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Airports, Airspace & ATC Runway & Taxi Markings What color are all runway markings?

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Presentation on theme: "Airports, Airspace & ATC Runway & Taxi Markings What color are all runway markings?"— Presentation transcript:

1

2 Airports, Airspace & ATC

3 Runway & Taxi Markings What color are all runway markings?

4 Runway & Taxi Markings What color are all runway markings? White

5 Runway & Taxi Markings What color are all taxiways, closed areas, hazardous areas and holding positions?

6 Runway & Taxi Markings What color are all taxiways, closed areas, hazardous areas and holding positions? Yellow

7 Taxiway Marking Provides a visual cue to permit taxiing along a designated path. Marking may be enhanced on light- colored pavement by outlining with a black border.

8 Runway & Taxi Markings What are the three types of usage that determine how a runway will be marked?

9 Runway & Taxi Markings What are the three types of usage that determine how a runway will be marked? Visual Runway Nonprecision instrument runway Precision instrument runway

10 Runway & Taxi Markings How is a visual runway marked?

11 VISUAL RUNWAY Designation marking Centerline marking Optional marking –International commercial transport require threshold marking

12 VISUAL RUNWAY Optional Marking –4,000 ft or longer used by jet aircraft require aiming point marking –Side stripes may be added if necessary

13 Runway & Taxi Markings How is a nonprecision instrument runway marked?

14 Runway & Taxi Markings How is a nonprecision instrument runway marked? Designation marking Centerline marking Threshold markings Aim point marker

15 Runway & Taxi Markings How is a precision instrument runway marked?

16 Runway & Taxi Markings Designation marking Centerline marking Threshold markings Aim point marker Touchdown zone marker

17 Runway & Taxi Markings What is a displaced threshold?

18 Runway & Taxi Markings What is a displaced threshold? A threshold that is not at the beginning of the paved runway

19 Runway & Taxi Markings For what purposes can you use the paved area before a displaced threshold that is marked by arrows?

20 Runway & Taxi Markings Available for taxi, takeoff and a landing rollout from the opposite direction but not for landing

21 Runway & Taxi Markings For what are chevrons used?

22 Runway & Taxi Markings For what are chevrons used? To show pavement areas aligned with the runway that are unusable for landing, takeoff and taxiing

23 Runway & Taxi Markings What is the name of the bar that separates a runway that has a displaced threshold from a taxiway or an area marked by chevrons that precedes the runway

24 Runway & Taxi Markings What is the name of the bar that separates a runway that has a displaced threshold from a taxiway or an area marked by cheverons that precedes the runway Demarcation Bar

25 Runway & Taxi Markings What color are surface painted location signs?

26 Runway & Taxi Markings What color are surface painted location signs? Black background with yellow inscription

27 Runway & Taxi Markings What color are mandatory instruction signs?

28 Runway & Taxi Markings What color are mandatory instruction signs? White characters on a red background

29 AIRPORT SIGNS HOLDING POSITIONS SIGNS At runway / runway intersections Do not cross unless clearance has been received. 4-22

30 AIRPORT SIGNS

31 Edge of Protected Area for Runway Identifies the boundary of the runway protected area Used to judge when the aircraft is clear of the protected area.

32 AIRPORT SIGNS

33 Edge of ILS Critical Area Identifies the boundary of the ILS critical area. Use this sign as a guide to judge when the aircraft is clear of the ILS critical area.

34 Airport Lighting What type of Approach Light System are use on visual runway

35 Airport Lighting None ALS provide the basic means to transition from instrument flight to visual flight for landing. They will be used with precision and nonprecision runways.

36 Lighting What color are taxiway centerline lights installed at some airports and used during low visibility conditions?

37 Taxiway Centerline Lights Green in- pavement lights to assist taxiing aircraft in darkness and in low visibility conditions.

38 Lights Describe Runway End Identifier Lights and when they are effective?

39 Description Consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights located laterally on each side of the runway threshold to provide rapid and positive identification of the approach end of a particular runway

40 Effective Effective for –Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting –Identification of a runway which lacks contrast with surrounding terrain

41 Effective –Identification of a runway during reduced visibility

42 Lights Describe land and hold short lights.

43 Land and Hold Short Lights In-pavement white, pulsating lights installed across the runway at the hold short point.

44 Lights When ON departing pilots and pilots cleared to land using the full length of the runway should ignore the lights

45 Lights How can you identify a rotating beacon at a military airport?

46 Lights How can you identify a rotating beacon at a military airport? Two whites and a green indicate a military airport

47 Lights What color do you see when above the glide slope on a tri- colored approach slope indicator?

48 Lights What color do you see when above the glide slope on a tri- colored approach slope indicator? Amber

49 Wake Turbulance In what configuration does an aircraft produce the most wake turbulence?

50 Wake Turbulence In what configuration does an aircraft produce the most wake turbulence? Clean, Slow and Heavy

51 Wake Turbulence When departing behind a large aircraft, what wind condition required the maximum amount of caution?

52 Wake Turbulence When departing behind a large aircraft, what wind condition required the maximum amount of caution? A light quartering tailwind

53 Wake Turbulence When a small aircraft makes an intersection take off on the same runway behind a large aircraft, how long an interval is ATC required to apply?

54 Wake Turbulence When a small aircraft makes an intersection take off on the same runway behind a large aircraft, how long an interval is ATC required to apply? 3 minutes Can this be waived?

55 Wake Turbulence Can this be waived? Yes, with a specific pilot request

56 Airports What is the difference between Unicom and Multicom?

57 Airports Unicom is a nongovernment air/ground radio communication station which provides airport advisories.

58 Airports Multicom is a self-announced procedure at airports without operating control towers that are not served by an FSS or Unicom

59 Airports What frequencies are usually used for Unicom?

60 Airports What frequencies are usually used for Unicom? and What is the Multicom frequency?

61 Airports What is the Multicom frequency? 122.9

62 Transponder Above what altitude must you have Mode C unless you are within 2,500 feet of the surface?

63 Transponder Above what altitude must you have Mode C unless you are within 2,500 feet of the surface? 10,000 feet

64 Airspace What is the minimum ceiling and visibility for operating within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, C, D and E airspace designated for an airport?

65 1000 feet and 3 miles visibility Airspace

66 Class A What are the upper and lower limits of Class A Airspace?

67 Class A Fl 180 to FL 600

68 Class C What is the normal upper limit of Class C airspace?

69 Class C 4000 feet AGL

70 Class D What is the normal upper limit of Class D airspace?

71 Class D 2500 feet AGL

72 Class E On a sectional chart, how is class E airspace to the surface depicted?

73 Class E Broken Magenta line

74 Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace? A. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME). B. Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules. C. Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder.

75 Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace? B. Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules.

76 Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace? A. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).

77 B. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment. C. May conduct operations under visual flight rules.

78 Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace? B. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

79 Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace? A. The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

80 B. The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating. C. The pilot in command must hold at least a student pilot certificate.

81 Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace? A. The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

82 What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within Class B airspace? A transponder A. with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability.

83 B. is required for airplane operations when visibility is less than 3 miles. C. with 4096 code capability is required except when operating at or below 1,000 feet AGL under the terms of a letter of agreement.

84 What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within Class B airspace? A transponder A. with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability.

85 What is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying Class B airspace? A. 200 knots. B. 156 knots. C. 230 knots.

86 What is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying Class B airspace? A. 200 knots.

87 Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport within Class C or D airspace is A. 230 knots. B. 200 knots. C. 180 knots.

88 Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport within Class C or D airspace is B. 200 knots.

89 If the minimum safe speed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed prescribed in 14 CFR part 91, the A. aircraft may be operated at that speed.

90 B. operator must have a Letter of Agreement with ATC. C. operator must have a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) with the controlling agency.

91 If the minimum safe speed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed prescribed in 14 CFR part 91, the A. aircraft may be operated at that speed.

92 Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area? A. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

93 B. Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility. C. Prior to landing, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with an ATC facility.

94 Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area? A. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

95 Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area? A. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder.

96 B. Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility. C. Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility.

97 Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area? C. Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility

98 At some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings under special VFR are A. authorized only if the ground visibility is observed to be at least 3 SM.

99 B. not authorized. C. authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.

100 At some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings under special VFR are C. authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.

101 When operating an airplane for the purpose of takeoff or landing within Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required? A. 500 feet beneath clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.

102 B. Remain clear of clouds, and the flight visibility must be at least 1 NM. C. Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.

103 When operating an airplane for the purpose of takeoff or landing within Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required? C. Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.

104 To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required? A. The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.

105 B. The Class D airspace must be specifically designated as a night SVFR area. C. The pilot must hold an instrument rating, but the airplane need not be equipped for instrument flight, as long as the weather will remain at or above SVFR minimums.

106 To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required? A. The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.

107 What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the control tower at that airport is not in operation? A. Class D, which then becomes Class E. B. Class D, which then becomes Class C. C. Class B.

108 What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the control tower at that airport is not in operation? A. Class D, which then becomes Class E.

109 When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to A. 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

110 B. 30 SM, and be transponder equipped. C. 10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.

111 When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to A. 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

112 Excluding Hawaii, the vertical limits of the Federal Low Altitude airways extend from A. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL. B. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL. C. 700 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL.

113 Excluding Hawaii, the vertical limits of the Federal Low Altitude airways extend from A. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL.

114 To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating your position, you must have an operative VHF A. transmitter and receiver, and an operative VOR receiver. B. transmitter and receiver. C. transmitter and receiver, and an operative ADF receiver.

115 To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating your position, you must have an operative VHF B. transmitter and receiver.

116 (Refer to figure 51.) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft A. passes the red symbol shown at the top of the figure.

117 B. is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol. C. is on the dashed-line side of the middle symbol.

118 (Refer to figure 51.) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft B. is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol.

119 (Refer to figure 51.) The red symbol at the top would most likely be found A. at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway. B. near the approach end of ILS runways. C. upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control.

120 (Refer to figure 51.) The red symbol at the top would most likely be found A. at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.

121 (Refer to figure 51.) While clearing an active runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which symbol? A. Top red. B. Bottom yellow. C. Middle yellow.

122 (Refer to figure 51.) While clearing an active runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which symbol? B. Bottom yellow.

123 (Refer to figure 51.) Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft? A. Top red. B. Bottom yellow. C. Middle yellow.

124 (Refer to figure 51.) Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft? A. Top red.

125 How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft? A. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.

126 B. The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space. C. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

127 How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft? C. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

128 What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft if during a night flight you observe a steady white light and a rotating red light ahead and at your altitude? The other aircraft is A. approaching you head-on. B. headed away from you. C. crossing to your left.

129 What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft if during a night flight you observe a steady white light and a rotating red light ahead and at your altitude? The other aircraft is B. headed away from you.

130 When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being used for navigation on VFR flights, it is important to A. exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR from other directions.

131 B. make 90° left and right turns to scan for other traffic. C. pass the VOR on the right side of the radial to allow room for aircraft flying in the opposite direction on the same radial.

132 When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being used for navigation on VFR flights, it is important to A. exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR from other directions.

133 Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence. A. The greatest vortex strength is produced when the generating airplane is heavy, clean, and fast.

134 B. The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll. C. Vortex generation begins with the initiation of the takeoff roll.

135 Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence. B. The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll.

136 During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by A. maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout.

137 B. being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake. C. extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point.

138 During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by B. being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.

139 Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude? A. Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.

140 B. Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course. C. Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.

141 Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude? A. Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.

142 To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne? A. At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point.

143 B. Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down. C. Past the point where the jet touched down.

144 To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne? C. Past the point where the jet touched down.

145 With respect to vortex circulation, which is true? A. Helicopters generate downwash turbulence, not vortex circulation.

146 B. Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip vortices generated by airplanes. C. The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is flying fast.

147 With respect to vortex circulation, which is true? B. Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip vortices generated by airplanes.

148 Which is true with respect to vortex circulation? A. When vortex circulation sinks into ground effect, it tends to dissipate rapidly and offer little danger.

149 B. The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow. C. Helicopters generate downwash turbulence only, not vortex circulation.

150 Which is true with respect to vortex circulation? B. The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.


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