1. TH-67 Systems Study Guide
(Power Train, Electrical, Fuel Systems, and Weight and Balance)

2. 1. State the purpose of the power train system?
Provides drive for the tail rotor
Supports the rotor head
Provides a means of transmitting engine power to the main and tail rotor systems
All of the above

3. 2. State the purpose of the freewheeling unit/sprag clutch assembly?
It prevents main drive shaft failure by acting as a freewheeling unit when the rotor is subject to high “G”s
The sprag clutch, in the freewheeling unit, provides a disconnect from the engine enabling autorotational forces to drive the transmission, tail rotor, and all transmission mounted accessories in the event of an engine failure
The sprag clutch transfers transmission RPM (inflow of air through the rotor system) to the freewheeling unit to drive the tail rotor
B and C

4. 3. What is the lubrication source for the freewheeling unit?
The freewheeling unit is lubricated by the engine
The freewheeling unit is lubricated by the hydraulic to oil heat exchanger behind the transmission
The freewheeling unit is a dry system thus it uses ambient air to cool down
The freewheeling unit is lubricated by transmission oil

5. 4. Does the freewheeling unit have a chip detection capability?
No, the chip detector is not electrically wired for a “Caution Light” indication in the cockpit, thus is not consider a chip detection system
Yes, but the chip detector is not electrically wired for a “Caution Light” indication in the cockpit
There is no chip detector installed in the freewheeling unit (no gears)
Yes, the chip detector is electrically wire to the cockpit for a “Caution Light” indication to alert the pilot

6. 5. What does the main drive shaft connect ?
It is a flexible coupling that connects the freewheeling unit to the transmission input drive
It connects the transmission to the rotor head
It connects the #5 drive shaft to the tail rotor gear box
None of the above

7. 6. Why is the main drive shaft a flexible coupling?
Flexible is better
The engine is going to provide the transmission with different kinds of power settings, thus the need for a flexible and adaptable coupling is required
The movement between the transmission (a floating pylon mount) and the freewheeling unit mounted on the engine (a rigid mount) requires a flexible coupling
It must be flexible because of the high vibration from the tail rotor that are transmitted back to the main rotor during autorotation

8. 7. In the event of an engine failure, what drives the tail rotor in autorotation?
The main drive shaft transfers transmission RPM (inflow of air through the rotor system) to the freewheeling unit and crosswinds provide drive to the tail rotor
The main drive shaft transfers transmission RPM (inflow of air through the rotor system) to the freewheeling unit to drive the tail rotor
The only thing that drives the tail rotor is the engine and if engine failure occurs the helicopter will enter an uncontrolled spin to the right
Autorotate when over a safe landing area

9. 8. What mounting technique is used to secure the transmission to the airframe?
A rigid mounting technique
An isolation mounting technique (it is not rigidly mounted)
Rubber mount technique
By the drag pylon technique (spike knock)

10. 9. What is the purpose of the pylon support links?
To mount the transmission to the airframe and bear the aircraft’s weight
To support the flight control pylon and all related equipment
To absorb negative “G”s during descents grater than 2,000 FPM
All of the above

11. 10. What effects does a focused pylon mount have on the transmission?
It rises the CG of the transmission. This reduces the transmission’s movement
It moves the CG of the transmission 5 inches forward. This reduces the transmission’s movement
It moves the CG of the transmission 5 inches aft. This reduces the transmission’s movement
It lowers the CG of the transmission. This reduces the transmission’s movement

12. 11. Why is the transmission mounted with a 5º forward tilt?
To provide a more desirable attitude during a hover
To provide a more comfortable attitude in forward flight
To provide a forward tilt of the main rotor to assist the pilot on forward flight at airspeeds above 100 KIAS
The tilt is 5º aft rather than forward and is to maintain a more comfortable attitude in forward flight

13. 12. Why is the transmission mounted with a 1.25º tilt to the left?
Because of the position of the cyclic no matter if the pilot is right or left handed, it is designed for a right handed person. The tilt is built for those left handed pilot to reduced their constant cyclic input
There is no left or right tilt on the main transmission system
To help compensate for translating tendency
To help compensate for dissymmetry of lift

14. 13. What does a rubber isolation mount provide?
It provides for lateral centering and shock absorption
It provides for longitudinal centering and shock absorption
There is no rubber on the transmission system due to high temperatures
A and B

15. 14. What does the drag link’s round pin and the pylon stop’s square hole provide?
Centering of the transmission during installation
It provides for fore/aft/side to side movement to the desired limits
Stops high vibration frequency coming down the cabin
Positive travel limits for the pylon

16. 15. Where does the TRANS OIL TEMP caution light get its information?
From the thermostat installed on the return line going to the oil cooler
From the switch located on the transmission oil filter’s housing
From the sump of the transmission
From a thermo bulb/transducer on the oil filter’s housing

17. 16. Where does the transmission oil temperature gauge get its information?
From the switch located on the transmission oil filter’s housing
From the transmission oil sump
From a thermo bulb/transducer on the oil filter’s housing
From the thermal difference of the transmission oil cooler in and out lines

18. 17. Does the transmission oil cooler have a bypass capability?
The transmission oil cooler has a thermal bypass at temperatures below 61º C. Above 81º C the bypass valve closes and the oil must be cooled.
The transmission oil cooler has a thermal bypass at temperatures below 81º C. Above 71º C the bypass valve closes and the oil must be cooled.
The transmission oil cooler has a thermal bypass at temperatures below 71º C. Above 81º C the bypass valve closes and the oil must be cooled.
The transmission oil cooler has a thermal bypass at temperatures below 61º C. Above 71º C the bypass valve closes and the oil must be cooled.

19. 18. How is the transmission oil cooled?
There is and outer case of the transmission that is filled with water and serves as heat exchange, from there goes back to the oil cooler
A flexible duct/hose assembly transports cooling air from the engine oil cooler housing to the transmission oil cooler where some air about to cool the transmission oil is scavenged to cool the hydraulic reservoir
It is cooled by ambient air
The transmission is splash lubricated and the oil heat is dissipated as it splashes reducing the heat on the oil

20. 19. How many chip detectors are there on the transmission oil system?
There are 2 transmission chip detectors (sump and pump) on the oil system
There are 3 transmission chip detectors (sump, pump, chip pan) on the oil system
There are 4 transmission chip detectors (sump, pump, chip pan, and freewheeling unit) on the oil system
There are 5 transmission chip detectors (sump, pump, chip pan, freewheeling unit, and the floating gear) on the oil system

21. 20. How many chip detectors are there on the transmission that can activate the TRANS CHIP caution light?
There are 5 transmission chip detectors (sump, pump, chip pan, freewheeling unit, and the floating gear) that can activate the TRANS CHIP caution light
There are 4 transmission chip detectors (sump, pump, chip pan, and freewheeling unit) that can activate the TRANS CHIP caution light
There are 3 transmission chip detectors (sump, pump, chip pan) that can activate the TRANS CHIP caution light
There are 2 transmission chip detectors (sump and pump) that can activate the TRANS CHIP caution light

22. 21. Where is the transmission oil level sight glass located?
The sight glass is located on the back side of the transmission
The sight glass is located on the front side of the transmission
The sight glass is located on the left side of the transmission
The sight glass is located on the right side of the transmission

23. 22. What are the three splined areas on the mast?
The mast is splined to the planetary gear case, the floating gear, and the yoke
The mast is splined to the planetary gear case, the collar set, and the trunnion
The mast is splined to the planetary gear case and the trunnion
The mast is splined to the trunnion yoke

24. 23. Why is the mast hallow? It is cheaper than a solid mast
High frequency vibrations are less because the vibration travels less through the air inside the hallow mast
A hallow mast is stronger, flexible, and lighter weight
The mast is solid for maximum strength and durability

25. 24. How many tail rotor drive shaft segments are there?
There are five tail rotor drive shaft segments. Two are made of steel, and three are aluminum alloy.
There are eight tail rotor drive shaft segments. Two are made of iron, and six are titanium alloy.
There are six tail rotor drive shaft segments. Two are made of steel, and six are aluminum alloy.
There are eight tail rotor drive shaft segments. Two are made of steel, and six are aluminum alloy.

26. 25. How many tail rotor drive shaft segments are on top of the tail boom section of the aircraft?
Four of the eight tail rotor drive shaft segments are on top of the tail boom
Five of the eight tail rotor drive shaft segments are on top of the tail boom
Six of the eight tail rotor drive shaft segments are on top of the tail boom
Seven of the eight tail rotor drive shaft segments are on top of the tail boom

27. 26. What are the hanger bearing assemblies used for?
Hanger-bearing assemblies are used to support the tail rotor to the tail boom
Hanger-bearing assemblies are used in Army helicopter hangar doors to assist maintainers when opening and closing the doors
Hanger-bearing assemblies are used to support the drive shaft and maintain drive train alignment in its position over the tail boom
B and C

28. 27. What is used to connect a drive shaft segment to another component?
Disc couplings are used at every drive shaft connection to provide a strong yet flexible connection requiring no lubrication
Flexible couplings are used at every drive shaft connection to provide a strong yet flexible connection requiring no lubrication
Thompson couplings are used at every drive shaft connection to provide a strong yet flexible connection requiring no lubrication
Thomas couplings are used at every drive shaft connection to provide a strong yet flexible connection requiring no lubrication

29. 28. Why are the indexing flats in Thomas couplings alternated?
Alternating indexing flats helps with balancing of the drive shaft
Alternating indexing flats increases the tensile strength on the flexible couplings
A and B
There are no flats on the Thomas couplings

30. 29. What is used to prevent slipping when the last tail rotor drive shaft segment is attached to the tail rotor gearbox?
A splined adapter is used to prevent slipping
A splined trunnion is used to prevent slipping
A splined yoke is used to prevent slipping
The delta hinge is used to prevent slipping

31. 30. Why are breather type filler caps used on the tail rotor gearbox?
Breather type filler caps are used to let high pressure buildup in the tail gearbox escape
Breather type filler caps are used to prevent “pooling and cavitation”
Breather type filler caps are used to provide a mean to service the tail gearbox without removing the cap, thus preventing foreign object damage (FOD) to enter the system
All of the above

32. 31. What caution light illuminates when ferrous metal particles complete the circuit on the tail rotor gearbox chip detector?
The T/R particle caution light
The T/R complete circuit light
The T/R ship caution light
The T/R chip caution light

33. 32. What is the rating of the SLAB battery?
The SLAB battery voltage is 21 VDC 19 amps
The SLAB battery voltage is 24 VDC 17 amps
The SLAB battery voltage is 24 VDC 15 amps
The SLAB battery voltage is 22 VDC 17 amps

34. 33. Where is the battery switch (BATT/OFF) located?
On the lower console
On the upper panel
On the battery panel
On the overhead console

35. 34. What recharges the battery?
The standby generator recharges the battery in flight
The N2 tachometer generator recharges the battery in flight
The N1 tachometer generator recharges the battery in flight
The generator recharges the battery in flight

36. 35. Can the batteries level of charge be checked during flight?
No, there is no selection on the voltmeter selector switch that gives you this option
Only on the IFR version aircraft
Yes, the generator must be on as the battery switch is turned off. The drop observed on the load meter indicates how much of the generator’s load was devoted to recharging the battery
None of the above

37. 36. What indicates a fully charged battery?
During pre-flight the SLAB dip stick should be on the full line
During pre-flight you should see acid fluid through the sight glass in front of the SLAB (top line)
A drop of less that 1% indicates a fully charge battery
A rise of 1% or more indicates a fully charge battery

38. 37. What a drop of 1% or more on the load meter indicates?
It indicates that the battery is still charging
Indicates a fully charged battery
Indicates the thickness of the gauge
Battery life less than 30 minutes

39. 38. What measuring gauge is used to measure 1%?
The thickness of a nickel is the measuring gauge for 1%
The thickness of a dime is the measuring gauge for 1%
The thickness of a primary line is the measuring gauge for 1%
The thickness of a secondary line is the measuring gauge for 1%

40. 39. What does the starter component of the starter/generator do during the starting sequence?
The starter component turns the N2 gear train to drive the accessories necessary for basic engine operation
The starter component turns the N1 gear train to drive the accessories necessary for basic engine operation
The starter component turns the power turbine train to drive the accessories necessary for basic engine operation
The starter component turns the Ng gear train to drive the accessories necessary for basic engine operation

41. 40. What does the generator component of the starter generator do after the engine is running?
The generator provides 24 VDC to the aircraft’s electrical circuits, plus it maintains charge of the main battery that is in the nose of the helicopter
The generator provides 22 VDC to the aircraft’s electrical circuits, plus it maintains charge of the main battery that is in the nose of the helicopter
The generator provides 28 VDC to the aircraft’s electrical circuits, plus it maintains charge of the main battery that is in the nose of the helicopter
The generator provides 26 VDC to the aircraft’s electrical circuits, plus it maintains charge of the main battery that is in the nose of the helicopter

42. 41. How many buss bars are there in the VFR and A+ configuration?
There are three main buss bars in the VFR and A+ configuration
There is one main buss bar in the VFR and A+ configuration
There are two main buss bars in the VFR and A+ configuration
There are four main buss bars in the VFR and A+ configuration

43. 42. What is the purpose of a bus bar?
A buss bar distributes electrical power
A buss bar protects circuits from over and under frequencies
A buss bar is a device which converts AC current to DC current
A buss bar connects to moving parts electrically

44. 43. What is the starter/generator rated at?
The starter/generator is rated at 28 VAC and 105 amperes
The starter/generator is rated at 28 VDC and 150 amperes
The starter/generator is rated at 28 VDC and 105 ohms
The starter/generator is rated at 28 VDC and 105 amperes

45. 44. What are the power sources for starting the VFR and A+ configured aircraft?
The 12 volts battery and the CPU
The battery in the nose of the aircraft and the auxiliary power unit
The starter/generator and the main battery
The main battery and standby battery

46. 45. During normal operations, what are the power sources for the VFR and A+ configuration?
The main generator is the primary source with the standby generator as a backup power source
The battery is the primary source with the standby battery as a backup power source
The main generator is the primary source with the battery as a backup power source
The ground power unit (GPU) and the main generator

47. 46. How long will the battery power the electrical systems after the generator has failed?
30 minutes during the day and 10 minutes during the night
There are too many variables to predict battery life in terms of time after generator failure
With all essential electrical equipment on, about 25 minutes
With all nonessential electrical equipment off, about 45 minutes

48. 47. How many direct current power sources are available for normal operations in the IFR configuration?
Two (main generator and standby generator)
Two (main battery and standby battery)
Three (main generator, standby generator, and the standby battery)
Three (main generator, standby generator, and the main battery)

49. 48. What is the rating of the standby generator?
24 VDC and 17 amperes
28 VAC and 15 amperes
28 VDC and 17 amperes
28 VDC and 15 amperes

50. 49. What is the rating of the main battery in the nose of the helicopter?
28 VDC and 15 amperes
24 VDC and 17 amperes
24 VAC and 17 amperes
28 VAC and 15 amperes

51. 50. What does the Voltage Monitoring System allow the pilot to monitor?
Allows the pilot to monitor generators, batteries, and buss bar voltage
Allows the pilot to switch from DC to AC current and to monitor generators, batteries, and buss bar voltage
A and B
None of the above

52. 51. What does an inverter do?
Sends a signal to the cockpit just before the helicopter reaching an inverted attitude
Converts DC voltage to 115 volts AC to run two elements of the avionics package
Following a Main Generator failure it will keep the battery charge for 30 minutes
None of the above

53. 52. What is the rating of the standby battery?
12 VDC
28 VDC
24 VDC
22 VDC

54. 53. How many buss bars are there in the IFR configuration?
There are two buss bars (ESS 1 and ESS 2)
There are four buss bars (ESS 1, ESS 2, NON-ESS, and SEMI-ESS)
There are three bus bars (ESS 1, ESS 2, and NON-ESS)
Only one buss bar (ESS 1)

55. 54. Which buss bar is the most protected?
The pilot’s buss bar (ESS 4)
The pilot’s buss bar (ESS 3)
The pilot’s buss bar (ESS 1)
The pilot’s buss bar (ESS 2)

56. 55. Following the main generator’s failure (MAIN GEN FAIL) what powers the ESS 2 buss bar?
The standby battery
The main battery
A and B
None of the above

57. 56. Following a main generator failure (MAIN GEN FAIL) what powers the NON ESS buss bar?
The main battery powers the NON ESS buss bar provided the NON ESS switch is placed in the NORMAL position; otherwise the NON ESS circuits are shed from the battery’s load
The main battery powers the NON ESS buss bar provided the NON ESS switch is placed in the MANUAL position; otherwise the NON ESS circuits are shed from the battery’s load
A or B
None of the above. In the event of main generator failure the only thing that is protected is the ESS 1

58. 57. In the IFR configuration, how many power sources are there for starting?
There are three power sources (the main generator, main battery, and the standby generator) for starting
There are two power sources (the main battery, and the auxiliary power unit) for starting
There is one power source (the auxiliary power unit) for starting
There is one power source (the main battery) for starting

59. 58. In the event of dual generator failure (MAIN GEN FAIL and STBY GEN FAIL) and main battery power becomes depleted, what powers the standby attitude indicator?
The main battery for at least 30 min
The back up battery for at least 30 min
The standby battery for at least 30 min
The secondary battery for at least 30 min

60. 59. What airspeed should be avoided when the standby generator is powering the ESS 1 buss bar?
Airspeeds above 122 KIAS
Airspeeds below 40 KIAS
Airspeeds above 50 KIAS
Airspeeds below 50 KIAS

61. 60. How many layers are there in the TH-67 fuel cell?
The TH-67 fuel cell is a triple layer, crashworthy, bladder based on civilian aviation standards
The TH-67 fuel cell is a double layer, crashworthy, bladder based on civilian aviation standards
The TH-67 fuel cell is single layer, crashworthy, bladder based on civilian aviation standards
. The TH-67 fuel cell is a zero layer, crashworthy, bladder based on civilian aviation standards

62. 61. What is the fuel cell capacity and how much of that capacity is consumable?
The fuel cell capacity is 90.1 U.S. gallons of which 86.6 gallons are consumable
The fuel cell capacity is 84.1 U.S. gallons of which 72.6 gallons are consumable
The fuel cell capacity is 82.1 U.S. gallons of which 80.6 gallons are consumable
The fuel cell capacity is 84.1 U.S. gallons of which 82.6 gallons are consumable

63. 62. What is the burn rate of the Allison C20J turbine engine?
The burn rate is gallons per hour
The burn rate is gallons per hour
The burn rate is gallons per hour
The burn rate is gallons per hour

64. 63. How many boost pumps are there in the TH-67?1 2 4

65. 64. How many fuel quantity-sending units are there in the fuel cell?1 2 3 4

66. 65. What caution light illuminates with approximately 12 gallons of fuel remaining?
12 GALLON light
Land ASAP light
FUEL LOW light
All of the above

67. 66. What is the purpose of the fuel sump drain valve?
Provides for the tacking of a fuel sample or defueling the aircraft
This valve prevents the grow of micro bacterial organisms in the fuel cell by venting the tank
This valve maintains the fuel cell at the correct fuel level when fueling the aircraft to prevent a rupture fuel cell during pressure fueling
A and C

68. 67. Where is the fuel pressure transducer located and what does it do?
It is located left side of the aircraft above the fuel filer cap. It converts a pressure head signal of the two boost pumps pressure and sends the higher reading to the fuel pressure gauge
It is located right side of the aircraft above the fuel filer cap. It converts a pressure head signal of the two boost pumps pressure and sends the higher reading to the fuel pressure gauge
It is located bottom of the aircraft fuel cell. It converts a pressure head signal of the two boost pumps pressure and sends the higher reading to the fuel pressure gauge
None of the above

69. 68. Where is the fuel shut-off valve located and what does it do?
It is located in the cockpit on the pilot side right below the flight instruments and it will stop the flow of fuel when placed on the off position guard down
It is located at the extreme top-right portion of the fuel cell above the fuel filler cap. It stops the flow of fuel when the FUEL VALVE ON/OFF switch is turned off
It is located on the fuel cell and it will shutoff fuel to the engine in the event of a crash
It is located right side of the aircraft above the fuel filer cap. It converts a pressure head signal of the two boost pumps pressure and sends the higher reading to the fuel pressure gauge

70. 69. Where is the airframe fuel filter located and what does it advise the pilot of?
It is located right side of the aircraft above the fuel filer cap. It converts a pressure head signal of the two boost pumps pressure and sends the higher reading to the fuel pressure gauge
It is located at the extreme top-right portion of the fuel cell above the fuel filler cap. It stops the flow of fuel when the FUEL VALVE ON/OFF switch is turned off
It is located on the right side of the engine compartment on the forward firewall. It advises the pilot of an “impending” airframe fuel filter bypass and that the fuel will continue to be delivered to the engine driven fuel pump
There is no airframe filters on the TH-67

71. 70. How is the fuel sump drain valve operated?
Hydraulically
Electrically
Pneumatically
Mechanically

72. 71. Where is the fuel sump drain valve located?
Forward of the forward cross tube and centered laterally
Forward of the aft cross tube and centered laterally
Right below the #4 tail drive shaft section
On the bottom right below the filler cap

73. 72. The fuel valve switch must be in which position for the fuel drain valve to operate?
OFF ON
STANDBY
ALTERNATE

74. 73. When taking a fuel sample from the fuel cell, the fuel boost pump circuit breakers should be in which position?
ALTERNATE to prevent water and sediment from circulating through the fuel system
STANDBY to prevent water and sediment from circulating through the fuel system
IN to prevent water and sediment from circulating through the fuel system
OUT to prevent water and sediment from circulating through the fuel system

75. 74. Where will sediment and water be found in the fuel sample jar?
Bottom of the jar
Top of the jar
Middle of the jar
Water in the bottom and sediment about the middle of the jar

76. 75. Where is the fuel flow transducer located on the aircraft?
It is located right side of the aircraft above the fuel filer cap. It converts a pressure head signal of the two boost pumps pressure and sends the higher reading to the fuel pressure gauge
It is located on the right side of the engine compartment near the aft firewall
It is located on the right side of the engine compartment on the forward firewall. It advises the pilot of an “impending” airframe fuel filter bypass and that the fuel will continue to be delivered to the engine driven fuel pump
Forward of the aft cross tube and centered laterally

77. 76. When is the fuel low warning indicating system activated?
The fuel low warning system is activated when 35 minutes of fuel remains at the present consumption rate
The fuel low warning system is activated when 40 minutes of fuel remains at the present consumption rate
The fuel low warning system is activated when 45 minutes of fuel remains at the present consumption rate
The fuel low warning system is activated when 55 minutes of fuel remains at the present consumption rate

78. 77. The A/F FUEL FILTER caution light illuminates at ____ PSID and bypasses the filter at ___ PSID.
2, 4
2, 4.5
1, 4.5
1, 4

79. 78. How many times is the fuel filtered before it is ignited?
The fuel is filtered three times (A/F fuel filter, engine driven fuel pump, gas producer fuel control)
The fuel is filtered four times (A/F fuel filter, engine driven fuel pump, gas producer fuel control, and fuel nozzle)
The fuel is filtered two times (A/F fuel filter, engine driven fuel pump)
The fuel is filtered one time (A/F fuel filter)

80. 79. A dual boost pump failure is indicated by ___________.
A FUEL PUMP caution light and a little or no change in fuel pressure
A FUEL PUMP caution light and a fuel pressure drop to zero
FWD and AFT BOOST PUMP caution lights illuminated
Decreased fuel flow on the fuel management control box

81. 80. A single boost pump failure is indicated by _________.
A FUEL PUMP caution light and a fuel pressure drop to zero
FWD and AFT BOOST PUMP caution lights illuminated
A FUEL PUMP caution light and a little or no change in fuel pressure
Decreased fuel flow on the fuel management control box

82. 81. The ____________ responsibilities are to have a DD Form F on board the aircraft when flying; ensure computations are accurate and correct; and to ensure the center of gravity remains between the allowable limits for the entire flight
The student pilot
Your stick buddy
Pilot in command
Weight and balance technician

83. 82. Class __ aircraft are those aircraft whose weight and center of gravity limits can readily be exceeded; therefore, a high degree of loading control is needed. 1 2 3 4

84. 83. Is used to record any permanent changes in basic weight or center of gravity when the aircraft is modified.
DA Form
DD Form Chart C
DD Form Form F TM

85. 84. Can electronic data sheets be used in lieu of any of the DD Form 365 series forms?
No, only paper copy allowed
Yes, provided the information is identical to that required on the DD Form 365 series forms
There are no electronic forms of DD Form 365 series forms
None of the above

86. 85. Can the aircraft be flown if the aircraft’s basic weight has been modified?
Yes, provided the change in weight is less than 200 pounds
Yes, provided the change in weight is less than 100 pounds
The aircraft cannot be flown unless the change in basic weight is accounted for by the proper method
The aircraft can be flown but it must be weight and all forms updated prior to next day flight

87. 86. How are permanent changes in basic weight accounted for?
The pilot in command accounts for permanent changes by making an entry on DD Form Chart C and creating new forms to replace the old forms
The weight and balance technician accounts for permanent changes by making an entry on DD Form Chart C and creating new forms to replace the old forms
Manufacturer will come and weight the aircraft for any permanent changes in basic weight
Basic weight SHALL not be change under any circumstances

88. 87. How are temporary changes in basic weight accounted for?
The pilot in command accounts for temporary changes in basic weight by using the data recorded on DA Form or to account for the temporary changes on the forms in the back of the logbook and flight planning area
The weight and balance technician accounts for permanent changes by making an entry on DD Form Chart C and creating new forms to replace the old forms
Manufacturer will come and weight the aircraft for any permanent changes in basic weight
Basic weight SHALL not be change under any circumstances

89. 88. Is define as 90 days or less.
Permanent
Temporary
Basic
Tri-monthly

90. 89. What should be done if the aircraft is not returned to its original condition within the 90 day period?
Basic weight SHALL not be change under any circumstances
Manufacturer will come and weight the aircraft for any permanent changes in basic weight
The DD Form Chart C should be updated to reflect the temporary change and new DD Forms Form F should be created for every typical mission with two sets of copies to replace the expired copies in the logbook and the flight planning area
The weight and balance technician accounts for permanent changes by making an entry on DD Form Chart C and creating new forms to replace the old forms

91. 90. How often must all DD Forms 365-4 Form F be reviewed?
They must be reviewed every 45 days (365 days, Ft. Rucker policy)
They must be reviewed every 30 days (365 days, Ft. Rucker policy)
They must be reviewed every 90 days (365 days, Ft. Rucker policy)
They must be reviewed every 120 days (365 days, Ft. Rucker policy)

92. 91. How often must all other forms, besides DD Form F, in the file folder be reviewed for currency?
18 months
12 months
9 months
3 months

93. 92. Can a new date and initials in the date block extend the currency of DD Form 365-4 F?
No, only the manufacturer can approve date changes in accordance with FAA regulations
If no changes are required the DD Form Form F will be re-dated and initialed in the date block to certify their currency
If the date expires you must create new forms and replace the old forms
None of the above

94. 93. When extending the currency of DD Form 365-4 and changes are required one must __________?
Nothing given that the date is good for one year (Ft. Rucker policy)
No extension permitted
Complete a new DD Form 365-4
Complete a new DD Form Chart C

95. 94. How often should class 2 aircraft be weighed?
When last weighing exceeds 3 months
When last weighing exceeds 6 months
When last weighing exceeds 12 months
When last weighing exceeds 24 months

96. 95. How often should class 1 aircraft be weighed?
When the last weighing exceeds 36 days
When the last weighing exceeds 32 months
When the last weighing exceeds 36 months
When the last weighing exceeds 36 years

97. 96. What is the definition for basic weight?
Basic weight is the weight that is determine by the manufacturer when the helicopter comes out of the assembly line
Is that weight that includes all filled hydraulic and oil systems, trapped and unusable fuel, and all fixed equipment (this includes the first aid kit and fire extinguisher)
Is the weight of the aircraft minus the weight of the pilot, copilot, and observer
None of the above

98. 97. Is that weight that includes basic weight plus crew weight, crew baggage, steward’s equipment, emergency equipment, and other equipment that may be required.
Basic weight
Standard weight
Operating weight
Total aircraft weight

99. 98. Is the operating weight plus the weight of take-off fuel and water injection fluid if applicable.
Zero fuel weight
Complete aircraft weight
Total aircraft weight
B or C

100. 99. Is the operating weight (ref
99. Is the operating weight (ref. 9) plus Distribution of Allowable Load, payload (ref. 13).
Allowable weight
Zero fuel weight
Operating weight
Full fuel weight

101. 100. Is operating weight plus fuel, cargo, passengers, ammunitions, bombs, auxiliary fuel tanks, etc.
OGE hover take-off
IGE hover take-off
Take-off gross weight
Aircraft weight

102. 101. Take-off weight minus items expended in flight.
Expended weight
Landing gross weight
Zero fuel weight
Operating weight

103. 102. Is defined as the tendency to cause motion about a point or axis.
Spectrum
Arm
Moment
Center of gravity

104. 103. Weight times the arm (WxA=M)
Formula for Fulcrum
Formula for Center of Gravity
Formula for the reference Datum
Formula for moment

105. 104. Is the distance from the reference datum plane to the center of gravity of an item placed in the aircraft.
Arm
Moment
Fulcrum CG

106. 105. Is an imaginary plane perpendicular to the longitudinal axis at the nose of the aircraft from which all measurements of arm are taken.
Arm
Center of gravity
Moment
Reference Datum

107. 106. What is the formula for CG?
TW/TM=CG
WxA=M
TM/TW=CG
FxM=A