2USP/NF 797 requires that air sampling for high risk level areas be performed at least: DailyWeeklyMonthlyAnnuallyweekly
3How often must work surfaces in the ISO Class 7 and 8 area buffer/clean rooms be cleaned? At least dailyEvery shiftEvery 8 hoursPRN
4Which of the following pharmacy areas should not contain sinks or floor drains according to USP/NF 797?WorkroomAnteroomClean roomAll of the above
5The Buffer / Clean rooms should provide which of the following environments according to USP/NF 797? ISO class 6ISO class 7ISO class 8None of the aboveISO Class 7
6Which is NOT a compounding example of a Low-Risk level Sterile Preparation? A single transfer from a sterile ampule using sterile suppliesMeasuring/mixing 2 manufactured products to prepare an admixtureMeasuring/mixing 3 manufactured products to prepare a nutritional preparationMeasuring/mixing 4 manufactured products for TPN.Measuring/mixing 4 products
7Which is a compounding example of a High-Risk level Sterile Preparation? Sterile ingredients are measured/mixed in nonsterile devices before sterilization.Dissolving nonsterile bulk drug and nutrient powders for solutions to be sterilized.TPN fluids prepared by automated device requiring multiple injections to a container.All of the above.Only A&B
8How often must High-Risk level media fill testing be conducted by compounding personnel? At least monthlyAt least annuallyAt least semiannuallyAt least weekly
9Which of the following components of a syringe must remain sterile? TipBarrelInner core of plungerAll of the aboveOnly A and C
10Which gauge of needle would be used to draw up a thick substance such as Albumin?
11Which of the following components of the Intravenous Administration Set is used to calculate the rate at which the solution is being infused?SpikeDrip chamberRoll clampAdditive portNeedle adaptor
12The cover protecting the Intravenous Administration Set spike should not be removed outside of the hood prior to inserting it into the IV bag administration set port because it must remain sterile at all times.TrueFalse
13When preparing a TPN solution containing both phosphate and calcium type additives, _______ should be added first, then squeeze and agitate the additive port, flush by adding other drugs in between and then add ______ last.Calcium, phosphatePhosphate, calcium
14There are various sizes of bacteria, but the average size of bacteria is 5 micron13 micron1 micron20 micronNone of the above
15Which of the following bacteria are so light in weight that they can stay suspended in air and be carried by air currents?StaphylococcusStreptococcusProteusAll of the aboveOnly A and B
16Alcohols have excellent in vitro germicidal activity against Gram-positive vegetative bacteriaGram-negative vegetative bacteriaMultidrug-resistant pathogensMycobacterium tuberculosisAll of the above
17Put the following gowning and gloving garb in the correct order, according to USP NF/797. Head and/or facial hair coversNonshedding gownShoe coverSterile glovesFace maskB,D,A,E,C: shoe covers, head/hair covers,Face mask, gown, sterile gloves
18The USP NF/797 states that when carts are being used they can NOT cross over clean zones unless they are cleaned and sanitized before returning to the clean room.TrueFalse
19If the blower on a laminar flow hood or barrier isolator is turned off, then only TWO persons can enter the buffer area for the purposes of turning on the blower and of sanitizing the work surface for a minimum of 30 minutes.TrueFalse
20USP NF/797 requires that all surfaces of the direct compounding environment be first cleaned with _____, to remove any water soluble residues, then with ______, and wiped clean with a nonshedding wipe.Water for irrigation, Sterile 70% Isopropyl Alc.Sterile water, Purified 70% Isopropyl AlcoholPurified Water, Sterile 70% Isopropyl AlcoholSpring Water, 90% Isopropyl Alcohol
21In which laminar airflow hood is the HEPA filter located at the back of the hood facing the preparer?Vertical airflowHorizontal airflowBiological safety cabinetOnly A and CNone of the above
22In which Class of Biological Safety cabinet is the entire cabinet under negative pressure where operations are performed through attached gloves and the cabinet is entirely enclosed with gas tight construction?Class IClass IIClass IIINone of the above
23In which type of Biological Safety cabinet is air not re-circulated, total exhaust? Type AType B1Type B2Type B3
24When working in a horizontal laminar airflow hood, all manipulations should be performed at least ___ inches within the hood to prevent contamination of mixed air from the room.36810
25When working inside the vertical flow hood, all manipulations should be carried out at least ___ or more inches above the work surface area, because of where the HEPA filter is located.36810
26When using a contaminant barrier isolator to prepare cytotoxic or hazardous drugs, it should be under ______ pressure.PositiveNegative
27Which of the following drugs are used to treat cancer by substituting in or blocking the use of essential nutrients and enzymes?Mitotic InhibitorsAlkylating AgentsAntimetabolitesNone of the above
28Which of the following drugs are considered the first anticancer drugs and work by binding to human DNA cells to stop their duplicating?Mitotic InhibitorsAlkylating AgentsAntimetabolitesNone of the above
29Although Vinblastine and Vincristine can both be used to treat solid tumors, lymphomas, and Hodgkins disease, only one of these can be used to treat Leukemia. Which is it?VinblastineVincristineOncovinBoth A and CBoth B and C
30Which of the following cancer drugs can be used to treat testicular cancer? IfosfamideEtoposideDactinomycinAll of the above
31Which of the following cancer drugs can be used to treat head, neck and lung cancer? MitomycinMethotrexateMithracinAll of the aboveOnly A and B
32Match the cancer drugs with the correct cell cycle specific agent they act upon. CytarabineBleomycinFloxuridineVinblastineA. G1 Phase, S PhaseB. G2 Phase, M PhaseC. M PhaseD. S PhaseD, B, A, C
33Which of the following cytotoxic agents is considered a vascular irritant, not a vesicant? MitomycinMitoxantrone HClMechlorethamine HClAll of the above are vascular irritants.None of the above.
34OSHA recommends cleaning ____ time(s) using a detergent solution followed by water when cleaning up a small hazardous drug spill.OneTwoThreeFour
35Which of the following Cytotoxic drugs must be filtered? AlemtuzumabAsparaginaseAldesleukin Interleukin-2DactinomycinDaunorubian Citrate Liposomal
36Which of the following solutions should Filgrastim (Neupogen) be mixed in? D5WSterile WaterAll of the above
37Which of the following Cytotoxic agents should be mixed in a glass container? DocetaxelDoxorubicinDacarbazineDexrazoxane
38Which of the following cytotoxic agents should be diluted with NaCl instead of D5W? MechlorethamineMitomycinCladridineAll of the aboveOnly A and B
39The USP NF/797 requires daily monitoring and documentation of refrigerators to ensure that the temperature remains between ______ degrees Celsius.2 to 84 to 106 to 128 to 1410 to 16
41The USP 797 requires that any compounded sterile preparation which is exposed to temperatures exceeding 40 degrees Celsius for more than 4 hours should be discarded unless appropriate documentation or direct assay can confirm the preparation is stable.TrueFalse
42The USP 797 requires that labeling for IV preparations which are shipped off-site contain which of the following?Clearly readable beyond use datesStorage instructionsInstructions for disposal of out-of-date unitsAll of the above are required.Only A and B are required.
43Which of the following IV Admixtures does NOT require filter tubing when dispensing? AlbuminAmiodaroneFat EmulsionMannitolSodium Nitroprusside
44Which of the following IV admixtures should NOT be refrigerated when dispensing? AcyclovirDopamineMetronidazoleAll of the aboveOnly A and C
45Which of the following IV admixtures should be mixed in glass containers when dispensing? Hydrochloric AcidNitroglycerinAmiodarone if infusion > 2 hoursAll of the aboveOnly A and B
46Which of the following injectables MUST be stored in the refrigerator? Amphoteracin BAtenololFilgrastimAll of the above must be refrigerated.Only A and C
47Which of the following injectables should NOT be stored in the refrigerator? Vecuronium BromideGanciclovir PowderPolymixin B SulfateAll of the aboveOnly B and C
48The USP 797 divides contamination into 4 major categories. TrueFalseFalse; just 3 categories
49Which of these would work for the sterilization AND depyrogenation process? Temp 160° Celsius for minutesTemp 170° Celsius for minutesTemp 180° Celsius for minutesTemp 230° Celsius for minutes
50The Texas State Board of Pharmacy does NOT require which of these on the “Master Formulation Worksheet” for batched prepared sterile preparations.Formula, components, compounding directionsPharmacist and PT names / signaturesSpecific equipment used and a sample labelEvaluation and testing requirementsSterilization methods and storage req.
51Which of the following is NOT required on the label of a sterile pharmaceutical product by the Texas State Board of Pharmacy? Patient birth date Patient name Patient location Patient identification
52Which of the following is NOT required by the USP 797 on labels and accessory labels for all compounded sterile preparations shipped off-site by a pharmacy?Clearly readable beyond-use datesStorage instructionsInstructions for contacting the physician in case of emergencyInstructions for disposal of out-of-date unitsInstructions for contacting the physician
53Using multiple ampules to be transferred into one final sterile container is an example of: Immediate Use Risk LevelLow Risk LevelMedium Risk LevelNone of the Above
54Only a single transfer from a sterile vial utilizing sterile supplies is an example of Immediate Use Risk LevelLow Risk LevelMedium Risk LevelHigh Risk LevelNone of the Above
55Emergency Room Treatments, to be used within 1 hour, are an example of Immediate Use Risk LevelLow Risk LevelMedium Risk LevelHigh Risk LevelNone of the Above
56Sterile ingredients measured /mixed with nonsterile devices before sterilization is performed is an example ofImmediate Use Risk LevelLow Risk LevelMedium Risk LevelHigh Risk LevelNone of the above
57How many grams of Mannitol are needed to prepare 500 grams of a 10% (w/w) solution in water?
58You need to prepare a 20% viscous Lidocaine solution You need to prepare a 20% viscous Lidocaine solution. How many grams of Lidocaine will need to be dissolved in 500 ml of water to make this solution?
59What is the percentage strength of a solution containing Benadryl 50 gm in 473 ml of liquid?
60How many grams of Mannitol will you need to prepare 1 liter of a 20% solution?
61How many grams of Epinephrine are needed to prepare 500 ml of a 0 How many grams of Epinephrine are needed to prepare 500 ml of a 0.01% Epinephrine solution?
62In order to prepare 1 liter of 5% Hydrochloric Acid solution, how many ml’s of Hydrochloric Acid are required?
63For the last question, how many ml’s of sterile water should be added to the Hydrochloric acid solution to prepare the 1 liter solution?
64A 500 ml bag of D5NS infusing at 32 ml/hour will last for how many hours?
65For the last question, how many bags will need to be sent in a 24 hour period?
66You have Pitocin 40 units in D5W 500 ml to be infused over 4 hours You have Pitocin 40 units in D5W 500 ml to be infused over 4 hours. What is the rate in ml/hr the patient is receiving the Pitocin?
67Order: D5LR infusing at 80 ml/hr Order: D5LR infusing at 80 ml/hr. How many ml’s will be infused at the end of 24 hours?
68What is the rate of infusion of Dopamine 250 mg in D5W 500 ml to be infused over 4 hours?