “healthy” people strive for self-determination & self-realization At third-force perspective that emphasizes human potential & seeing the world through the person’s eyes. 34? 68. The psychologists who first developed encounter groups and sensitivity-training groups based their work on which of the following approaches to therapy? (AP04) (A) Psychodynamic (B) Humanistic (C) Behavioral (D) Cognitive (E) Biological Abraham Maslow ( ) Carl Rogers ( )

136 Self-Actualizing Person
Maslow proposed that we as individuals are motivated by a hierarchy of needs. Beginning with physiological needs, we try to reach the state of self-actualization—fulfilling our potential. Actualizing tendency- an innate inclination toward growth that motivates all people. Developed his ideas studying healthy creative people rather than troubled clinical cases. Self actualization – an accurate experience of the self with all its preferences, abilities, fantasies, shortcomings & desires - if your self concept is distorted then you cant achieve self actualization. An important difference between humanistic and psychoanalytic approaches is that humanistic psychologists believe in the importance of (AP99) (A) Learning (B) Freewill (C) Determinism (D) Biological instincts (E) Unconscious processes According to Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following statements is true? (AP94) (A) Individuals may have peak experiences when meeting physiological needs. (B) Self-actualization will always precede the meeting of needs for esteem. (C) There are cultural differences in the rate at which individuals attain self-actualization. (D) Women are more likely to reach self-actualization than men are. (E) Physiological needs must be met before an individual achieves self-actualization. In Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, living up to one’s potential and striving for personal fulfillment are referred to as (AP04) (A) Biological needs (B) Aesthetic needs (C) Physiological needs (D) Belonging needs (E) Self-actualization needs

137 Person-Centered Perspective
Carl Rogers also believed in an individual's self-actualization tendencies. He said that Unconditional Positive Regard is an attitude of acceptance of others despite their failings. People basically good, to solve someone's problems you need to see the world through their eyes. All behavior seen as meaningful to the person doing it. Our growth promoting climate requires 3 conditions – genuineness, acceptance and empathy People nurture our growth by being genuine Accepting – Unconditional positive regard Empathetic – sharing our feelings According to Carl Rogers, the role of the therapist in person-centered psychotherapy is to (AP94) (A) Accept the client unconditionally so that the client's own desire for mental health and positive growth will flourish (B) Express warmth and empathy and suppress negative feelings that arise in the relationship with the client (C) Use a didactic approach to teach the client to correct maladaptive behavior (D) Establish behavior-change programs to alter the problematic behavior that is often learned in early childhood (E) Define ideal characteristics of mental health for the client and to encourage the client to incorporate these elements in his or her personality Michael Rougier/ Life Magazine © Time Warner, Inc.

138 Evaluating the Trait Perspective
The Person-Situation Controversy Walter Mischel (1968, 1984, 2004) points out that traits may be enduring, but the resulting behavior in various situations is different. Therefore, traits are not good predictors of behavior. Preview Question 13: Does research support the consistency of personality traits over time and across situations? Psychologists who emphasize the importance of personality traits are most often criticized for (AP99) (A) being naive and overly optimistic (B) Being subjective in interpreting unverifiable phenomena (C) Overestimating the number of basic traits (D) Underestimating the role of emotions (E) Underestimating the variability of behavior from situation to situation In some ways personality stable over time situationally different.

139 Self efficacy: learned expectations about probability of success
Personal Control External locus of control refers to the perception that chance or outside forces beyond our personal control determine our fate. Internal locus of control refers to the perception that we can control our own fate. Self efficacy: learned expectations about probability of success Preview Question 15: What are the causes and consequences of personal control? Individuals who accept personal responsibility for their life experiences may be characterized as having (AP04) (A) Unrealistic expectations (B) Delusions of grandeur (C) An internal locus of control (D) A pessimistic view of reality (E) An introverted personality Social-cognitive psychologists emphasize our sense of personal control, whether we control the environment or the environment controls us. Internals achieved more in school, act independently, enjoy better health and feel less depressed than externals (Bachman 1998) Better able to delay gratification, good adjustment, better grades & social success (Who wants to be around someone who blames others?)

140 Learned Helplessness When unable/unwilling to avoid repeated adverse events an animal or human learns helplessness. Learned helplessness – Passive resignation Research w/dogs unable to avoid shocks learned helplessness (Sleigman 1975) Put in a new situation they still remained hopeless. Aaron Beck suggested that negative beliefs cause depression. To help change these negative beliefs, Beck used which f the following therapies? (AP04) (A) Cognitive (B) Psychopharmacological (C) Rational-emotive (D) Psychoanalytic (E) Social-learning Low self efficacy

141 Deviant, Distressful & Dysfunctional
Deviant behavior in one culture may be considered normal, while in others it may lead to arrest. Deviant behavior must accompany distress. If a behavior is dysfunctional it is clearly a disorder. Wodaabe clip at youtube Exceptional athletes are deviant but this does not cause distress In the Wodaabe tribe men wear costumes to attract women. In Western society this would be considered abnormal. In cultures with ancestor worship talking to the dead may seem rational Contemporary definitions of abnormal behavior typically characterize such behavior as all of the following EXCEPT (AP99) (A) Atypical (B) Maladaptive (C) Inappropriate (D) due to inappropriate child-rearing practices (E) Disturbing to the individual exhibiting the behavior Contemporary definitions of abnormality might include all of the following criteria EXCEPT (AP04) (A)Maladaptiveness (B)Personal distress or discomfort (C)Deviance from cultural norms (D)Gender (E)Statistical Prevalence Carol Beckwith Woodabe clip at youtube

142 Goals of DSM Describe (400) disorders. Determine how prevalent the disorder is. DSM V coming out soon 60 disorders in the 50’s 36 3. The basic purpose of the DSM-IV-TR is to (AP04) (A) Provide a set of diagnostic categories for classifying psychological disorders (B) Provide a clear distinction between neurosis and psychosis (C) Describe the psychoanalytic approach to psychological disorders (D) Describe internal personality factors that are involved in psychological disorders (E)Identify childhood experiences that contribute to psychological disorders Disorders outlined by DSM-IV are reliable. Therefore, diagnoses by different professionals are similar. Others criticize DSM-IV for “putting any kind of behavior within the compass of psychiatry.”

143 Feelings of excessive apprehension and anxiety.
Anxiety Disorders Feelings of excessive apprehension and anxiety. Preview Question 5: What are anxiety disorders, and how do they differ from ordinary worries and fears we all experience? Including maladaptive behaviors that reduce anxiety. 37 6. Distrust of others is symptomatic of (AP94) (A) Mania (B) Dementia (C) Catatonia (D) Paranoia (E) hebephrenia Not sure this belongs here Generalized anxiety disorder Panic disorder Phobias Obsessive-compulsive disorder Post-traumatic stress disorder

144 Panic Disorder Symptoms
Smokers 2-4 times more likely to have panic disorders. 1 in 75 have panic attacks Smokers 2-4x more likely to have panic disorder 37 3. Phobic and panic disturbances are examples of which of the following kinds of disorder? (AP99) (A) Personality (B) Schizophrenic (C) Anxiety (D) Somatoform (E) Dissociative Minutes-long episodes of intense dread which may include feelings of terror, chest pains, choking, or other frightening sensations. Anxiety is a component of both disorders. It occurs more in the panic disorder, making people avoid situations that cause it.

145 Arachnophobia at National Geographic Link
Kinds of Phobias Agoraphobia Phobia of open places. Favorite phobia project Agoraphobia – also places not easy to escape from Triskaidekaphobia (from Greek tris meaning "3," kai meaning "and," and deka meaning "10") is fear of the number 13 Androphobia Fear of men - The fear of coming in contract with, engaging in activities or becoming intimate with men. Coitophobia Fear of sexual intercourse - can affect both men and women. The act of intercourse is not the challenge, it is the rejection, trust, self worth, guilt, shame and hurt from past experiences that have been associated to the event. Nomophobia: fear of being out of mobile-phone coverage Which of the following treatments is most frequently used to eliminate specific phobias? (AP04) (A) Antidepressant drugs (B) Systematic desensitization (C) Implosion therapy (D) Psychoanalysis (E) Aversion therapy Acrophobia at National Geographic 22:27 Claustrophobia at National Geographic 22:28 Acrophobia Phobia of heights link. Claustrophobia Phobia of closed spaces Link . Hemophobia Phobia of blood. Arachnophobia at National Geographic Link

146 Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
Persistence of repetitive thoughts (obsessions) and urges to engage in repetitive behaviors (compulsions) that cause distress. Abnormal focus on things Affects 2-3% of people onset usually in late teens or twenties Effective function becomes impossible 1/5 recover, symptoms seem to lessen somewhat with age. Tesla appears to have suffered from symptoms of obsessive-compulsive disorder. His obsessions included phobias of dirt and germs, and of the number three. Tesla's compulsions included doing everything in sets of three. He worked in solitude, as interacting with ordinary humans was difficult. Perhaps this explains why, in his later years, Tesla claimed to have contacted beings from the planet Venus. Persistent repetitive thoughts that cannot be controlled are known as (AP94) (A) Compulsions (B) Obsessions (C) Phobias (D) Delusions (E) Sublimations

147 Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Four or more weeks of the following symptoms constitute post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD): 8.5% in Manhattan after 9/11, but 9/10 not pathological 4 mo. later 20% near the World Trade Center 32% of Vietnam vets in heavy combat, 10% among those who had never seen combat. 1/6 combat infantry has reported symptoms. 37 4. An individual survives a period of captivity and exhibits behaviors that include anxiety, inability to concentrate, depression, edginess, and the re experience of stressful events. These symptoms illustrate which of the following disorders? (AP04) (A )Generalized anxiety (B) Major depression (C) Hypochondriasis (D) Histrionic (E) Posttraumatic stress Haunting memories 2. Nightmares 3. Social withdrawal 4. Jumpy anxiety 5. Sleep problems Bettmann/ Corbis

148 Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)
A disorder in which a person exhibits two or more distinct and alternating personalities, formerly called multiple personality disorder. Preview Question 7: What are dissociative disorders, and why are they controversial? Three Faces of Eve: Chris Sizemore’s story Original personality denies awareness of others. Kenneth Bianchi – Hillside strangler, rapes and murders of 10 women Many DID patients profoundly abused Rarely found outside North America Usually not violent Multiple personality is a type of (AP94) (A) Dissociative disorder (B) Schizophrenia (C) Dementia praecox (D) Bipolar disorder (E) Manic-depressive psychosis Chris Sizemore (DID) Lois Bernstein/ Gamma Liason

149 Personality Disorders
Personality disorders are characterized by inflexible and enduring behavior patterns that impair social functioning. Preview Question 8: What characteristics are typical of personality disorders? There are clusters of personality disorders Anxiety- avoidant personality disorder Eccentric Behavior- schizoid personality disorder Dramatic- impulsive behaviors They are usually without depression, or delusions. Which of the following best characterizes individuals diagnosed as having personality disorders? (AP94) (A) They are typically afraid to leave their homes. (B) They are consistently psychotic in their cognition and affect. (C) They may function reasonably well in society. (D) Their symptoms are characterized by sudden onset and short duration. (E) They developed their problems as a result of drug abuse.

150 Antisocial Personality Disorder
A disorder in which the person (usually men) exhibits a lack of conscience for wrongdoing, even toward friends and family members. Formerly, this person was called a sociopath or psychopath. Lack of conscience evident before 15, about half become antisocial adults Pic 1 Dennis Rader, killed 10 people over 30 years, BTK killer. Pic 2 Henry Lee Lucas, 32 years of crime 360 victims Elwood Toole “ I think of killing like smoking a cigarette, like another habit” (Darach 1984) slaughtered 50 people. Most criminals not antisocial, actually have concerns for friends & family members. 36 or Which of the following personality disorders is characterized by behavior that includes dishonesty, repeated trouble with authority figures, and an absence of remorse for these types of conduct? (AP99) (A) Antisocial (B) Histrionic (C) Passive-aggressive (D) Narcissistic (E) Borderline Which of the following is most descriptive of antisocial personality disorder? (AP04) (A)A pattern of limited social interaction and reluctance to enter into relationships (B) A pattern of extreme dependence on other people and acute anxiety at being left alone (C) A pattern of bizarre or unstable behavior characterized by dramatic mood shifts (D) An inability to feel empathy for others and a lack of remorse for actions that harm others (E) An exaggerated sense of self importance AM The Mind 35. The Mind of the Psychopath Presents the definition of and specific behaviors related to psychopathy, and the ongoing research on this subject.

151 Major Depressive Disorder
Major depressive disorder occurs when signs of depression last two weeks or more and are not caused by drugs or medical conditions. 38 2. For several weeks--ever since she did not receive a raise that was given to several colleagues-Enid has lacked energy, has been unable to go to work, and has expected bad things to happen every day. Of the following, she is most likely experiencing (AP99) (A) Post traumatic stress (B) Mania (C) Hypochondria (D) Depression (E) fugue Signs include: Lethargy and fatigue Feelings of worthlessness Loss of interest in family & friends Loss of interest in activities

152 Bipolar Disorder Many great writers, poets, and composers suffered from bipolar disorder. During their manic phase creativity surged, but not during their depressed phase. Handel….Messiah Schumann…51 works of music in 2 years 1840 and 1849, none in 1844. Effects as many men as women Bipolar disorders are most effectively treated with a combination of tricyclic antidepressants and (AP94) (A) Acetaminophen (B) antianxiety drugs (C) Beta-blockers (D) Amphetamines (E) Lithium carbonate Whitman Wolfe Clemens Hemingway George C. Beresford/ Hulton Getty Pictures Library Earl Theissen/ Hulton Getty Pictures Library The Granger Collection Bettmann/ Corbis

153 Social-Cognitive Perspective
The social-cognitive perspective suggests that depression arises partly from self-defeating beliefs and negative explanatory styles. Magnify bad experiences Minimize good experiences The cognitive theory of depression states that depression results from (AP94) (A) Anger directed toward the self and significant others (B) An excess of certain neurotransmitters in the brain (C) Failure in adult love relationships (D) Maladaptive interpretations of life events (E) Oral fixations from disturbed mother-infant relationships

154 Schizophrenia The literal translation is “split mind” which refers to a split from reality. A group of severe disorders characterized by the following: Mnemonic for types of schizophrenia Dr. Cup treats schizophrenia Disorganized Residual Catatonic undifferentiated Paraniod Which of the following is most characteristic of individuals with chronic schizophrenia? (AP94) (A) Extreme mood swings (B) Disordered thinking (C) Profound sadness (D) Unaccountable loss of body function (E) Loss of memory Disorganized and delusional thinking. Disturbed perceptions. Inappropriate emotions and actions.

155 Disturbed Perceptions
A schizophrenic person may perceive things that are not there (hallucinations). Most such hallucinations are auditory and lesser visual, somatosensory, olfactory, or gustatory. Link to schizophrenia Art by schizophrenics “I felt like I was walking through a dream…” Psychotic disorders frequently involve perceptions of nonexistent sensory stimulation, such as voices. Symptoms such as these are called (AP99) (A) Delusions (B) paraphilias (C) Hallucinations (D) Paranormal images (E) Psychic phenomena Photos of paintings by Krannert Museum, University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign August Natter, Witches Head. The Prinzhorn Collection, University of Heidelberg L. Berthold, Untitled. The Prinzhorn Collection, University of Heidelberg

156 Understanding Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is a disease of the brain exhibited by the symptoms of the mind. Preview Question 13: What causes schizophrenia? 6x more dopamine receptors (Seeman). Drugs that block dopamine reduce symptoms (Swerdlow) One suspected cause of schizophrenia is the abnormal increase of which of the following neurotransmitters in the brain? (AP99) (A) Acetylcholine (B) Somatotropin (C) Dopamine (D) Norepinephrine (E) Serotonin Brain Abnormalities Dopamine Overactivity: Researchers found that schizophrenic patients express higher levels of dopamine D4 receptors in the brain. Drugs that block these sites help schizophrenic patients.

157 Abnormal Brain Morphology
Schizophrenia patients may exhibit morphological changes in the brain like enlargement of fluid-filled ventricles. Found in people who would later develop Schizophrenia (Pantelis) The more the shrinkage of the tissue the greater the disorder The cortex is smaller than normal. Thalamus smaller than normal, possible difficulty filtering sensory information, difficulty attending Which of the following is associated with schizophrenia? (AP04) (A)Enlarged, fluid filled areas in the brain (B)Damage to the medulla (C)Malfunction of the endocrine system (D)Impairment of the spinal reflexes (E)Injury to the parasympathetic nervous system Both Photos: Courtesy of Daniel R. Weinberger, M.D., NIH-NIMH/ NSC

158 The Psychological Therapies Module 40
Add rational emotive therapy In rational-emotive therapy, the therapist helps clients by (AP99) (A) Using unconditional positive regard (B) Establishing anxiety hierarchies to be used in systematic desensitization (C) Promoting transference (D) Confronting clients with their faulty logic (E) Providing an environment in which new behaviors and emotions can be rehearsed The release of those with mental disorders from mental hospitals for the purpose of treating them in their home communities is called (AP94) (A) Deinstitutionalization (B) Milieu therapy (C) Primary prevention (D) Secondary prevention (E) noncrisis intervention Which of the following forms of therapy most likely involves a confrontational atmosphere between the therapist and client? (AP04) (A)Rational-emotive therapy (B)Psychoanalysis (C)Aversive conditioning (D)Person-centered therapy (E)Systematic desensitization The goal of rational-emotive therapy is to help clients (AP94) (A) Focus on the significance of childhood events for current feelings of self-worth (B) Correct self-defeating thoughts about their lives (C) Avoid putting themselves in risky situations (D) Practice relaxation techniques and autohypnosis to reduce anxiety (E) Use introspection to alleviate their feelings of self-doubt The Psychological Therapies Module 40

159 Psychoanalysis: Methods
During free association, the patient edits his thoughts, resisting his or her feelings to express emotions. Such resistance becomes important in the analysis of conflict-driven anxiety. Resistance hints at anxiety The phenomenon of transference is a recognized component of which of the following therapeutic treatments? (AP99) (A) Flooding (B) Systematic desensitization (C) Milieu therapy (D) Psychoanalysis (E) Family therapy] Eventually the patient opens up and reveals his or her innermost private thoughts. Developing positive or negative feelings may be transference towards the therapist.

160 Behavior Therapy Therapy that applies learning principles to the elimination of unwanted behaviors. Preview Question 3: What are the assumptions and techniques of the behavior therapies? O. H. Mower, bed wetting treatment, liquid sensitive sheet, attached to alarm, wakes child if wet…urinary relaxation associated with waking…works in 3 out of 4 cases. AM The Mind 30. Treating Drug Addiction: A Behavioral Approach Provides an example of how drug therapies incorporate the results of research on several levels of behavior, and shows how patients learn to deal with environmental triggers for cravings. Which of the following therapeutic approaches is most likely to be criticized because it does not treat the underlying cause of the disorder? (AP99) (A) Cognitive (B) Behavioral (C) Biological (D) Psychoanalytic (E) Phenomenological To treat phobias or sexual disorders, behavior therapists do not delve deeply below the surface looking for inner causes.

161 Classical Conditioning Techniques
Counterconditioning is a procedure that conditions new responses to stimuli that trigger unwanted behaviors. Example – condition relaxation as a response to being in an enclosed space Behavior therapists emphasize which of the following in their treatment of clients? (AP99) (A) Freedom of choice about the future (B) The uncovering of unconscious defense mechanisms (C) Responses that have been reinforced in the past (D) Early childhood conflicts (E) Repressed aggressive impulses Behaviorally oriented therapists seek to modify a client's behavior by (AP94) (A) Repressing the client's deviant thoughts (B) Relating past events to the client's current behavior (C) Removing the underlying causes of the client's behavioral problems (D) Explaining the significance of the client's dreams (E) Changing the contingencies of reinforcement for the client One perspective in clinical psychology proposes that adaptive and abnormal behaviors can be developed through similar processes. Which of the following terms best characterizes this approach to abnormal behavior? (AP04) (A)Biological (B)Psychodynamic (C)Behavioral (D)Humanistic (E)Cognitive It is based on classical conditioning and includes exposure therapy and aversive conditioning.

162 Expose patients to things they fear and avoid.
Exposure Therapy Expose patients to things they fear and avoid. Through repeated exposures, anxiety lessens because they habituate to the things feared. Cover Jones cured fear of a rabbit by having child eat in presence of rabbit and moved it closer and closer every day. 40 9. Which of the following behavior-therapy techniques is typically used to reduce fear of heights? (AP94) (A) Time-out (B) Punishment (C) Discrimination learning (D) Token economy (E) Systematic desensitization The Far Side © 1986 FARWORKS. Reprinted with Permission. All Rights Reserved.

163 Operant Conditioning Operant conditioning procedures enable therapists to use behavior modification, in which desired behaviors are rewarded and undesired behaviors are either unrewarded or punished. A number of withdrawn, uncommunicative 3-year-old autistic children have been successfully trained by giving and withdrawing reinforcements for desired and undesired behaviors. A teacher taught her students to take turns by giving them stars to trade for snacks at the end of the day. This technique is called (AP04) (A)Systematic desensitization (B)Token economy (C)Classical conditioning (D)Rational-emotive therapy (E)Free association A psychologist is attempting to get Wade, an eight year old autistic boy, to make eye contact when she speaks to him. She gives Wade a piece of candy every time he looks at her face. This treatment illustrates which of the following therapeutic approaches? (AP04) (A)Cognitive (B)Biological (C)Psychodynamic (D)Humanistic (E)Behavioral

164 Psychopharmacology is the study of drug effects on mind and behavior.
Drug Therapies Psychopharmacology is the study of drug effects on mind and behavior. Preview Question 11: What are the most common forms of biomedical therapies? What criticisms have been leveled against drug therapies? The precipitous decline of the inpatient populations of state and county mental hospitals since the 1950's can be attributed to which of the following? (AP99) I. Declining incidence of severe mental illnesses 11. A policy of deinstitutionalization 111. New drug therapies (A) I only (B) I1 only (C) I11 only (D) I1 and H I only (E) I, 11, and I11 With the advent of drugs, hospitalization in mental institutions has rapidly declined.

165 Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)
Brain Stimulation Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) ECT is used for severely depressed patients who do not respond to drugs. Preview Question 12: What is electroconvulsive therapy? When is it used? The patient is anesthetized and given a muscle relaxant. Patients usually get a 100 volt shock that relieves them of depression. Produces racking convulsions & brief unconsciousness 3 weekly sessions for 2 wks, 80% of patients have improvement, some memory loss AM The Mind 34. Treating Depression: Electroconvulsive Therapy Provides a clear and dramatic presentation of the process and some of the effects of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Electroconvulsive therapy has been most successful in the treatment of (AP94) (A) Phobias (B) Schizophrenia (C) Psychogenic amnesia (D) Multiple personality (E) Clinical depression

166 Focuses in Social Psychology
Social psychology scientifically studies how we think about, influence, and relate to one another. Does his absenteeism signify illness, laziness, or a stressful work atmosphere? Was the horror of 9/11 the work of crazed evil people or ordinary people corrupted by life events? Social thinking involves thinking about others, especially when they engage in doing things that are unexpected. 43 2. Which type of psychologist would be interested primarily in studying whether people behave differently in groups than they do when alone? (AP04) (A) Experimental (B) Cognitive (C) Developmental (D) Social (E) Clinical “We cannot live for ourselves alone.” Herman Melville

167 Attributing Behavior to Persons or to Situations
Attribution Theory: Fritz Heider (1958) suggested that we have a tendency to give causal explanations for someone’s behavior, often by crediting either the situation or the person’s disposition. Preview Question 1: How do we tend to explain others’ behavior? How do we explain our own behavior? Sometimes attributions are valid According to attribution theory, Pablo is most likely to attribute his high score on a difficult exam to (AP94) (A) Good luck (B) His intelligence (C) His instructor's teaching ability (D) The low level of difficulty of the exam (E) His classmates' inadequate preparation for the exam Fritz Heider

168 Fundamental Attribution Error
Fundamental Attribution Error. The tendency to overestimate the impact of personal disposition and underestimate the impact of the situations in analyzing the behaviors of others. Woman acts aloof & critical or warm and friendly… some subjects told spontaneous, others told acting…. effect of telling subjects…nothing If she acted friendly they said she was friendly & vice versa. Attributed behavior to personal disposition even though it was situational. Especially in western individualistic cultures – disposition Asian cultures attribute more things to situations-possibly because they are more collective According to the theory of fundamental attribution error, when explaining the failures of others we usually underestimate the significance of (AP04) (A)Situational factors (B)Dispositional factors (C)Motivational factors (D)Support systems (E)Inherited traits We see Joe as quiet, shy, and introverted most of the time, but with friends he is very talkative, loud, and extroverted.

169 Actions Can Affect Attitudes
Why do actions affect attitudes? One explanation is that when our attitudes and actions are opposed, we experience tension. This is called cognitive dissonance. We rationalize “If I choose to do it I must believe it” Less coercion and more responsible we feel for a troubling act the more dissonance we feel. According to cognitive dissonance theory, human beings are motivated to (AP99) (A) Respond to an inborn need to pass their genes to the next generation (B) Maintain an optimal level of arousal (C) Satisfy basic needs such as hunger before proceeding to higher needs such as self actualization (D) Reduce tensions produced by inconsistent thoughts (E) Satisfy needs resulting from tissue deficits Which of the following do individuals experience when their behavior is inconsistent with their attitude? (AP04) (A)Approach-avoidance conflict (B)Cognitive dissonance (C)Intrinsic motivation (D)Homeostatic motivation (E)Overjustification To relieve ourselves of this tension we bring our attitudes closer to our actions (Festinger, 1957).

170 Social Influence Module 44
The failure of bystanders to give victims of automobile accidents needed assistance is sometimes explained as an instance of (AP94) (A) Group polarization (B) deindividuation (C) Situational attribution (D) Diffusion of responsibility (E) Mere exposure effect The more people present at a scene, the less likely it is that anyone will help a person in need. This phenomenon is a manifestation of (AP99) (A) Diffusion of responsibility (B) Social facilitation (C) Situational ambiguity (D) A social norm (E) Reciprocity Which of the following is considered an explanation of why bystander intervention is less likely to occur if there is a large number of witnesses to a crime? (AP04) (A)Prejudice (B)Social facilitation (C)Diffusion of responsibility (D)Group polarization (E)Self-efficacy

171 Group Pressure & Conformity
Suggestibility is a subtle type of conformity, adjusting our behavior or thinking toward some group standard. Solomon Asch 1955 5 ringers one subject 2 normal trials, trial 3 confederates say 3 matches the standard, subjects say 3 1/3rd of the time. Alone they err only about 1 in 100 times Which of the following was true of Solomon Asch’s experiments on conformity? (AP94) (A) People conformed if they knew and respected the authority figure present. (B) An increase from 7 to 12 confederates increased conformity by experimental subjects. (C) Experimental subjects conformed less frequently when their judgments were made known to the group. (D) About 99% of the judgments made by the experimental subjects were wrong. (E) If the confederates' judgments were not unanimous, the degree of conformity by experimental subjects decreased.

172 Group Pressure & Conformity
Informational Social Influence: An influence resulting from one’s willingness to accept others’ opinions about reality. A scene from one of Asch’s trials Solomon Asch’s findings on conformity might best be used to explain why (AP04) (A)Members of a family all like the taste of bananas (B)Adolescents follow fads in dress and hairstyle (C)People are less likely to accept blame for their failures than to accept credit for their successes (D)Bystander intervention is more likely to occur when few, rather than many, bystanders are present (E)Performance is enhanced in the presence of others William Vandivert/ Scientific American

173 Milgram’s Study: Results
Repeat experiment 65% followed instructions Highest obedience -Person giving orders nearby & perceived as legitimate authority figure More if authority associated with prestigious institution -Depersonalized or at a distance, (combat phenomenon, not fire at enemy) No role models for defiance Milgram on youtube Which of the following studies has had the most profound impact on ethical issues in psychological research? (AP94) (A) Stanley Milgram's study of obedience (B) Solomon Asch's study of conformity (C) Daryl Bem's study of self-perception (D) William McGuire's study of self-concept (E) Leon Festinger's study of cognitive dissonance Milgram on Youtube

174 Lessons from the Conformity and Obedience Studies
In both Asch's and Milgram's studies, participants were pressured to choose between following their standards and being responsive to others. In Milgram’s study, participants were torn between hearing the victims pleas and the experimenter’s orders. “Normal people can become agents of a terrible destructive process” Milgram We succumb gradually to evil (foot in the door phenomena) In Stanley Milgram's obedience experiments, subjects were LEAST likely to deliver maximum levels of shock when the (AP99) (A) Experiment was conducted at a prestigious institution (B) "Learner" screamed loudly in pain (C) Experimenter told hesitant subjects, "You have no choice, you must go on" (D) "Learner" said that he had a heart condition (E) Subjects observed other subjects who refused to obey the experimenter's orders

175 Individual Behavior in the Presence of Others
Social facilitation: Refers to improved performance on tasks in the presence of others. Triplett (1898) noticed cyclists’ race times were faster when they competed against others than when they just raced against the clock. Preview Question 4: How does the mere presence of others influence our actions? How does our behavior change with we act as part of a group? How do groups affect our behavior? Social psychologists study various groups: One person affecting another Families Teams Committees Drivers at lights take 15% less time to travel first 100 yards if another car is beside them (Towler) If observed we become aroused. This arousal strengthens the most likely response – the correct one on and easy task, an incorrect one on a difficult task. Expert pool players hit 71% of shots alone, 80% if people watch them… Poor shooters hit 36% alone, 25% when watched Social facilitation theory focuses on situations in which the presence of others causes an individual’s performance to (AP04) (A)Remain unchanged (B)Decline (C)Improve (D)Spontaneously recover (E)Become fixated Michelle Agnis/ NYT Pictures

176 Social Loafing The tendency of an individual in a group to exert less effort toward attaining a common goal than when tested individually (Latané, 1981). Why – People in groups feel less accountability Especially common among men in individualistic cultures. 43 or A club president discovers that contributions of club members drop when the total contribution of all members is published rather than the contributions of individuals. This drop can be explained by the phenomenon of (AP04) (A)Group polarization (B)Learned helplessness (C)Social loafing (D)Social facilitation (E)Socialization

177 Deindividuation The loss of self-awareness and self-restraint in group situations that foster arousal and anonymity. Tribal warriors who depersonalize themselves with face paint or masks more likely to kill, torture or mutilate captured enemies. (Watson 1973) Zimbardo 1970, hooded women delivered 2x more electric shock to a victim than identifiable women did. Second pic Which of the following concepts was advanced by social psychologists to help explain why people who are part of a crowd sometimes commit aggressive, antisocial acts that they would not commit if they were alone? (AP94) (A) Groupthink (B) Cognitive dissonance (C) Social facilitation (D) Deindividuation (E) Catharsis Which of the following explains the behavior of normally law-abiding people who act destructively when they are part of a crowd? (AP04) (A)Group polarization (B)The mere exposure effect (C)Deindividuation (D)Entrapment (E)Fundamental attribution error Mob behavior

178 Psychology of Attraction
4. Similarity: Similar views among individuals causes the bond of attraction to strengthen. Opposites retract We like people who like us Dating sites try to find similarity….e-harmony etc. Research findings in the area of interpersonal attraction indicate that individuals are most likely to be attracted to others who are (AP94) (A) Critical of them (B) Similar to them in attitudes and values (C) Like their parents (D) Willing to do favors for them (E) Indulgent of their failings According to research on attraction, people are most likely to be attracted to others who are (AP99) (A) Very different from themselves (B) Similar to themselves in many ways (C) Barely known or complete strangers (D) More physically active than they themselves are (E) Less physically attractive than they themselves are Similarity breeds content! The more people are alike the more their liking endures. (Byrne 1971)

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