Presentation on theme: "All Q & A Issued by PMI 1 1. A project is: A. A set of sequential activities performed in a process or system. B. A revenue-generating activity that needs."— Presentation transcript:
All Q & A Issued by PMI 1 1. A project is: A. A set of sequential activities performed in a process or system. B. A revenue-generating activity that needs to be accomplished while achieving customer satisfaction. C. An ongoing endeavor undertaken to meet customer or market requirements. D. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result. Introduction
All Q & A Issued by PMI 2 2. Project management is: A. The integration of the critical path method and the Earned Value Management system. B. The application of Knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements. C. The application of knowledge, skills, wisdom, science, and art to organizational activities to achieve operational excellence. D. A subset of most engineering and other technical disciplines.
All Q & A Issued by PMI 3 3. Managing a project includes: A. Balancing the competing demands for quality, scope, time, and cost. B. Integrating requirements of profitability, low cost, and legal responsibility. C. Implementation of software, hardware, and other systems to enhance organizational efficiency. D. Supporting human factors, communications, discipline, and performance management.
All Q & A Issued by PMI 4 4. A program is a: A. Grouping of related tasks lasting one year or less. B. Group of related projects managed in a coordinated way. C. Project with a cost over $1 million. D. Sequence of steps constituting a project.
All Q & A Issued by PMI 5 5. One goal of portfolio management is to: A. Manage various contents of the project file. B. Manage the levels of financial authority to facilitate project decision-making. C. Maximize the value of the portfolio by careful examination of candidate projects and programs for inclusion in the portfolio and timely exclusion of projects not meeting the portfolio’s strategic objectives. D. Applying resource-leveling heuristics across all the organization’s projects.
All Q & A Issued by PMI 6 6. International factors to be considered by the project team generally include all of the following EXCEPT : A. Time-zone differences. B. National and regional holidays. C. Travel requirements for face-to-face meetings. D. Project reporting formats.
All Q & A Issued by PMI 7 7. Cultural and social environmental aspects to be considered by the project team include all of the following areas EXCEPT: A. Economic. B. Occasional. C. Educational. D. Demographic.
All Q & A Issued by PMI 8 8. In understanding the project environment, all of the following are true EXCEPT: A. Project are planned and implemented in a social, economic, and environmental context. B. Projects may have intended positive and/or negative impacts. C. Projects may have unintended positive and/or negative impacts. D. The project team rarely should consider the political and physical environmental contexts of the project.
All Q & A Issued by PMI 9 9. Organizations perform work to achieve a set of objective. All of the following are true about projects and operations work EXCEPT: A. Both projects and operations are constrained by limited resources B. Operations are ongoing and repetitive, while project are temporary and unique. C. Both projects and operations are planned, executed, and controlled. D. All activities in the organization can be addressed within the organization’s normal operational limits, Therefore, projects are rarely utilized as a means of achieving an organization’s strategic plan.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Key features of a project management office ( PMO )generally include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Delivering specific project objectives and controlling the assigned project resources to best meet objectives of the project. B. Identification and development of project management methodology, best practices, and standards. C. Centralized repository and management for both shard and unique risks for all project. D. A mentoring platform for project managers.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Project managers or the organization can divide projects into phases. Collectively, these phases are known as the: A. Project waterfall. B. Project life cycle. C. Project life stages. D. Project life quality circle. Project Life Cycle and Organization
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of the following are true about project phases and the project life cycle EXCEPT: A. The completion and approval of one more deliverables characterizes a project phase. B. The project life cycle defines the phases that connect the beginning of a project to its end. C. The transition from one phase to another within a project's life cycle generally involves, and usually defined by, some form of technical transfer or handoff. D. Cost and staffing levels are generally steady throughout the project life cycle.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Which of the following is not true about project stakeholders? A. They are individuals and organizations that are actively supportive of the project. B. They are individuals and organizations that are actively involved in the project. C. They are individuals and organizations whose interests may be affected as a result of project execution or project completion. D. They are individuals and organizations that may exert influence over the project’s objectives and outcomes.
All Q & A Issued by PMI In considering project stakeholders, the project management team must do all of the following EXECPT: A. As much as possible, create conflicts among stakeholders to allow the project team to get its work done. B. Identify the stakeholders. C. Determine stakeholders’ requirements and expectations. D. To the extent possible, manage stakeholders’ influence in relation to the requirements to ensure a successful project.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Organizational cultures: A. Are generally similar and indescribable. B. Are generally unique and indescribable. C. Have no impact on a clearly defined project. D. Often have a direct influence on the project.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The project manager has the highest level of independence and authority in a_________organization. A. Strong Matrix. B. Weak matrix. C. Projectized. D. Functional.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The project manager has the lowest level of authority in a_________organization: A. Functional. B. Weak matrix. C. Strong matrix. D. Projectized.
All Q & A Issued by PMI A project coordinator may typically be found in a_________organization: A. Projectized. B. Strong matrix C. Weak matrix. D. Balanced matrix
All Q & A Issued by PMI The project manager is more likely to have a full-time role in a_________organization: A. Functional B. Weak matrix. C. Projectized. D. Small capitalization
All Q & A Issued by PMI A common title for the project manager’s role in a projectized organization is: A. Project manager B. Project coordinator. C. Project coach. D. Project Expediter.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of the following are generally true about the project management office (PMO) EXCPT : A. It may provide project management support functions. B. It should be located in a bright, well-ventilated centralized area. C. It may provide training, software, standardized policies, and procedures. D. It may be responsible for achieving the results of the project.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Different or conflicting objectives among project stakeholders : A. Should be encouraged. B. Should be ignored. C. Can make it difficult for project managers to manage stakeholder expectations. D. Generally makes it easy for project managers to manage stakeholder expectations.
All Q & A Issued by PMI For a large, complex project with cross- functional project needs, the following organizational structure gives considerable authority to the project manager : A. A strong matrix organization. B. A balanced matrix organization. C. A weak matrix. D. A functional organization.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of the following statements about the level of authority of the project manager are true EXCEPT : A. In a functional organization, the project manager has little or no authority. B. In weak matrices, the project manager role is more that of a coordinator or expediter than that of a manager. C. The balanced matrix organization does not provide the project manager with the full authority over the project and project funding. D. Authority of the project manager is limited in a strong matrix organization.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of the following statements about the project life cycle and the product life cycle are true EXCEPT: A. The product life cycle generally starts with the business plan, and continues through idea, to product, ongoing operations, and product divestment. B. The project life cycle also identifies the transitional actions at the end of the project to link the project to the ongoing operations of the performing organization. C. Generally, a product life cycle is contained within the project life cycle. D. Generally, a project life cycle is contained within one or more product life cycle.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The five project Management process Groups are : A. Planning, checking, directing, monitoring, and recording. B. Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing. C. Planning, executing, directing, closing, and delivering. D. Initiating, executing monitoring, evaluating, and closing. Project Management Process
All Q & A Issued by PMI Project Management Process Groups are : A. Overlapping activities that occur at varying levels of intensity throughout the project. B. Overlapping activities that occur at the same level of intensity throughout each phase of the project. C. Discrete, one-time events. D. Discrete, repetitive events that occur at the same level of intensity throughout each phase of the project.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The linkages between project management process Groups are best described by the following : A. The work breakdown structure links process Groups. B. Process groups are linked by their planned objectives—the summary objective of one often becomes the detailed action plan for another. C. Process Groups are linked by the objectives they produce—the output of one process often becomes an input to another process, or is a deliverable of the project. D. There are no significant links between discrete process Groups.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The relationship between project Management process Groups and project life cycle phases is best described by the following : A. They are unrelated, incompatible concepts. B. They are the same concept described by different terms to satisfy application area extensions. C. Phases cross process Groups such that closing one process Group provides an input to initiating the next phase. D. Process Groups interact within a project phase and also may cross the project phases.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Reviewing the initiating processes at the start of each phase : A. Is wasteful and should be avoided whenever possible. B. Helps to keep the project focused on the business need that the project was undertaken to address. C. Helps ensure that the project continues regardless of changes in the business needs. D. Helps ensure continuous employment of project team members even if the project is unlikely to satisfy the business need that it was undertaken to address.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them should be addressed during : A. The conceptual phase. B. The planning process. C. Project implementation. D. Risk identification.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The schedule control process for a project : A. Focuses on stating the project earlier than scheduled. B. Is necessary for controlling changes to the project schedule. C. Is concerned only with activities that are on the critical path. D. Should focus entirely on activities that are difficult to carry out.
All Q & A Issued by PMI For a project to be successful, the project team must generally do all of the following EXCEPT : A. Comply with requirements to meet stakeholder needs, wants, and expectations. B. Balance the competing demands of scope, time, cost, quality, resources, and risk to produce a quality product.. C. Apply all processes within the project Management process Groups uniformly to meet the project objectives. D. Select appropriate processes within the project management process Groups that are required to meet the project objectives.
All Q & A Issued by PMI An underlying concept for the interaction among the project management processes is the : A. Plan-do-check-act cycle (as defined by Shewhart and modified by Deming). B. Plan-do-analyze-check-act-standardize cycle (as defined by Shewhart and modified by Deming). C. Ready-aim-fire cycle linked by results. D. Conceptualize-design-execute-finish (CDEF) cycle.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of the following are characteristics of project Management process Groups EXCEPT : A. The process Groups are linked by the objectives they produce. B. The output of one process generally becomes an input to another process or is a deliverable of the project. C. All of the processes will be needed on all projects, and all of the interactions will apply to all projects or project phases. D. When a project is divided into phases, the process groups are normally repeated within each phase throughout the project’s life to effectively drive the project to completion.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The Initiating process Group consists of the processes that : A. Facilitate the formal authorization to start a new project or a project phase. B. Deploy risk mitigation strategies. C. Establish and describe the need for a project selection process. D. Approve the market analysis to ensure resolution of contract disputes.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Tools included in integrated change control are all of the following EXCEPT : A. Project management methodology. B. Expert judgment. C. Project management information system. D. Project plan updates. Project Integration Management
All Q & A Issued by PMI Which is an acceptable cause for “re-baselining” a $10 million project? A. The client has authorized a $100,000 addition to the scope of the project. B. The contractor’s company has instituted a Quality program in which it has pledged to spend one million dollars during the next year. C. The productivity in the Drafting Department is lower than anticipated, which has resulted in 1,000 additional hours over what was budgeted. D. The Engineering Department has converted to a new $200,000 CAD system.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Which process is included in project integration management? A. Develop project management plan. B. Control scope definition. C. Review scope verification. D. Conduct procurement surveillance.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The configuration management system is a collection of formal documented procedures used to apply technical and administrative direction and surveillance to: A. Identify and correct problems arising in functional areas of project implementation. B. Identify and document the functional and physical characteristics of a product or component. C. Test new systems. D. Estimate and control risk.
All Q & A Issued by PMI A change Control Board (CCB) is: A. A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for ensuring that only a minimal amount of changes occur on the project. B. An information group that has oversight of project implementation. C. A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving. Delaying, or rejecting changes to the project, with all decisions and recommendations being recorded. D. The project manager and several key team members working to ensure cost and schedule control during the life of the project.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The Integrated Change Control Process Includes all of the following change management activities EXCEPT: A. Reviewing and approving requested changes. B. Resource leveling. C. Maintaining the integrity of baselines by relapsing only approved changes for incorporation into project products or services, and maintaining their related configuration and planning documentation. D. Controlling and updating the scope, cost, budget, schedule, and quality requirements based upon approved changes, by coordinating changes across the entire project.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Benefit measurement methods for project selection include all of the following EXCEPT : A. Comparative approaches. B. Linear programming method. C. Scoring models. D. Benefit contribution.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Actions and activities that are necessary to satisfy completion or exit criteria for the project, and to confirm that the project has met all sponsor, customer, and other stakeholders’ requirements, are addressed: A. As part of the administrative closure procedure. B. Following the plan as outlined in the Quality Management process. C. As requested by upper management. D. As the last step in project management.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of the following are characteristics of the project management information system (PMIS) EXCEPT : A. It is standardized set of automated tools available within the organization and integrated into a system. B. It is used by the project management team to support generation of the project management plan, facilitate feedback as the document is developed, control changes to the project management plan, and release the approved document. C. It is used by the project management team to monitor and control the execution of activities that are planned and scheduled in the project management plan. The PMIS is also used to create new forecasts as needed. D. It is used by the project management team primarily to generate presentations to key stakeholders. Typically, a separate, manual system is used for the Integrated Change Control process, to facilitate feedback and control changes across the project.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of following are characteristics of the project charter EXCEPT: A. It is the document that formally authorizes a project. B. It is issued by a project initiator or sponsor external to the project organization, at a level that is appropriate to funding the project. C. It is used primarily to request bids for different phases of project. D. It provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of following are true about the project scope statement EXCEPT: A. It is an output of scope verification. B. It describes, in detail, the project's deliverables and the work required to create those deliverables. C. It provides a common understanding of the project scope among all project stakeholders. D. It describes the project’s major objectives. Project Scope Management
All Q & A Issued by PMI An approved change request impacting project scope is: A. Any modification in technical specifications as defined in the WBS. B. Any change in project authorization. C. Any change in project personnel. D. Any modification to the agreed-upon project scope baseline, as defined by the approved project scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Which of the following is not true of the project scope management plan? A. It provides guidance on how project scope will be defined and documented. B. It provides guidance on how project scope will be verified. C. It provides guidance on how project scope will be managed and controlled. D. It is separate from the project plan.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The project scope change control system includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Documentation. B. Tracking systems. C. Approval levels. D. Evaluation process.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Which of the following is not an output of scope change control? A. Recommended corrective action. B. Scope baseline updates. C. Requested changes. D. Performance reports.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Scope verification: A. Is the process of obtaining the shareholder's formal acceptance of the completed project scope and associated deliverables. B. Refers to the final project report describing the project at completion. C. Is not necessary if the project completes on time and on budget. D. Occurs only when revisions or change orders are made to the project.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Which of the following statements is true about the WBS? A. The WBS is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed by the project team, to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables. B. The WBS is an unstructured list of activities in chart form. C. The WBS is the same as the organizational breakdown structure. D. The WBS refers to the bill of materials.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The following is an example of a constraint: A. A predefined budget. B. The threat of a strike by a subcontractor. C. Relationship with the seller. D. The method used to measure project performance.
All Q & A Issued by PMI An input to scope definition is: A. The type of contract detail language. B. Preliminary project scope statement. C. Work breakdown structure (WBS). D. Decomposition
All Q & A Issued by PMI What is the WBS typically used for? A. To organize and define the total scope of the project. B. To identify the logical person to be project sponsor. C. To define the level of reporting the seller provides the buyer. D. As a record of when work elements are assigned to individuals.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The following is true about the WBS: A. The WBS is another team for the Gantt chart. B. Each descending level of the WBS represents an increasingly detailed definition of the project work. C. Work not in the WBS is usually defined in the scope statement of the project. D. The WBS shows only the critical path activities.
All Q & A Issued by PMI An output of scope definition is: A. Work breakdown structure (WBS). B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS). C. Project scope statement. D. Schedule delays control plan.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The main difference between the tow types (Arrow Diagramming Method and Precedence Diagramming Method) of the critical path method of scheduling is: A. Depiction of the activity on the logic diagram. B. Arrow diagramming method is a deterministic method, whereas the precedence diagramming method is a probabilistic method. C. Precedence diagramming method is a deterministic method, whereas the Arrow diagramming method is a probabilistic method D. Arrow diagramming method is a more accurate method. Project Time Management
All Q & A Issued by PMI The duration of the schedule activity is affected by all the following EXCEPT : A. The estimated activity resource requirements. B. The resources assigned to the schedule activity. C. The availability of the resources assigned to the schedule activity. D. Using the Arrow diagramming method instead of the precedence diagramming method of scheduling.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The “fast-tracking” method of schedule compression involves: A. The use of industrial engineering techniques to improve productivity, thereby finishing the project earlier than originally planned. B. Performing activities in parallel, thereby increasing risk. C. Going on a “mandatory overtime schedule” in order to complete the project earlier. D. Assigning “dedicated teams” to the critical path activities.
All Q & A Issued by PMI An example of a “soft logic” dependency, as opposed to “hard logic” dependency, is: A. Project A, the company’s participation in a pump industry trade show, depends on the successful completion of project B, which is building the prototype pump that is going to be displayed. B. To install the plumbing and electrical work at the same time on a single-family dwelling. C. For the shrink-wrapping on the finished box of software to depend on enclosing the manual and software first. D. To schedule the final testing activity of a computer to start seventy-two hours “burn-in” period.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Inputs to activity definition include: A. Work breakdown structure, project schedule, and network diagram. B. Project schedule, progress reports, and change requests. C. Project network diagram, constraints, and durations. D. Project scope statement, work breakdown structure, and project management plan.
All Q & A Issued by PMI A schedule compression technique to determine how to obtain the greatest amount of compression for the least incremental cost is called: A. Crashing. B. PERT. C. ADM or PDM forward and backward pass to determine the critical path. D. Fast tracking.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Bar charts are useful in determining: A. The level of effort of an activity. B. Activity start and end dates, as well as expected. C. Availability of resources assigned to perform an activity D. Relative priority of activities.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The precedence diagramming Method provides project managers with knowledge of: A. All levels of the work breakdown structure. B. Activities likely to be involved in the project integration and resource allocation functions. C. A graphical representation of interdependencies of activities. D. The project completion date.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The critical path is established by calculating the following dates: A. Start-to-start, start-to-finish, finish-to-finish finish-to-start. B. Early start, early finish, late start, late finish. C. Predecessor –to-successor, predecessor-to-predecessor, successor-to-successor. D. Primary-to-secondary, primary-to-finish, secondary-to- secondary, finish-to-finish.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The project Time Management Processes include: A. Activity definition, activity sequencing, activity execution, and activity duration estimating. B. Activity definition, activity sequencing, and activity duration estimating. C. Activity identification, activity execution, and activity results D. Activity determination, activity duration estimating, activity implementation, and activity results.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of the following are true about resource leveling EXCEPT: A. Can be used to keep selected resource usage at a constant level during specific time periods. B. Often results in a projected duration for the project that is longer than the preliminary project schedule. C. Is sometime called the resource-based method. D. Is used to develop a meaningful WBS.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The following is true about critical chain: A. It is a technique that allows development of an optimum project schedule when resources are unlimited. B. It is a technique that modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources. C. It is another name for the bar chart. D. It is primary used to ensure safety in major construction projects.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Crashing in time management is: A. A schedule compression technique that typically includes reducing schedule activity durations and increasing the assignment of resources to schedule activities. B. A schedule compression technique in which phases or activities that normally would be done in sequence are performed in parallel. C. The timely input of data to calculate the critical path. D. Equivalent to minimizing float.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Output from the activity resource estimating process includes: A. Job descriptions. B. Salary schedules. C. Identification and description of the types and quantities of resources required. D. Analogous estimating.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of the following choices represent inputs to the activity resource estimating process EXCPT: A. Organizational process assets. B. Activity list. C. The actual final cost of the last project. D. Enterprise environmental factors.
All Q & A Issued by PMI As one of the tools and techniques of activity sequencing, a lead A. Directs a delay in the successor activity. B. Could be accomplished by a finish-to-start relationship with a delay time. C. Means the successor activity cannot start until after the predecessor is completed. D. Allows an acceleration of the successor activity.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The “three-point estimates” method for estimating activity duration duffers from the “single point, most-likely estimate” method in that it uses: A. An average of the three estimated durations to estimate activity duration. B. “Dummy” activities to represent logic ties. C. “Free float” instead of “total float” in the schedule calculations. D. Bar charts instead of logic diagrams to portray the schedule.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Analogous duration estimating is: A. Bottom-up estimating. B. Frequently used to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed information. C. Similar to multiple duration estimating. D. Deductive estimating.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The critical chain: A. Focuses on managing the resources applied to buffer activities. B. Alters the required dependencies in the project schedule to optimize resource constraints. C. Adds duration buffers that are work schedule activities to maintain focus on the total float of network paths. D. Adds duration buffers that are non-work schedule activities to maintain focus on the planned activity durations.
All Q & A Issued by PMI In rolling Wave Planning: A. Focus is maintained on long-term objectives, allowing near- term objectives to be rolled out as part of the ongoing wave of activities. B. The work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail at a low level of the WBS. C. The work far in the future is planned in detail for WBS components that are at a low level of the WBS. D. A wave of detailed activities is planned during strategic planning to ensure that project milestones are achieved.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Project Cost Management includes all the following processes EXCEPT: A. Cost Estimating. B. Resource Leveling. C. Cost Budgeting. D. Cost Control. Project Cost Management
All Q & A Issued by PMI Which of the following is not true about cost estimates? A. Are generally expressed in units of currency (dollars, euro, yen. etc.). B. The costs for schedule activities are estimated for all resources that will be charged to the project. C. Do not generally consider information on risk responses. D. Involve developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to complete each schedule activity.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Project cost control includes all the following EXCEPT: A. Informing appropriate stakeholders of approved changes. B. Monitoring cost performance to detect and understand variances from the cost baseline. C. Recording all appropriate changes accurately against the cost baseline. D. Allocating the overall estimates to individual work packages, in order to establish a cost baseline.
All Q & A Issued by PMI An activity cost estimate includes all of the following resource categories EXCEPT: A. labor. B. Materials. C. Equipment. D. Time shortages.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Parametric cost estimating involves : A. Defining the parameters of the project life cycle. B. Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package. C. Using a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculate a cost estimate. D. Using the actual cost of a similar project to estimate total project costs.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Analogous estimating: A. Uses bottom-up estimating techniques. B. Uses the actual cost of previous, similar projects as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. C. Is used most frequently in the later stages of a project. D. Summarizes estimates for individual work items.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Which of the following represents processes concerned with establishing and controlling the cost baseline? A. Resource planning and cost containment. B. Cost estimating and cost budgeting. C. Cost budgeting and cost control. D. Resource planning, cost estimating, and cost control.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Given: BAC = 200 ACc = 120 EVc = 80 CPIc = Assuming that current variances are atypical, and that similar variances will not occur in the future, the estimate at completion (EAC) is: A B C D. 240.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Given: BAC = 200 ACc = 120 EVc = 80 CPIc = Assuming that current variances are typical of future variances, the estimate at completion (EAC) is: A B C D. 320.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The cost baseline has all the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. It is a time-phased budget that will be used to measure and monitor cost performance on the project. B. It shows the actual cost expenditures throughout the life of the project. C. It is developed by summing estimated costs by period. D. It is usually displayed in the form of an S-curve.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The estimate at completion (EAC) is the projected or anticipated total final value for a schedule activity, WBS component, or project when the defined work of the project is completed. To determine the EAC, assuming no management intervention, which of the following information is needed? A. The earned value (EV) and the actual cost to date (ACc). B. The cost performance index (CPI) and the cost variance (CV). C. The actual cost to date (ACc) and the cost performance index (CPI). D. The actual cost to date (ACc) and the estimate to complete (ETC).
All Q & A Issued by PMI The cost management plan has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. It is based on the project cost estimates, and is separate from the project plan. B. Can establish variance thresholds for costs or other indicators. C. May be formal or informal, highly detailed or broadly framed. D. Documents the cost management processes and their associated tools and techniques.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Your schedule analysis has shown that your project has a high likelihood of experiencing a schedule overrun. You know this because the cumulative EV is much: A. Higher than the cumulative AC. B. Higher than the cumulative PV. C. Lower than the cumulative PV. D. Lower than the cumulative CPI.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Which of the following choices indicates that your project is 9% under budget? A. The cumulative AC was 100, and the cumulative EV was 110. B. The cumulative PV was 100, and the cumulative AC was 110. C. The cumulative AC was 110, and the cumulative EV was 100. D. The cumulative EV was 100, and the cumulative PV was 110.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Earned value technique (EVT) can best be defined as : A. Analysis of the value of the equipment that has been installed as of the data date. B. Analysis of the sum of the labor costs, which have been incurred on the project to date. C. A method of project performance measurement. D. A method of measuring the amount of money that has been spent to date.
All Q & A Issued by PMI During the sixth monthly update on a ten-month, $ project, the analysis shows that the cumulative PV is $ the cumulative AC is $10.000, and the cumulative EV is $ In planning its action, management can conclude all of the following from these figures EXCEPT: A. Less has been accomplished than was planned. B. Less has been spent than planned. C. Continuing performance at the same efficiency with no management intervention, the project will probably be completed ahead of schedule and over budget. D. Continuing performance at the same efficiency with no management intervention, the project will probably be completed behind schedule and under budget.
All Q & A Issued by PMI In the earned value technique, cost variance is computed as : A. EV minus PV. B. EV minus AC. C. AC minus EV. D. PV minus EV.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Earned value (EV) involves all of the following EXCEPT : A. The originally allocated budget amount. B. Actual cost. C. Value of the budgeted cost of work performed. D. Budgeted amount for the work actually completed.
All Q & A Issued by PMI If cumulative = 100, cumulative EV = 98, and cumulative AC = 104, the project is : A. Ahead of schedule. B. Headed for a cost overrun. C. Operating at project cost projections. D. Likely to come in under budget at completion. Cumulative data for questions Item PV AC EV
All Q & A Issued by PMI Which item is Most over budget? : A. Item 1. B. Item 2. C. Item 3 D. Item 4.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Which item has the LOWEST SPI? A. Item 1. B. Item 2. C. Item 3 D. Item 4.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Inputs to quality control include all of the following EXCEPT : A. Work performance information. B. Quality management plan. C. Quality checklists. D. PERT chart. Project Quality Management
All Q & A Issued by PMI One of the fundamental tenets of modern quality management is: A. Quality is planned and inspected in. B. Quality dose not cost. C. Quality is planned, designed, and built in——not inspected in. D. Quality requires constant inspection.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Understanding, evaluating, defining, and managing expectations are essential to satisfying: A. Customer requirements. B. The scope statement. C. Upper management. D. Functional requirements.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of the following represent, or result from, the primary benefit of meeting quality requirement EXCEPT: A. Lees rework. B. Higher productivity. C. Lower costs. D. Fewer change orders.
All Q & A Issued by PMI “Design of experiments” is a statistical method that helps: A. Determine how various elements of a system interrelate. B. Identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process. C. Establish a standard by which to measure performance. D. Compare actual or planned project practices to those of other projects.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The quality management plan provides input to————and must address quality control (QC), quality assurance (QA), and continuous process improvement for the project. A. The overall project management plan. B. The WBS. C. The project scope. D. External stakeholder.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Quality assurance (QA): A. Is the application of planned, systematic quality activities to ensure effective policing of the conformance of the project team to approved specifications. B. Is primarily concerned with providing the project team and stakeholders with standards, by which the project performance is measured. C. Is the application of planned, systematic quality activities to ensure that the project will employ all processes needed to meet requirements. D. Generally reduces the probability of project completion on schedule.
All Q & A Issued by PMI A—————is a specific type of histogram, ordered by frequency of occurrence, which shows how many defects were generated by type or category of identified cause A. Pareto chart. B. Bar chart. C. Network diagram. D. Critical path.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Quality costs include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Appraisal. B. Prevention. C. External failure. D. Computer operations.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Investment in product quality improvement, especially defect prevention and appraisal, can often be borne by: A. The acquiring organization B. The project management team. C. Executive management. D. The project.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Tools and techniques of quality control include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Flowcharting. B. Pareto chart. C. Control charts. D. Estimates of control tendency.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The use of quality management processes and activities aims to provide a higher degree of: A. Needs satisfaction. B. Process capability. C. Product improvement. D. Project team performance.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Quality and grade are not the same. A fundamental distinction is that: A. Grad is a category assigned to products or services having the same functional use, but different technical characteristics. B. Low quality may not be a problem; low grade is always a problem C. Determining and delivering the required levels of quality are not included in the responsibilities of the project manager and the project team. D. Determining and delivering the required levels of grade are not included in the responsibilities of the project manager and the project team.
All Q & A Issued by PMI A control chart has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. It illustrates how a process behaves over time. B. It is used to determine whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance. C. It illustrates how various factors might be linked to potential problems or effects. D. It can be used to monitor any type of output variable.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Quality ——————is the application of planned, systematic quality activities to ensure that the project will employ all processes needed to meet requirements. A. Planning. B. Assurance. C. Improvement. D. Benchmarking.
All Q & A Issued by PMI In Quality Planning: A. The primary benefit of meeting quality requirements is the reduced expense associated with project quality management activities. B. Cost-benefit tradeoffs must be considered. C. The primary cost of meeting quality requirements is increased rework. D. Benefits cannot be evaluated in relation to costs.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of the following are characteristics of benchmarking EXCEPT: A. It involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement. B. It involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of other projects to provide a basis by which to measure performance. C. It involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of other projects within the performing organization or outside of it. D. It involves comparing actual or planned project practices to those of other projects only within the same application area.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of the following are true about Six sigma EXCEPT: A. It is a quality improvement initiative undertaken by the performing organization. B. It can improve the quality of the project’s management. C. It can improve the quality of the project’s product. D. It focuses on systematically correcting mistakes revealed by thorough inspection.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Project team members are draw from all available sources, both internal and external. When the project management team is able to influence or direct staff assignments, characteristics to consider include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Availability. B. Political philosophy. C. Ability. D. Experience. Project Human Resource Management
All Q & A Issued by PMI It is important that the staffing management plan addresses how team members will be released when they are no longer needed on the project for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: A. To reduce cost. B. To improve morale when smooth transitions to upcoming projects are already planned. C. To optimize the utilization of enterprise material resources. D. To eliminate payments for people who are finished with their assignments.
All Q & A Issued by PMI To be effective, recognition and rewards systems should have the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. There should be clear criteria for rewards and a planned system for their use. B. Recognition and rewards should be based on activities and performance under a person’s control. C. Recognition and rewards should consider cultural differences. D. Make the required performance unachievable for most team members, to ensure that all team members strive for excellence throughout the project.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Co-location is one of the tools and technique to: A. Plan the organizational structure. B. Develop the project team. C. Acquire the project team. D. Plan the project resources.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The project human resource management processes include the following: A. Leadership, team building, and negotiation. B. Recruitment, labor relations, and personnel administration. C. Organizational structure planning, team building, communication, and labor relations. D. Human resource planning, acquire project team, develop project team, and manage project team.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Tools and techniques to acquire the project team include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Per-Assignment. B. Acquisition. C. Staffing management plan. D. Negotiation.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of the following are outputs of human resource planning EXCEPT: A. Roles and responsibilities. B. Project organization charts. C. Staffing management plan. D. Project interfaces.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Management of the project team is complicated: A. When team members are co-located. B. When minor problems do not impact the project completion date or budget targets. C. When team members are accountable to both a functional manager and the project manager. D. When formal training plans are implemented.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The responsibility assignment matrix (RAM): A. Is used for development of the project budget. B. Is developed at the activity level and used to closely link project roles and responsibilities to project network activities. C. Is used to show the connections between work that needs to be done and project team members. It can show responsibilities at various levels of detail. D. Is used to identify accountabilities in individual performance appraisals.
All Q & A Issued by PMI A resource histogram has all the following characteristic EXCEPT: A. It generally shows that the project has insufficient resources to be competed on schedule. B. It is a tool of the staffing management plan. C. It illustrates the number of hours that a person, department, or entire project team will be needed each week or month over the course of the project. D. It can include a horizontal line that represents the maximum number of hours available from a particular resource. Bars that extend beyond the maximum available hours identify the need for a resource leveling strategy.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Team-building activities have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. Some group activities, such as developing the WBS, can increase team cohesiveness when that planning activity is structured and facilitated well. B. Should only be considered after major conflicts within the project team, since they generally waste precious resource time and cause schedule delays. C. Are particularly valuable when team members operate virtually from remote locations, without the benefit of face-to-face contact. D. Can vary from a five-minute agenda item in a status review meeting to an off-site, professionally facilitated experience designed to improve interpersonal relationships.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Training has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. Includes all activities designed to enhance the competencies of the project team members. B. Can be formal or informal. Examples of training methods include classroom, online, computer-based, on-the-job training from another project team member, mentoring, and coaching. C. If project team members lack necessary management or technical skills, the project should be abandoned and deemed outside the core competencies of the performing organization. D. If project team members lack necessary management or technical skills, such skills can be develop as part of the project work.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Effective team development strategies and activities are expected to increase the team’s performance, which increases the likelihood of meeting project objectives. The evaluation of a team’s effectiveness can include all of the following indicators EXCEPT: A. Improvement in skills that allow a person to perform assigned activities more effectively. B. Improvements in competencies and sentiments that help the team perform better as a group. C. Increased intensity of conflict among project team members. D. Reduced staff turnover rate.
All Q & A Issued by PMI During the course of many projects, negotiations are: A. Primarily the concern of contract administration. B. Likely for staff assignments. C. A direct result of ineffective decision-making. D. Conducted by senior executives.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Questions that may arise when planning the acquisition of project team members generally include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Whether the human resources come from within the organization or from external, contracted sources. B. The costs associated with each level of expertise needed for the project. C. Senior executive compensation. D. The extent of assistance that the organization’s human resource department can provide to the project management team.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of the following are true about conflict EXCEPT: A. It should be addressed early. B. It should be addressed usually in private. C. It should be addressed only when it escalates and at a special team meeting. D. It should be addressed using a direct, collaborative approach.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The major process of project communications management are: A. Communications planning, information distribution, performance reporting, and manage stakeholders. B. Communications planning, response planning, progress reporting, and information distribution. C. Communications planning, information distribution, schedule reporting, and stakeholder analysis. D. Communications planning, change reporting, project records, and acceptance. Project Communication Management
All Q & A Issued by PMI Attributes of a communications management plan can include all of the following EXCEPT: A. The information that will be distributed to stakeholders. B. How often information will be distributed. C. The layout of the information and the method of transmission. D. All memos, correspondence, reports, and documents related to the project from all personnel.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Inputs to communications planning include: A. Enterprise environmental factors, organizational process assets, project scope statement, and project management plan. B. Stakeholder requirements, project logistics, project budget, and project schedule. C. Stakeholder analysis, communication barriers, and organizational structure. D. Stakeholder survey, RAM, WBS, and administrative procedures.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Manual filing systems, electronic databases, project management software, and systems that allow access to technical documentation are examples of: A. Information distribution. B. Internal communication systems. C. Information gathering and retrieval systems. D. Project records.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Communications technology factors that can affect the project include all of the following EXCEPT: A. The length of the project. B. The availability of technology. C. Executive requirements. D. The urgency of the need for information.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Tools and techniques for performance reporting include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Information presentation tools. B. Decision tree analysis. C. Cost reporting systems. D. Status review meetings.
All Q & A Issued by PMI As part of the communications process, the sender is responsible for: A. Ensuring the receiver agrees with the message. B. Confirming that the information is properly understood. C. Presenting the information in the most favorable manner. D. Interpreting the message correctly.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Information typically required to determine project columniations requirements includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Project organization and stakeholder responsibility relationships. B. Logistics of how many persons will be involved with the project and at which locations. C. Disciplines, departments, and specialties involved in the project. D. The availability of in-place technology at the project location.
All Q & A Issued by PMI As part of the communications process, the receiver is responsible for: A. Agreeing with the sender’s message. B. Pretending that the message is received only partially, to encourage further discussions. C. Making sure that the information is received in its entirety and understood correctly. D. Specifying that the message is not understood, unless it is reduced to writing.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The performance reporting process involves the collection of all baseline data, and distribution of performance information to stakeholders. Performance reporting should generally provide information on: A. Scope. Schedule, cost, and quality. B. Reward and recognition information system. C. Performance appraisals. D. Exceptional performance.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Communicating has many dimensions that include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Written and oral, listening, and speaking. B. Internal and external. C. Conceptual and definitive. D. Formal and informal.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of the following are information distribution method EXCEPT: A. Project meetings. B. Hard-copy document distribution. C. Inputting data into a spreadsheet. D. Electronic communication and conferencing tools.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The total number of communication channels for a project with n=12 stakeholders is: A. n(n – 1)/2. B. 2n/(n – 1). C. 2(n – 1)/n. D. 47 communications channels.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Specific results from lessons learned generally include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Update of the lessons learned knowledge base. B. Updating the statement of work to reflect training and learning requirements. C. Input to knowledge management system. D. Updated corporate policies, procedures, and processes.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Strategies typically used to deal with threats or risk that may have negative impacts on project objectives if they occur include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Interpret. B. Avoid. C. Transfer. D. Mitigate. Project Risk Management
All Q & A Issued by PMI Risk transference nearly always involves: A. Eliminating risk through beta testing. B. Policies and procedures for a response system. C. Accepting a lower profit if some activities overrun. D. Payment of a risk premium to the party taking on the risk.
All Q & A Issued by PMI To be successful, the organization should be committed to addressing the management of risk: A. Just before a meeting with a client. B. Proactively and consistently throughout the project. C. As soon as time and cost estimates are ready. D. Early in the execution phase.
All Q & A Issued by PMI In risk response planning, an acceptance strategy indicates that the project team has decided: A. To agree with the project manager. B. To eliminate a specific threat. C. Not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk, or is unable to identify any other suitable response strategy. D. To purchase insurance.
All Q & A Issued by PMI An output of risk identification is: A. A risk register. B. Expected monetary value of the risk events. C. Corrective actions. D. The plan for mitigation.
All Q & A Issued by PMI A thorough review of———will help identify potential risks to the project: A. Risk identification checklists based on historical information and knowledge. B. The project’s change control system. C. The project's mission statement. D. The project’s budget.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of the following are inputs to risk identification EXCEPT: A. Risk management plan. B. Project management plan. C. Work-around plan. D. Project scope statement.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The major processes of risk management are: A. Planning identification, documentation, and assessment. B. Identification, planning, evaluation, response development, mitigation, and documentation. C. Identification, response development, assessment, and documentation. D. Planning, identification, qualitative analysis, quantitative analysis, response planning, and monitoring and control.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Outputs from risk response planning include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Risk register updates. B. Corrective actions. C. Risk-related contractual agreements. D. Project management plan update.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The tools and techniques of quantitative risk analysis are: A. Contracting, contingency planning, alternative strategies, and insurance. B. Interviewing, historical results, workaround, and additional response development. C. Checklists, damage control reports, standard allowances, and inspection. D. Data gathering and representation techniques, and quantitative risk analysis and modeling techniques.
All Q & A Issued by PMI As an output of quantitative risk analysis, the risk register is updated. These updates include: A. Prioritized list of quantified risks. B. Probabilistic analysis of the threats to ignore and opportunities to accept. C. Checklists, corrective actions, and quantified decision trees. D. Direction, resources, and costs.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Evaluating the impact of a risk on project objectives (e.g., cost, schedule, scope, and quality) has the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. Relative scales for impact are simply rank-ordered descriptions, such as “very low”, ”low”, “moderate”, “high”, and “very high”. These descriptors reflect increasingly extreme impacts as defined by the organization. B. Numeric scales can be used to assign values to the impacts. These values may be linear or nonlinear. C. Usually, the risk-rating rules are specified by the organization in advance of the project and can be tailored to the specific project. D. The impact on project objectives should be only assessed at the end of the project, as part of the lessons learned.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The outputs from risk monitoring and control include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Requested changes. B. Work breakdown structure (WBS). C. Recommended corrective actions. D. Updates to the risk register.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The Delphi technique has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. It is a way to reach a consensus of experts on a subject such as project risk. B. It is a technique in which project risk experts participate anonymously. C. It helps reduce bias in the data and keeps any one person from having undue influence on the outcome. D. It is an ancient Greek technique to ensure that actions of subordinates are aligned with the vision of senior executives.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The Risk Score: A. Is calculated by multiplying the probability of a risk occurring times its impact (ratio scale) on an objective (e.g., cost, time, scope, or quality) if it does occur. B. Is the sum of squares of the scale values assigned to the estimates of probability and impact. C. Cannot be used to determine whether a risk is considered low, moderate or high. D. Is a very effective technique for risk avoidance.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Sensitivity analysis: A. Examines the extent to which the uncertainty of project objectives affects each project element simultaneously. B. Examines the extent to which the uncertainty of each project element affects the objective being examined when all other uncertain elements are held at their baseline values. C. Is a method for assessing stakeholders tolerance to risk. D. Cannot be used to determine which risks have the most potential impact on the project.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Decision tree analysis has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. It is usually structured using a decision tree diagram that describes a situation under consideration, and the implications of each of the available choices and possible scenarios. B. It incorporates the cost of each available choice, the probabilities of each possible scenario, and the rewards of each alternative logical path. C. It is primarily a descriptive technique and cannot be effectively used in quantitative risk analysis. D. Solving the decision tree provides the expected monetary value (or other measure of interest to the organization) for each alternative, when all the rewards and subsequent decisions are quantified.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The risk management plan generally includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Methodology. B. Definition of risk probability and impact. C. Responses to individual risks. D. Probability and impact matrix.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Qualitative risk analysis assesses the priority of identified risks using all of the following EXCEPT: A. Probability of occurring of identified risks. B. Impact on project objectives if the identified risks do occur. C. A mathematical technique to create a false impression of precision and reliability. D. Risk tolerance of the project constraints of cost, schedule, scope, and quality.
All Q & A Issued by PMI As an output of risk monitoring and control, an update risk register generally contains some or all of the following EXCEPT: A. The work breakdown structure (WBS). B. Outcomes of risk reassessments, risk audits, and periodic risk reviews. C. Updates to probability, impact, priority, response plans, ownership, and other elements of the risk register. D. The actual outcomes of the project's risks, and of risk responses.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Expected monetary value (EMV) analysis has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT : A. It is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen. B. The EMV of opportunities will generally be expressed as positive values, while those of risks will be negative. C. EMV analysis cannot be used effectively in decision tree analysis. D. EMV is calculated by multiplying the value of each possible outcome by its probability of occurrence, and adding them together.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of the following are inputs to the plan purchases and Acquisitions process EXCEPT : A. Project scope statement. B. Enterprise environmental factors. C. Application area extensions. D. Work breakdown structure. Project Procurement Management
All Q & A Issued by PMI The buyer structures procurement documents to accomplish all of the following EXCEPT : A. Facilitate an accurate and complete response from each prospective seller. B. Include the relevant contract statement of work and any required contractual provisions. C. Include a description of the desired form of the response. D. Provide a list of potential bidders to each prospective seller.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Generally, a bid differs from a proposal in that the term : A. Proposal is used when source selection will be based on price. B. Proposal is used when the project time frame is limited. C. Bid is used when source selection will be based on price. D. Proposal disregards price considerations.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Approved change requests can include all of the following EXCEPT : A. Modifications to the terms and conditions of the contract. B. Modification to the description of the products, services, or results to be provided. C. Seller invoices. D. Modification to pricing.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Which of the following is false about advertising as a tool and technique of the request seller responses process? A. It is sometimes required on government projects. B. It can often be used to expand the existing lists of potential sellers. C. It can cause public pressure resulting in bid disputes. D. It can be placed in general circulation publications, such as newspapers, or in specialty publications, such as professional journals.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The payment system includes all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. Appropriate reviews and approvals by the project management team. B. Payments are made in accordance with the terms of the contract. C. Negotiations occur over price and other terms of the contract. D. Payments to the seller are usually handled by the accounts payable system of the buyer.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The buyer, usually through its authorized contract administrator, provides the seller with———as an output of the contract closure process. A. A formal written notice that the deliverables have been accepted or rejected. B. Letters of commendation to all project staff. C. Informal notice of acceptance of the deliverables. D. A copy of the internal notice of completion provided to senior management.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Which category of contract is often used for a well-defined product? A. Unit-price contract. B. Fixed-price or lump-sum contract. C. Cost-reimbursable contract. D. Partnership contract.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Constructive changes are: A. Postponed as long as possible to protect the budget. B. Viewed as negative, quantified, and tabulated. C. Uniquely identified and document by project correspondence. D. Submitted for bids to the relevant vendor list.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The procurement audit has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. It maintains a complete file of contract-related records. B. It is a structured review of the procurement process. C. It is a review of various processes from plan purchases and acquisitions through contract administration. D. Its objective is to identify successes and failures that warrant recognition.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Which of these terms is one of the three used to describe contested changes and constructive changes where the buyer and seller cannot agree on compensation for the change, or cannot agree that a change has even occurred? A. Forcing. B. Mediation. C. Complaints. D. Disputes.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Different types of contracts are more or less appropriate for different types of purchases. Contracts generally fall into one of the following broad categories EXCEPT: A. Request for proposal (RFP). B. Fixed-price or lump-sum contracts. C. Cost-reimbursable contracts. D. Time and material (T&M) contracts.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of the following are true about the statement of work (SOW) EXCEPT: A. It can include specifications, quantity desired, quality levels, performance data, period of performance, work location, and other requirements. B. It should be as ambiguous, as incomplete, and as wordy as possible to allow for future negotiations. C. It describes the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the item. D. It can be revised and refined as required as it moves through the procurement process until incorporated into a signed contract.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Outputs from the contract closure process include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Closed contract(s). B. Formal confirmation of deliverable acceptance or rejection. C. The request for proposal (RFP) or request for quotation (RFQ), and the seller’s working proposal. D. Lessons learned documentation.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Evolution criteria are developed and used to rate or score proposals. These criteria have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. They can be objective, such as, “The proposed project manager needs to be a certified project management professional (or PMP). B. They can be objective, such as, “The proposed project manager needs to have documented previous experience with similar projects” C. They can be limited to purchase price if the procurement item is readily available from a number of acceptable sellers. D. They generally require specification of the name of the transportation organization responsible for delivery of procured items.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of the following are tools and techniques for selecting sellers EXCEPT: A. Independent estimates. B. Weighting system. C. Screening system. D. Resource distribution system.
All Q & A Issued by PMI A cost-plus-fixed-fee (CPFF) contract has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. Seller is reimbursed for allowable costs for performing the contract work. B. Seller receives a fixed fee payment calculated as a percentage of the actual project costs. C. Seller receives a fixed fee payment calculated as a percentage of the estimated project costs. D. The fixed fee dose not vary with actual costs unless the project scope changes.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Baseline is the approved: A. Project schedule and budget. B. Description in the project charter. C. Time phased plan, plus or minus approved project scope, cost, schedule, and technical changes. D. Starting point for contract negotiations. Glossary
All Q & A Issued by PMI A code of accounts: A. Is any numbering system used to uniquely identify each component of the work breakdown structure. B. Includes work packages, used to track phase completion. C. Is an organizational scheme to keep track of contracts. D. Charts elements of the WBS against the timeline.
All Q & A Issued by PMI A stakeholder is a(n): A. Project engineer. B. Individual or agency that controls contingency funds. C. Organization’s corporate attorney. D. Person or organization that is actively involved in the project, or whose inertest may be positively or negatively affected by execution or completion of the project.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Scope planning for a project is: A. The project specification that includes design principles and project objectives. B. A three-level project work breakdown structure. C. The process of creating a project scope management plan. D. The record showing that all project deliverables are completed satisfactorily.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Scope definition is: A. The process of developing a detailed project scope statement as the basis for future project decisions. B. Determining the responses needed to perform project activities. C. Analysis of activity sequence, duration, and resource requirements. D. A written statement identifying the quality standards relevant to the project.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of the following are characteristics of a work package EXCEPT: A. It is a deliverable or project work component at the lowest level of each branch of the work breakdown structure. B. It is a summary task at the top level of the WBS. C. It includes the schedule activities required for completion of the deliverable or project work component. D. It includes the schedule milestones required for completion of the deliverable or project work component.
All Q & A Issued by PMI In what way does free float differ from total float? A. Free float is the amount of total float that does not affect the end date, whereas total float is the accumulated amount of free float. B. There is no difference—the two terms are functionally equivalent. C. Free float is the amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start of any immediately following schedule activities, whereas total float is concerned with delays that do not affect the project finfish date. D. An activity’s free float is calculated by subtracting its total float from the critical path’s total float.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The project’s performance measurement baseline: A. Is used for management control. B. Changes frequently. C. Documents relevant standards. D. Generally can be changed by the project team.
All Q & A Issued by PMI What does cost of quality mean? A. The sacrifice of unessential project objectives to meet essential quality standards. B. The life cycle cost of the project. C. Determining the costs incurred to ensure quality. D. The cost of meeting project objectives.
All Q & A Issued by PMI FFP is an acronym for: A. Free-Flow performance. B. Firm-Fixed-Price. C. Free-From project. D. Fixed-File procurement.
All Q & A Issued by PMI A chart of accounts: A. Is used to monitor project costs by WBS elements. B. Is any numbering system used to monitor project costs by category (e.g., labor, supplies, materials, and equipment). C. Is developed as part of the project charter. D. Provides a graphical representation of project costs in relation to the project schedule.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The approved project baseline should be changed: A. When a sequence of activities has taken longer than originally planned. B. To reflect approved project scope, cost, schedule, and technical changes. C. When the productivity within a certain discipline has been higher than originally planned. D. When a high-duration activity has been accomplished “out-of-sequence”.
All Q & A Issued by PMI All of the following are true about the product life cycle EXCEPT: A. It is collection of generally sequential, non- overlapping product phases. B. The last product life cycle phases a product is generally the product’s deterioration and death. C. Generally, a project life cycle is contained within one or more product life cycles. D. Generally, a project life cycle is contains one or more product life cycles.
All Q & A Issued by PMI The performance measurement baseline: A. Typically covers the schedule, and occasionally the cost parameters of a project, but may not include technical and quality parameters. B. Changes frequently to accommodate current information about the project. C. Is the approved plan for the project work against which project execution is compared and deviations are measured for management control. D. Generally changes at regular project review meetings in order to keep the customer happy.
All Q & A Issued by PMI Workaround is: A. A response to a negative risk that has occurred. A workaround is not planned in advance of the occurrence of the risk event. B. A contingency plan. C. Implementation of the contingency plan for a positive risk event. D. Using global sourcing to continue project development around the clock.